Pulmonary Health Hub

The mother of an 8-month-old calls your office and is hysterical. Her daughter has had cough for a few days with high fevers and now has developed a full body rash. She is worried about measles and is on her way to your office.

CDC/Molly Kurnit, M.P.H.

We are in the middle of a measles epidemic, there’s no denying it. Measles was declared eliminated in 2000, but reported cases in the United States have been on the rise, and are now at the highest number since 2014. Five months into 2019, there have been 839 reported cases as of May 13). Measles outbreaks (defined by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention as three or more cases) have been reported in California, Georgia, Maryland, Michigan, New Jersey, New York, and Pennsylvania. When vaccination rates fall, it is easy for measles to spread. The virus is highly contagious in nonimmune people, because of its airborne spread and its persistence in the environment for hours.
 

First – is it really measles?

When there is a measles outbreak, there is a heightened concern to “rule out” measles in any febrile child with a rash. It can be difficult to distinguish the maculopapular rash of measles from similar rashes that occur with more benign viral illnesses. Adding to the challenge, the last major measles outbreak in the United States was over 2 decades ago, and many practicing pediatricians have never seen a single case. So, what clinical features can help distinguish measles from other febrile illnesses?

The prodromal phase of measles lasts approximately 2-4 days and children have high fevers (103°-105° F), anorexia, and malaise. Conjunctivitis, coryza, and cough develop during this phase, and precede any rash. Koplik spots appear during the prodromal phase, but are not seen in all cases. These spots are 1- to 3-mm blue-white lesions on an erythematous base on the buccal mucosa, classically opposite the first molar. The spots often slough once the rash appears. The rash appears 2-4 days after the onset of fever, and is initially maculopapular and blanching. The first lesions appear on the face and neck, and the rash spreads cranial to caudal, typically sparing palms and soles. After days 3-4, the rash will no longer blanch. High fevers persist for 2-4 more days with rash, ongoing respiratory symptoms, conjunctivitis, and pharyngitis. Note that the fever will persist even with development of the rash, unlike in roseola.

It is not only important to diagnosis measles from a public health standpoint, but also because measles can have severe complications, especially in infants and children under 5 years. During the 1989-1991 outbreak, the mortality rate was 2.2 deaths per 1,000 cases (J Infect Dis. 2004 May 1. doi: 10.1086/377694).

Six percent of patients develop pneumonia, which in infants and toddlers can lead to respiratory distress or failure requiring hospitalization. Pneumonia is responsible for 60% of measles deaths, according to the CDC “Pink Book,” Epidemiology and Prevention of Vaccine-Preventable Diseases, chapter 13 on measles, 13th Ed., 2015. Ocular complications include keratitis and corneal ulceration. Measles also can cause serious neurologic complications. Encephalitis, seen in 1 per 1,000 cases, usually arises several days after the rash and may present with seizure or encephalopathy. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM), an inflammatory demyelinating disease of the central nervous system, occurs in approximately 1 per 1,000 cases, typically presents during the recovery phase (1-2 weeks after rash), and can have long-term sequelae. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive and fatal neurodegenerative disorder, and presents 7-10 years after measles infection.
 

Should you transfer the patient to a hospital?

Unless there is a medical need for the child to be admitted, sending a patient with potential measles to the hospital is not necessary, and can cause exposure to a large group of medical personnel, and patients who cannot be vaccinated (such as infants, immunocompromised patients, and pregnant women). However, if there is concern for complications such as seizures, encephalitis, or pneumonia, then transfer is indicated. Call the accepting hospital in advance so the staff can prepare for the patient. During transfer, place a standard face mask on the patient and instruct the patient not to remove it.

For hospitals accepting a suspected measles case, meet the patient outside of the facility and ensure that the patient is wearing a standard face mask. All staff interacting with the patient should practice contact and airborne precautions (N95 respirator mask). Take the patient directly to an isolation room with negative airflow. Caution pregnant staff that they should not have contact with the patient.
 

Which diagnostic tests should you use?

Diagnosis can be made based on serum antibody tests (measles IgM and IgG), throat or urine viral cultures, and nasopharyngeal and throat specimen polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing. The CDC recommends obtaining a serum sample for measles IgM testing and a throat swab for PCR in all suspected cases, but local health departments vary in their specific testing recommendations. Familiarize yourself with the tests recommended by your local department of health, and where they prefer testing on outpatients to be done. Confirmed measles should be reported to your department of health.

What are considerations for community pediatric offices?

Update families in emails to call ahead if they suspect measles. This way the office can prepare a room for the family, and have the family immediately brought back without exposing staff and other families in the waiting area. It may be more prudent to examine these children at the end of the clinic day as the virus can persist for up to 2 hours on fomites and in the air. Therefore, all waiting areas and shared air spaces (including those with shared air ducts) should be cleared for 2 hours after the patient leaves.

When should you provide prophylaxis after exposure?

A patient with suspected measles does not require immediate vaccination. If it is measles, it is already too late to vaccinate. If measles is ruled out, the child should follow the standard measles vaccination guidelines.

Individuals are contagious from 4 days before to 4 days after the rash appears.

If measles is confirmed, all people who are unvaccinated or undervaccinated and were exposed to the confirmed case during the contagious period should be vaccinated within 72 hours of exposure. Infants 6 months or older may safely receive the MMR vaccine. However, infants vaccinated with MMR before their first birthday must be vaccinated again at age 12-15 months (greater than 28 days after prior vaccine) and at 4-6 years. Immunoglobulin prophylaxis should be given intramuscularly in exposed infants ages birth to less than 6 months, and in those ages 6-12 months who present beyond the 72-hour window. Unvaccinated or undervaccinated, exposed individuals at high risk for complications from measles (immunocompromised, pregnant) also should receive immunoglobulin.
 

What should you tell traveling families?

Several countries have large, ongoing measles outbreaks, including Israel, Ukraine, and the Philippines. Before international travel, infants 6-11 months should receive one dose of MMR vaccine, and children 12 months and older need two doses separated by at least 28 days. For unvaccinated or undervaccinated children, consider advising families to hold off travel to high-risk countries, or understand the indications to vaccinate a child upon return.
 

Dr. Angelica DesPain is a pediatric emergency medicine fellow at Children’s National Medical Center in Washington. She said she has no relevant financial disclosures. Dr. Emily Willner is a pediatric emergency medicine attending at Children’s National Medical Center, and an assistant professor of pediatrics and emergency medicine at George Washington University, Washington. She has no relevant financial disclosures.

The mother of an 8-month-old calls your office and is hysterical. Her daughter has had cough for a few days with high fevers and now has developed a full body rash. She is worried about measles and is on her way to your office.

CDC/Molly Kurnit, M.P.H.

We are in the middle of a measles epidemic, there’s no denying it. Measles was declared eliminated in 2000, but reported cases in the United States have been on the rise, and are now at the highest number since 2014. Five months into 2019, there have been 839 reported cases as of May 13). Measles outbreaks (defined by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention as three or more cases) have been reported in California, Georgia, Maryland, Michigan, New Jersey, New York, and Pennsylvania. When vaccination rates fall, it is easy for measles to spread. The virus is highly contagious in nonimmune people, because of its airborne spread and its persistence in the environment for hours.
 

First – is it really measles?

When there is a measles outbreak, there is a heightened concern to “rule out” measles in any febrile child with a rash. It can be difficult to distinguish the maculopapular rash of measles from similar rashes that occur with more benign viral illnesses. Adding to the challenge, the last major measles outbreak in the United States was over 2 decades ago, and many practicing pediatricians have never seen a single case. So, what clinical features can help distinguish measles from other febrile illnesses?

The prodromal phase of measles lasts approximately 2-4 days and children have high fevers (103°-105° F), anorexia, and malaise. Conjunctivitis, coryza, and cough develop during this phase, and precede any rash. Koplik spots appear during the prodromal phase, but are not seen in all cases. These spots are 1- to 3-mm blue-white lesions on an erythematous base on the buccal mucosa, classically opposite the first molar. The spots often slough once the rash appears. The rash appears 2-4 days after the onset of fever, and is initially maculopapular and blanching. The first lesions appear on the face and neck, and the rash spreads cranial to caudal, typically sparing palms and soles. After days 3-4, the rash will no longer blanch. High fevers persist for 2-4 more days with rash, ongoing respiratory symptoms, conjunctivitis, and pharyngitis. Note that the fever will persist even with development of the rash, unlike in roseola.

It is not only important to diagnosis measles from a public health standpoint, but also because measles can have severe complications, especially in infants and children under 5 years. During the 1989-1991 outbreak, the mortality rate was 2.2 deaths per 1,000 cases (J Infect Dis. 2004 May 1. doi: 10.1086/377694).

Six percent of patients develop pneumonia, which in infants and toddlers can lead to respiratory distress or failure requiring hospitalization. Pneumonia is responsible for 60% of measles deaths, according to the CDC “Pink Book,” Epidemiology and Prevention of Vaccine-Preventable Diseases, chapter 13 on measles, 13th Ed., 2015. Ocular complications include keratitis and corneal ulceration. Measles also can cause serious neurologic complications. Encephalitis, seen in 1 per 1,000 cases, usually arises several days after the rash and may present with seizure or encephalopathy. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM), an inflammatory demyelinating disease of the central nervous system, occurs in approximately 1 per 1,000 cases, typically presents during the recovery phase (1-2 weeks after rash), and can have long-term sequelae. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive and fatal neurodegenerative disorder, and presents 7-10 years after measles infection.
 

Should you transfer the patient to a hospital?

Unless there is a medical need for the child to be admitted, sending a patient with potential measles to the hospital is not necessary, and can cause exposure to a large group of medical personnel, and patients who cannot be vaccinated (such as infants, immunocompromised patients, and pregnant women). However, if there is concern for complications such as seizures, encephalitis, or pneumonia, then transfer is indicated. Call the accepting hospital in advance so the staff can prepare for the patient. During transfer, place a standard face mask on the patient and instruct the patient not to remove it.

For hospitals accepting a suspected measles case, meet the patient outside of the facility and ensure that the patient is wearing a standard face mask. All staff interacting with the patient should practice contact and airborne precautions (N95 respirator mask). Take the patient directly to an isolation room with negative airflow. Caution pregnant staff that they should not have contact with the patient.
 

Which diagnostic tests should you use?

Diagnosis can be made based on serum antibody tests (measles IgM and IgG), throat or urine viral cultures, and nasopharyngeal and throat specimen polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing. The CDC recommends obtaining a serum sample for measles IgM testing and a throat swab for PCR in all suspected cases, but local health departments vary in their specific testing recommendations. Familiarize yourself with the tests recommended by your local department of health, and where they prefer testing on outpatients to be done. Confirmed measles should be reported to your department of health.

What are considerations for community pediatric offices?

Update families in emails to call ahead if they suspect measles. This way the office can prepare a room for the family, and have the family immediately brought back without exposing staff and other families in the waiting area. It may be more prudent to examine these children at the end of the clinic day as the virus can persist for up to 2 hours on fomites and in the air. Therefore, all waiting areas and shared air spaces (including those with shared air ducts) should be cleared for 2 hours after the patient leaves.

When should you provide prophylaxis after exposure?

A patient with suspected measles does not require immediate vaccination. If it is measles, it is already too late to vaccinate. If measles is ruled out, the child should follow the standard measles vaccination guidelines.

Individuals are contagious from 4 days before to 4 days after the rash appears.

If measles is confirmed, all people who are unvaccinated or undervaccinated and were exposed to the confirmed case during the contagious period should be vaccinated within 72 hours of exposure. Infants 6 months or older may safely receive the MMR vaccine. However, infants vaccinated with MMR before their first birthday must be vaccinated again at age 12-15 months (greater than 28 days after prior vaccine) and at 4-6 years. Immunoglobulin prophylaxis should be given intramuscularly in exposed infants ages birth to less than 6 months, and in those ages 6-12 months who present beyond the 72-hour window. Unvaccinated or undervaccinated, exposed individuals at high risk for complications from measles (immunocompromised, pregnant) also should receive immunoglobulin.
 

What should you tell traveling families?

Several countries have large, ongoing measles outbreaks, including Israel, Ukraine, and the Philippines. Before international travel, infants 6-11 months should receive one dose of MMR vaccine, and children 12 months and older need two doses separated by at least 28 days. For unvaccinated or undervaccinated children, consider advising families to hold off travel to high-risk countries, or understand the indications to vaccinate a child upon return.
 

Dr. Angelica DesPain is a pediatric emergency medicine fellow at Children’s National Medical Center in Washington. She said she has no relevant financial disclosures. Dr. Emily Willner is a pediatric emergency medicine attending at Children’s National Medical Center, and an assistant professor of pediatrics and emergency medicine at George Washington University, Washington. She has no relevant financial disclosures.

The mother of an 8-month-old calls your office and is hysterical. Her daughter has had cough for a few days with high fevers and now has developed a full body rash. She is worried about measles and is on her way to your office.

CDC/Molly Kurnit, M.P.H.

We are in the middle of a measles epidemic, there’s no denying it. Measles was declared eliminated in 2000, but reported cases in the United States have been on the rise, and are now at the highest number since 2014. Five months into 2019, there have been 839 reported cases as of May 13). Measles outbreaks (defined by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention as three or more cases) have been reported in California, Georgia, Maryland, Michigan, New Jersey, New York, and Pennsylvania. When vaccination rates fall, it is easy for measles to spread. The virus is highly contagious in nonimmune people, because of its airborne spread and its persistence in the environment for hours.
 

First – is it really measles?

When there is a measles outbreak, there is a heightened concern to “rule out” measles in any febrile child with a rash. It can be difficult to distinguish the maculopapular rash of measles from similar rashes that occur with more benign viral illnesses. Adding to the challenge, the last major measles outbreak in the United States was over 2 decades ago, and many practicing pediatricians have never seen a single case. So, what clinical features can help distinguish measles from other febrile illnesses?

The prodromal phase of measles lasts approximately 2-4 days and children have high fevers (103°-105° F), anorexia, and malaise. Conjunctivitis, coryza, and cough develop during this phase, and precede any rash. Koplik spots appear during the prodromal phase, but are not seen in all cases. These spots are 1- to 3-mm blue-white lesions on an erythematous base on the buccal mucosa, classically opposite the first molar. The spots often slough once the rash appears. The rash appears 2-4 days after the onset of fever, and is initially maculopapular and blanching. The first lesions appear on the face and neck, and the rash spreads cranial to caudal, typically sparing palms and soles. After days 3-4, the rash will no longer blanch. High fevers persist for 2-4 more days with rash, ongoing respiratory symptoms, conjunctivitis, and pharyngitis. Note that the fever will persist even with development of the rash, unlike in roseola.

It is not only important to diagnosis measles from a public health standpoint, but also because measles can have severe complications, especially in infants and children under 5 years. During the 1989-1991 outbreak, the mortality rate was 2.2 deaths per 1,000 cases (J Infect Dis. 2004 May 1. doi: 10.1086/377694).

Six percent of patients develop pneumonia, which in infants and toddlers can lead to respiratory distress or failure requiring hospitalization. Pneumonia is responsible for 60% of measles deaths, according to the CDC “Pink Book,” Epidemiology and Prevention of Vaccine-Preventable Diseases, chapter 13 on measles, 13th Ed., 2015. Ocular complications include keratitis and corneal ulceration. Measles also can cause serious neurologic complications. Encephalitis, seen in 1 per 1,000 cases, usually arises several days after the rash and may present with seizure or encephalopathy. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM), an inflammatory demyelinating disease of the central nervous system, occurs in approximately 1 per 1,000 cases, typically presents during the recovery phase (1-2 weeks after rash), and can have long-term sequelae. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive and fatal neurodegenerative disorder, and presents 7-10 years after measles infection.
 

Should you transfer the patient to a hospital?

Unless there is a medical need for the child to be admitted, sending a patient with potential measles to the hospital is not necessary, and can cause exposure to a large group of medical personnel, and patients who cannot be vaccinated (such as infants, immunocompromised patients, and pregnant women). However, if there is concern for complications such as seizures, encephalitis, or pneumonia, then transfer is indicated. Call the accepting hospital in advance so the staff can prepare for the patient. During transfer, place a standard face mask on the patient and instruct the patient not to remove it.

For hospitals accepting a suspected measles case, meet the patient outside of the facility and ensure that the patient is wearing a standard face mask. All staff interacting with the patient should practice contact and airborne precautions (N95 respirator mask). Take the patient directly to an isolation room with negative airflow. Caution pregnant staff that they should not have contact with the patient.
 

Which diagnostic tests should you use?

Diagnosis can be made based on serum antibody tests (measles IgM and IgG), throat or urine viral cultures, and nasopharyngeal and throat specimen polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing. The CDC recommends obtaining a serum sample for measles IgM testing and a throat swab for PCR in all suspected cases, but local health departments vary in their specific testing recommendations. Familiarize yourself with the tests recommended by your local department of health, and where they prefer testing on outpatients to be done. Confirmed measles should be reported to your department of health.

What are considerations for community pediatric offices?

Update families in emails to call ahead if they suspect measles. This way the office can prepare a room for the family, and have the family immediately brought back without exposing staff and other families in the waiting area. It may be more prudent to examine these children at the end of the clinic day as the virus can persist for up to 2 hours on fomites and in the air. Therefore, all waiting areas and shared air spaces (including those with shared air ducts) should be cleared for 2 hours after the patient leaves.

When should you provide prophylaxis after exposure?

A patient with suspected measles does not require immediate vaccination. If it is measles, it is already too late to vaccinate. If measles is ruled out, the child should follow the standard measles vaccination guidelines.

Individuals are contagious from 4 days before to 4 days after the rash appears.

If measles is confirmed, all people who are unvaccinated or undervaccinated and were exposed to the confirmed case during the contagious period should be vaccinated within 72 hours of exposure. Infants 6 months or older may safely receive the MMR vaccine. However, infants vaccinated with MMR before their first birthday must be vaccinated again at age 12-15 months (greater than 28 days after prior vaccine) and at 4-6 years. Immunoglobulin prophylaxis should be given intramuscularly in exposed infants ages birth to less than 6 months, and in those ages 6-12 months who present beyond the 72-hour window. Unvaccinated or undervaccinated, exposed individuals at high risk for complications from measles (immunocompromised, pregnant) also should receive immunoglobulin.
 

What should you tell traveling families?

Several countries have large, ongoing measles outbreaks, including Israel, Ukraine, and the Philippines. Before international travel, infants 6-11 months should receive one dose of MMR vaccine, and children 12 months and older need two doses separated by at least 28 days. For unvaccinated or undervaccinated children, consider advising families to hold off travel to high-risk countries, or understand the indications to vaccinate a child upon return.
 

Dr. Angelica DesPain is a pediatric emergency medicine fellow at Children’s National Medical Center in Washington. She said she has no relevant financial disclosures. Dr. Emily Willner is a pediatric emergency medicine attending at Children’s National Medical Center, and an assistant professor of pediatrics and emergency medicine at George Washington University, Washington. She has no relevant financial disclosures.

Younger patients with non–small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) may have better survival, despite higher rates of brain metastasis and driver mutations, according to results from a retrospective analysis.

“We carried out a comprehensive analysis of patient clinicopathologic features and clinical outcomes in both young (age ≤ 50 years) and older (age > 60 years) patients with NSCLC,” wrote Anna May Suidan of Tel Aviv University, and colleagues. The findings were published in the Journal of Global Oncology.

The researchers reviewed medical records of patients who were diagnosed with lung cancer at a large cancer treatment facility in Israel from 2010 to 2015. Patients were categorized into two groups according to age at cancer diagnosis, which was established based on tumor pathology.

Various clinical data were collected, including demographic information, history of malignancy, smoking history, histologic subtype, and survival data.

In all, 62 patients were included in the younger cohort (median age, 44.5 years) and 124 patients in the older cohort (median age, 68.0 years).

After analysis, the researchers found that younger patients had a higher incidence of brain metastasis (39% vs. 25%, respectively; P = .04), and increased rates of EGFR mutations (23% vs. 18%, respectively; P = .4) and ALK translocations (13% vs. 2%, respectively; P = .002) versus older patients.

“Our cohort, which was [composed] of white patients, demonstrated that younger patients harbored more targetable driver mutations compared with older patients (34% vs. 18%; P = .01),” the researchers wrote.

In addition, among those with a driver mutation, younger patients showed a trend toward better survival (median survival, 33 vs. 25 months, respectively; P = .4).

Two key limitations of the study were the small sample size and retrospective design.

“[These results] highlight the importance of genetic background assessments and considering lung cancer as a possible diagnosis in young symptomatic patients in clinical settings,” the researchers concluded.

No funding sources were reported. The authors reported financial affiliations with Astra Zeneca, Boehringer Ingelheim, Bristol-Myers Squibb, Eli Lilly, Novartis, Roche, Teva Pharmaceuticals, and several others.

SOURCE: Suidan AM et al. J Glob Oncol. 2019 May 8. doi: 10.1200/JGO.18.00216.

Younger patients with non–small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) may have better survival, despite higher rates of brain metastasis and driver mutations, according to results from a retrospective analysis.

“We carried out a comprehensive analysis of patient clinicopathologic features and clinical outcomes in both young (age ≤ 50 years) and older (age > 60 years) patients with NSCLC,” wrote Anna May Suidan of Tel Aviv University, and colleagues. The findings were published in the Journal of Global Oncology.

The researchers reviewed medical records of patients who were diagnosed with lung cancer at a large cancer treatment facility in Israel from 2010 to 2015. Patients were categorized into two groups according to age at cancer diagnosis, which was established based on tumor pathology.

Various clinical data were collected, including demographic information, history of malignancy, smoking history, histologic subtype, and survival data.

In all, 62 patients were included in the younger cohort (median age, 44.5 years) and 124 patients in the older cohort (median age, 68.0 years).

After analysis, the researchers found that younger patients had a higher incidence of brain metastasis (39% vs. 25%, respectively; P = .04), and increased rates of EGFR mutations (23% vs. 18%, respectively; P = .4) and ALK translocations (13% vs. 2%, respectively; P = .002) versus older patients.

“Our cohort, which was [composed] of white patients, demonstrated that younger patients harbored more targetable driver mutations compared with older patients (34% vs. 18%; P = .01),” the researchers wrote.

In addition, among those with a driver mutation, younger patients showed a trend toward better survival (median survival, 33 vs. 25 months, respectively; P = .4).

Two key limitations of the study were the small sample size and retrospective design.

“[These results] highlight the importance of genetic background assessments and considering lung cancer as a possible diagnosis in young symptomatic patients in clinical settings,” the researchers concluded.

No funding sources were reported. The authors reported financial affiliations with Astra Zeneca, Boehringer Ingelheim, Bristol-Myers Squibb, Eli Lilly, Novartis, Roche, Teva Pharmaceuticals, and several others.

SOURCE: Suidan AM et al. J Glob Oncol. 2019 May 8. doi: 10.1200/JGO.18.00216.

Younger patients with non–small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) may have better survival, despite higher rates of brain metastasis and driver mutations, according to results from a retrospective analysis.

“We carried out a comprehensive analysis of patient clinicopathologic features and clinical outcomes in both young (age ≤ 50 years) and older (age > 60 years) patients with NSCLC,” wrote Anna May Suidan of Tel Aviv University, and colleagues. The findings were published in the Journal of Global Oncology.

The researchers reviewed medical records of patients who were diagnosed with lung cancer at a large cancer treatment facility in Israel from 2010 to 2015. Patients were categorized into two groups according to age at cancer diagnosis, which was established based on tumor pathology.

Various clinical data were collected, including demographic information, history of malignancy, smoking history, histologic subtype, and survival data.

In all, 62 patients were included in the younger cohort (median age, 44.5 years) and 124 patients in the older cohort (median age, 68.0 years).

After analysis, the researchers found that younger patients had a higher incidence of brain metastasis (39% vs. 25%, respectively; P = .04), and increased rates of EGFR mutations (23% vs. 18%, respectively; P = .4) and ALK translocations (13% vs. 2%, respectively; P = .002) versus older patients.

“Our cohort, which was [composed] of white patients, demonstrated that younger patients harbored more targetable driver mutations compared with older patients (34% vs. 18%; P = .01),” the researchers wrote.

In addition, among those with a driver mutation, younger patients showed a trend toward better survival (median survival, 33 vs. 25 months, respectively; P = .4).

Two key limitations of the study were the small sample size and retrospective design.

“[These results] highlight the importance of genetic background assessments and considering lung cancer as a possible diagnosis in young symptomatic patients in clinical settings,” the researchers concluded.

No funding sources were reported. The authors reported financial affiliations with Astra Zeneca, Boehringer Ingelheim, Bristol-Myers Squibb, Eli Lilly, Novartis, Roche, Teva Pharmaceuticals, and several others.

SOURCE: Suidan AM et al. J Glob Oncol. 2019 May 8. doi: 10.1200/JGO.18.00216.

Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) is increasingly being used to treat hematologic malignancies as well as nonmalignant diseases and solid tumors. Over the past 2 decades overall survival following transplant and transplant-related mortality have improved.¹ With this increased survival, there is a need to focus on late complications after transplantation. Pulmonary complications are a common but sometimes underrecognized cause of late morbidity and mortality in HSCT patients. This article, the second of 2 articles on post-HSCT pulmonary complications, reviews late-onset complications, with a focus on the evaluation and treatment of bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome (BOS), one of the most common and serious late pulmonary complications in HSCT patients. The first article reviewed the management of early-onset pulmonary complications and included a basic overview of stem cell transplantation, discussion of factors associated with pulmonary complications, and a review of methods for assessing pretransplant risk for pulmonary complications in patients undergoing HSCT.²

Case Presentation

A 40-year-old white woman with a history of acute myeloid leukemia status post peripheral blood stem cell transplant presents with dyspnea on exertion, which she states started about 1 month ago and now is limiting her with even 1 flight of stairs. She also complains of mild dry cough and a 4- to 5-lb weight loss over the past 1 to 2 months. She has an occasional runny nose, but denies gastroesophageal reflux, fevers, chills, or night sweats. She has a history of matched related sibling donor transplant with busulfan and cyclophosphamide conditioning 1 year prior to presentation. She has had significant graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), affecting the liver, gastrointestinal tract, skin, and eyes.

On physical examination, heart rate is 110 beats/min, respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min, blood pressure is 92/58 mm Hg, and the patient is afebrile. Eye exam reveals scleral injection, mouth shows dry mucous membranes with a few white plaques, and the skin has chronic changes with a rash over both arms. Cardiac exam reveals tachycardia but regular rhythm and there are no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Lungs are clear bilaterally and abdomen shows no organomegaly.

Laboratory exam shows a white blood cell count of 7800 cells/μL, hemoglobin level of 12.4 g/dL, and platelet count of 186 × 10³/μL. Liver enzymes are mildly elevated. Chest radiograph shows clear lung fields bilaterally.

• What is the differential in this patient with dyspnea 1 year after transplantation?

Late pulmonary complications are generally accepted as those occurring more than 100 days post transplant. This period of time is characterized by chronic GVHD and impaired cellular and humoral immunity. Results of longitudinal studies of infections in adult HSCT patients suggest that special attention should be paid to allogeneic HSCT recipients for post-engraftment infectious pulmonary complications.³ Encapsulated bacteria such as Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most frequent bacterial organisms causing late infectious pulmonary complications. Nontuberculous mycobacteria and Nocardia should also be considered. Depending upon geographic location, social and occupational risk factors, and prevalence, tuberculosis should also enter the differential.

There are many noninfectious late-onset pulmonary complications after HSCT. Unfortunately, the literature has divided pulmonary complications after HSCT using a range of criteria and classifications based upon timing, predominant pulmonary function test (PFT) findings, and etiology. These include early versus late, obstructive versus restrictive, and infectious versus noninfectious, which makes a comprehensive literature review of late pulmonary complications difficult. The most common noninfectious late-onset complications are bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (previously referred to as bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia, or BOOP), and interstitial pneumonia. Other rarely reported complications include eosinophilic pneumonia, pulmonary alveolar proteinosis, air leak syndrome, and pulmonary hypertension.

Case Continued

Because the patient does not have symptoms of infection, PFTs are obtained. Pretransplant PFTs and current PFTs are shown in Table 1.

• What is the diagnosis in this case?

Bronchiolitis Obliterans

BOS is one of the most common and most serious late-onset pulmonary diseases after allogeneic transplantation. It is considered the pulmonary form of chronic GVHD. BOS was first described in 1982 in patients with chronic GVHD after bone marrow transplantation.⁴ Many differing definitions of bronchiolitis obliterans have been described in the literature. A recent review of the topic cites 10 different published sets of criteria for the diagnosis of bronchiolitis obliterans.⁵ Traditionally, bronchiolitis obliterans was thought to occur in 2% to 8% of patients undergoing allogeneic HSCT, but these findings were from older studies that used a diagnosis based on very specific pathology findings. When more liberal diagnostic criteria are used, the incidence may be as high as 26% of allogeneic HSCT patients.⁶

Bronchiolitis obliterans is a progressive lung disease characterized by narrowing of the terminal airways and obliteration of the terminal bronchi. Pathology may show constrictive bronchiolitis but can also show lymphocytic bronchiolitis, which may be associated with a better outcome.⁷ As noted, bronchiolitis obliterans has traditionally been considered a pathologic diagnosis. Current diagnostic criteria have evolved based upon the difficulty in obtaining this diagnosis through transbronchial biopsy given the patchy nature of the disease.⁸ The gold standard of open lung biopsy is seldom pursued in the post-HSCT population as the procedure continues to carry a worrisome risk-benefit profile.

The 2005 National Institutes of Health (NIH) consensus development project on criteria for clinical trials in chronic GVHD developed a clinical strategy for diagnosing BOS using the following criteria: absence of active infection, decreased forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV₁) < 75%, FEV₁/forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio of < 70%, and evidence of air trapping on high-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) or PFTs (residual volume > 120%). These diagnostic criteria were applied to a small series of patients with clinically identified bronchiolitis obliterans or biopsy-proven bronchiolitis obliterans. Only 18% of these patients met the requirements for the NIH consensus definition.⁵ A 2011 study that applied the NIH criteria found an overall prevalence of 5.5% among all transplant recipients but a prevalence of 14% in patients with GVHD.⁹ In 2014, the NIH consensus development group updated their recommendations. The new criteria for diagnosis of BOS require the presence of  airflow obstruction (FEV₁/FVC < 70% or 5^th percentile of predicted), FEV₁ < 75% predicted with a ≥ 10% decline in fewer than 2 years, absence of infection, and presence of air trapping (by expiratory computed tomography [CT] scan or PFT with residual volume >120% predicted) (Table 2).

Some issues must be considered when determining airflow obstruction. The 2005 NIH working group recommends using Crapo as the reference set,¹¹ but the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) III reference values are the preferred reference set at this time¹² and should be used in the United States. A recent article showed that the NHANES values were superior to older reference sets (however, they did not use Crapo as the comparison), although this study used the lower limit of normal as compared with the fixed 70% ratio.¹³ The 2014 NIH consensus group does not recommend a specific reference set and recognizes an FEV₁/FVC ratio of 70% or less than the lower limit of normal as the cutoff value for airflow obstruction.¹⁰

Another issue in PFT interpretation is the finding of a decrease in FEV1 and FVC and normal total lung capacity, which is termed a nonspecific pattern. This pattern has been reported to occur in 9% of all PFTs and usually is associated with obstructive lung disease or obesity.¹⁴ A 2013 study described the nonspecific pattern as a BOS subgroup occurring in up to 31% of bronchiolitis obliterans patients.¹⁵

• What are the radiographic findings of BOS?

Chest radiograph is often normal in BOS. As discussed, air trapping can be documented using HRCT, according to the NIH clinical definition of bronchiolitis obliterans.¹⁶ A study that explored findings and trends seen on HRCT in HSCT patients with BOS found that the syndrome in these patients is characterized by central airway dilatation.¹⁷ Expiratory airway trapping on HRCT is the main finding, and this is best demonstrated on HRCT during inspiratory and expiratory phases.¹⁸ Other findings are bronchial wall thickening, parenchymal hypoattenuation, bronchiectasis, and centrilobular nodules.¹⁹

Galbán and colleagues developed a new technique called parametric response mapping that uses CT scanners to quantify normal parenchyma, functional small airway disease, emphysema, and parenchymal disease as relative lung volumes.²⁰ This technique can detect airflow obstruction and small airway disease and was found to be a good method for detecting BOS after HSCT. In their study of parametric response mapping, the authors found that functional small airway disease affecting 28% or more of the total lung was highly indicative of bronchiolitis obliterans.²⁰

• What therapies are used to treat BOS?

Traditionally, BOS has been treated with systemic immunosuppression. The recommended treatment had been systemic steroids at approximately 1 mg/ kg. However, it is increasingly recognized that BOS responds poorly to systemic steroids, and systemic steroids may actually be harmful and associated with increased mortality.^15,21 The chronic GVHD recommendations from 2005 recommend ancillary therapy with inhaled corticosteroids and pulmonary rehabilitation.¹¹ The updated 2011 German consensus statement lays out a clear management strategy for mild and moderate-severe disease with monitoring recommendations.²² The 2014 NIH chronic GVHD working group recommends fluticasone, azithromycin, and montelukast (ie, the FAM protocol) for treating BOS.²³ FAM therapy in BOS may help lower the systemic steroid dose.^24,25 Montelukast is not considered a treatment mainstay for BOS after lung transplant, but there is a study showing possible benefit in chronic GVHD.²⁶ An evaluation of the natural history of a cohort of BOS patients treated with FAM therapy showed a rapid decline of FEV₁ in the 6 months prior to diagnosis and treatment of BOS and subsequent stabilization following diagnosis and treatment.²⁷ The benefit of high-dose inhaled corticosteroids or the combination of inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting beta-agonists has been demonstrated in small studies, which showed that these agents stabilized FEV₁ and avoided the untoward side effects of systemic corticosteroids.^28–30

Macrolide antibiotics have been explored as a treatment for BOS post HSCT because pilot studies suggested that azithromycin improved or stabilized FEV₁ in patients with BOS after lung transplant or HSCT.^31–33 Other studies of azithromycin have not shown benefit in the HSCT population after 3 months of therapy.³⁴ A recent meta-analysis could neither support or refute the benefit of azithromycin for BOS after HSCT.³⁵ In the lung transplant population, a study showed that patients who were started on azithromycin after transplant and continued on it 3 times a week had improved FEV₁; these patients also had a reduced rate of BOS and improved overall and BOS-free survival 2 years after transplant.³⁶ However, these benefits of azithromycin have not been observed in patients after HSCT. In fact, the ALLOZITHRO trial was stopped early because prophylactic azithromycin started at the time of the conditioning regimen with HSCT was associated with increased hematologic disease relapse, a decrease in airflow-decline-free survival, and reduced 2-year survival.³⁰

Azithromycin is believed to exert an effect by its anti-inflammatory properties and perhaps by decreasing lung neutrophilia (it may be most beneficial in the subset of patients with high neutrophilia on bronchoalveolar lavage [BAL]).³⁰ Adverse effects of chronic azithromycin include QT prolongation, cardiac arrhythmia, hearing loss, and antibiotic-resistant organism colonization.^37,38

Other therapies include pulmonary rehabilitation, which may improve health-related quality of life and 6-minute walk distance,³⁹ extracorporeal photopheresis,⁴⁰ immunosuppression with calcineurin inhibitors or mycophenolate mofetil,^21,41 and lung transplantation.^42–44 A study with imatinib for the treatment of lung disease in steroid-refractory GVHD has shown promising results, but further validation with larger clinical trials is required.⁴⁵

Case Continued

The patient is diagnosed with BOS and is treated for several months with prednisone 40 mg/day weaned over 3 months. She is started on inhaled corticosteroids, a proton pump inhibitor, and azithromycin 3 times per week, but she has a progressive decline in FEV₁.  She starts pulmonary rehabilitation but continues to functionally decline. Over the next year she develops bilateral pneumothoraces and bilateral cavitary nodules (Figure 1).

• What is causing this decline and the radiographic abnormalities?

Spontaneous air leak syndrome has been described in a little more than 1% of patients undergoing HSCT and has included pneumothorax and mediastinal and subcutaneous emphysema.⁴⁶ It appears that air leak syndrome is more likely to occur in patients with chronic GVHD.⁴⁷ The association between chronic GVHD and air leak syndrome could explain this patient’s recurrent pneumothoraces. The recurrent cavitary nodules are suspicious for infectious etiologies such as nontuberculous mycobacteria, tuberculosis, and fungal infections.

Case Continued

During an episode of pneumothorax, the patient undergoes chest tube placement, pleurodesis, and lung biopsy.  Pathology reveals bronchiolitis obliterans as well as organizing pneumonia (Figure 2). No organisms are seen on acid-fast bacilli or GMS stains.

• What are the other late-onset noninfectious pulmonary complications?

Definitions of other late noninfectious pulmonary complications following HSCT are shown in Table 3.

Interstitial pneumonias may represent COP or may be idiopathic pneumonia syndrome with a later onset or a nonspecific interstitial pneumonia. This syndrome is poorly defined, with a number of differing definitions of the syndrome published in the literature.^50–55

A rare pulmonary complication after HSCT is pulmonary veno-occlusive disease (PVOD). Pulmonary hypertension has been reported after HSCT,⁵⁶ but PVOD is a subset of pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with pleural effusions and volume overload on chest radiography.^57,58 It may present early or late after transplant and is poorly understood.

Besides obstructive and restrictive PFT abnormalities, changes in small airway function⁵⁹ after transplant and loss in diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (Dlco) in the first 5 years after transplant have been reported, although these parameters improve by 10 years after transplant.⁶⁰ There do not appear to be any changes in responsiveness to methacholine.⁶¹ Losses in respiratory muscle strength (PiMax and PeMax after transplant) have been reported.⁶² Lower aerobic exercise capacity (Vo₂max) after pediatric HSCT has also been reported.⁶³

Case Conclusion

The patient’s lung function continues to worsen, but no infectious etiologies are discovered. Ultimately, she dies of respiratory failure caused by progressive bronchiolitis obliterans.

Conclusion

Late pulmonary complications occur frequently in patients who have undergone HSCT. These complications can be classified as infectious versus noninfectious etiologies. Late-onset complications are more common in allogeneic transplantations because they are associated with chronic GVHD. These complications can be manifestations of pulmonary GHVD or can be infectious complications associated with prolonged immunosuppression. Appropriate monitoring for the development of BOS is essential. Early and aggressive treatment of respiratory infections and diagnostic bronchoscopy with BAL can help elucidate most infectious causes. Still, diagnostic challenges remain and multiple causes of respiratory deterioration can be present concurrently in the post-HSCT patient. Steroid therapy remains the mainstay treatment for most noninfectious pulmonary complications and should be strongly considered once infection is effectively ruled out.

Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) is increasingly being used to treat hematologic malignancies as well as nonmalignant diseases and solid tumors. Over the past 2 decades overall survival following transplant and transplant-related mortality have improved.¹ With this increased survival, there is a need to focus on late complications after transplantation. Pulmonary complications are a common but sometimes underrecognized cause of late morbidity and mortality in HSCT patients. This article, the second of 2 articles on post-HSCT pulmonary complications, reviews late-onset complications, with a focus on the evaluation and treatment of bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome (BOS), one of the most common and serious late pulmonary complications in HSCT patients. The first article reviewed the management of early-onset pulmonary complications and included a basic overview of stem cell transplantation, discussion of factors associated with pulmonary complications, and a review of methods for assessing pretransplant risk for pulmonary complications in patients undergoing HSCT.²

Case Presentation

A 40-year-old white woman with a history of acute myeloid leukemia status post peripheral blood stem cell transplant presents with dyspnea on exertion, which she states started about 1 month ago and now is limiting her with even 1 flight of stairs. She also complains of mild dry cough and a 4- to 5-lb weight loss over the past 1 to 2 months. She has an occasional runny nose, but denies gastroesophageal reflux, fevers, chills, or night sweats. She has a history of matched related sibling donor transplant with busulfan and cyclophosphamide conditioning 1 year prior to presentation. She has had significant graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), affecting the liver, gastrointestinal tract, skin, and eyes.

On physical examination, heart rate is 110 beats/min, respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min, blood pressure is 92/58 mm Hg, and the patient is afebrile. Eye exam reveals scleral injection, mouth shows dry mucous membranes with a few white plaques, and the skin has chronic changes with a rash over both arms. Cardiac exam reveals tachycardia but regular rhythm and there are no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Lungs are clear bilaterally and abdomen shows no organomegaly.

Laboratory exam shows a white blood cell count of 7800 cells/μL, hemoglobin level of 12.4 g/dL, and platelet count of 186 × 10³/μL. Liver enzymes are mildly elevated. Chest radiograph shows clear lung fields bilaterally.

• What is the differential in this patient with dyspnea 1 year after transplantation?

Late pulmonary complications are generally accepted as those occurring more than 100 days post transplant. This period of time is characterized by chronic GVHD and impaired cellular and humoral immunity. Results of longitudinal studies of infections in adult HSCT patients suggest that special attention should be paid to allogeneic HSCT recipients for post-engraftment infectious pulmonary complications.³ Encapsulated bacteria such as Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most frequent bacterial organisms causing late infectious pulmonary complications. Nontuberculous mycobacteria and Nocardia should also be considered. Depending upon geographic location, social and occupational risk factors, and prevalence, tuberculosis should also enter the differential.

There are many noninfectious late-onset pulmonary complications after HSCT. Unfortunately, the literature has divided pulmonary complications after HSCT using a range of criteria and classifications based upon timing, predominant pulmonary function test (PFT) findings, and etiology. These include early versus late, obstructive versus restrictive, and infectious versus noninfectious, which makes a comprehensive literature review of late pulmonary complications difficult. The most common noninfectious late-onset complications are bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (previously referred to as bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia, or BOOP), and interstitial pneumonia. Other rarely reported complications include eosinophilic pneumonia, pulmonary alveolar proteinosis, air leak syndrome, and pulmonary hypertension.

Case Continued

Because the patient does not have symptoms of infection, PFTs are obtained. Pretransplant PFTs and current PFTs are shown in Table 1.

• What is the diagnosis in this case?

Bronchiolitis Obliterans

BOS is one of the most common and most serious late-onset pulmonary diseases after allogeneic transplantation. It is considered the pulmonary form of chronic GVHD. BOS was first described in 1982 in patients with chronic GVHD after bone marrow transplantation.⁴ Many differing definitions of bronchiolitis obliterans have been described in the literature. A recent review of the topic cites 10 different published sets of criteria for the diagnosis of bronchiolitis obliterans.⁵ Traditionally, bronchiolitis obliterans was thought to occur in 2% to 8% of patients undergoing allogeneic HSCT, but these findings were from older studies that used a diagnosis based on very specific pathology findings. When more liberal diagnostic criteria are used, the incidence may be as high as 26% of allogeneic HSCT patients.⁶

Bronchiolitis obliterans is a progressive lung disease characterized by narrowing of the terminal airways and obliteration of the terminal bronchi. Pathology may show constrictive bronchiolitis but can also show lymphocytic bronchiolitis, which may be associated with a better outcome.⁷ As noted, bronchiolitis obliterans has traditionally been considered a pathologic diagnosis. Current diagnostic criteria have evolved based upon the difficulty in obtaining this diagnosis through transbronchial biopsy given the patchy nature of the disease.⁸ The gold standard of open lung biopsy is seldom pursued in the post-HSCT population as the procedure continues to carry a worrisome risk-benefit profile.

The 2005 National Institutes of Health (NIH) consensus development project on criteria for clinical trials in chronic GVHD developed a clinical strategy for diagnosing BOS using the following criteria: absence of active infection, decreased forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV₁) < 75%, FEV₁/forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio of < 70%, and evidence of air trapping on high-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) or PFTs (residual volume > 120%). These diagnostic criteria were applied to a small series of patients with clinically identified bronchiolitis obliterans or biopsy-proven bronchiolitis obliterans. Only 18% of these patients met the requirements for the NIH consensus definition.⁵ A 2011 study that applied the NIH criteria found an overall prevalence of 5.5% among all transplant recipients but a prevalence of 14% in patients with GVHD.⁹ In 2014, the NIH consensus development group updated their recommendations. The new criteria for diagnosis of BOS require the presence of  airflow obstruction (FEV₁/FVC < 70% or 5^th percentile of predicted), FEV₁ < 75% predicted with a ≥ 10% decline in fewer than 2 years, absence of infection, and presence of air trapping (by expiratory computed tomography [CT] scan or PFT with residual volume >120% predicted) (Table 2).

Some issues must be considered when determining airflow obstruction. The 2005 NIH working group recommends using Crapo as the reference set,¹¹ but the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) III reference values are the preferred reference set at this time¹² and should be used in the United States. A recent article showed that the NHANES values were superior to older reference sets (however, they did not use Crapo as the comparison), although this study used the lower limit of normal as compared with the fixed 70% ratio.¹³ The 2014 NIH consensus group does not recommend a specific reference set and recognizes an FEV₁/FVC ratio of 70% or less than the lower limit of normal as the cutoff value for airflow obstruction.¹⁰

Another issue in PFT interpretation is the finding of a decrease in FEV1 and FVC and normal total lung capacity, which is termed a nonspecific pattern. This pattern has been reported to occur in 9% of all PFTs and usually is associated with obstructive lung disease or obesity.¹⁴ A 2013 study described the nonspecific pattern as a BOS subgroup occurring in up to 31% of bronchiolitis obliterans patients.¹⁵

• What are the radiographic findings of BOS?

Chest radiograph is often normal in BOS. As discussed, air trapping can be documented using HRCT, according to the NIH clinical definition of bronchiolitis obliterans.¹⁶ A study that explored findings and trends seen on HRCT in HSCT patients with BOS found that the syndrome in these patients is characterized by central airway dilatation.¹⁷ Expiratory airway trapping on HRCT is the main finding, and this is best demonstrated on HRCT during inspiratory and expiratory phases.¹⁸ Other findings are bronchial wall thickening, parenchymal hypoattenuation, bronchiectasis, and centrilobular nodules.¹⁹

Galbán and colleagues developed a new technique called parametric response mapping that uses CT scanners to quantify normal parenchyma, functional small airway disease, emphysema, and parenchymal disease as relative lung volumes.²⁰ This technique can detect airflow obstruction and small airway disease and was found to be a good method for detecting BOS after HSCT. In their study of parametric response mapping, the authors found that functional small airway disease affecting 28% or more of the total lung was highly indicative of bronchiolitis obliterans.²⁰

• What therapies are used to treat BOS?

Traditionally, BOS has been treated with systemic immunosuppression. The recommended treatment had been systemic steroids at approximately 1 mg/ kg. However, it is increasingly recognized that BOS responds poorly to systemic steroids, and systemic steroids may actually be harmful and associated with increased mortality.^15,21 The chronic GVHD recommendations from 2005 recommend ancillary therapy with inhaled corticosteroids and pulmonary rehabilitation.¹¹ The updated 2011 German consensus statement lays out a clear management strategy for mild and moderate-severe disease with monitoring recommendations.²² The 2014 NIH chronic GVHD working group recommends fluticasone, azithromycin, and montelukast (ie, the FAM protocol) for treating BOS.²³ FAM therapy in BOS may help lower the systemic steroid dose.^24,25 Montelukast is not considered a treatment mainstay for BOS after lung transplant, but there is a study showing possible benefit in chronic GVHD.²⁶ An evaluation of the natural history of a cohort of BOS patients treated with FAM therapy showed a rapid decline of FEV₁ in the 6 months prior to diagnosis and treatment of BOS and subsequent stabilization following diagnosis and treatment.²⁷ The benefit of high-dose inhaled corticosteroids or the combination of inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting beta-agonists has been demonstrated in small studies, which showed that these agents stabilized FEV₁ and avoided the untoward side effects of systemic corticosteroids.^28–30

Macrolide antibiotics have been explored as a treatment for BOS post HSCT because pilot studies suggested that azithromycin improved or stabilized FEV₁ in patients with BOS after lung transplant or HSCT.^31–33 Other studies of azithromycin have not shown benefit in the HSCT population after 3 months of therapy.³⁴ A recent meta-analysis could neither support or refute the benefit of azithromycin for BOS after HSCT.³⁵ In the lung transplant population, a study showed that patients who were started on azithromycin after transplant and continued on it 3 times a week had improved FEV₁; these patients also had a reduced rate of BOS and improved overall and BOS-free survival 2 years after transplant.³⁶ However, these benefits of azithromycin have not been observed in patients after HSCT. In fact, the ALLOZITHRO trial was stopped early because prophylactic azithromycin started at the time of the conditioning regimen with HSCT was associated with increased hematologic disease relapse, a decrease in airflow-decline-free survival, and reduced 2-year survival.³⁰

Azithromycin is believed to exert an effect by its anti-inflammatory properties and perhaps by decreasing lung neutrophilia (it may be most beneficial in the subset of patients with high neutrophilia on bronchoalveolar lavage [BAL]).³⁰ Adverse effects of chronic azithromycin include QT prolongation, cardiac arrhythmia, hearing loss, and antibiotic-resistant organism colonization.^37,38

Other therapies include pulmonary rehabilitation, which may improve health-related quality of life and 6-minute walk distance,³⁹ extracorporeal photopheresis,⁴⁰ immunosuppression with calcineurin inhibitors or mycophenolate mofetil,^21,41 and lung transplantation.^42–44 A study with imatinib for the treatment of lung disease in steroid-refractory GVHD has shown promising results, but further validation with larger clinical trials is required.⁴⁵

Case Continued

The patient is diagnosed with BOS and is treated for several months with prednisone 40 mg/day weaned over 3 months. She is started on inhaled corticosteroids, a proton pump inhibitor, and azithromycin 3 times per week, but she has a progressive decline in FEV₁.  She starts pulmonary rehabilitation but continues to functionally decline. Over the next year she develops bilateral pneumothoraces and bilateral cavitary nodules (Figure 1).

• What is causing this decline and the radiographic abnormalities?

Spontaneous air leak syndrome has been described in a little more than 1% of patients undergoing HSCT and has included pneumothorax and mediastinal and subcutaneous emphysema.⁴⁶ It appears that air leak syndrome is more likely to occur in patients with chronic GVHD.⁴⁷ The association between chronic GVHD and air leak syndrome could explain this patient’s recurrent pneumothoraces. The recurrent cavitary nodules are suspicious for infectious etiologies such as nontuberculous mycobacteria, tuberculosis, and fungal infections.

Case Continued

During an episode of pneumothorax, the patient undergoes chest tube placement, pleurodesis, and lung biopsy.  Pathology reveals bronchiolitis obliterans as well as organizing pneumonia (Figure 2). No organisms are seen on acid-fast bacilli or GMS stains.

• What are the other late-onset noninfectious pulmonary complications?

Definitions of other late noninfectious pulmonary complications following HSCT are shown in Table 3.

Interstitial pneumonias may represent COP or may be idiopathic pneumonia syndrome with a later onset or a nonspecific interstitial pneumonia. This syndrome is poorly defined, with a number of differing definitions of the syndrome published in the literature.^50–55

A rare pulmonary complication after HSCT is pulmonary veno-occlusive disease (PVOD). Pulmonary hypertension has been reported after HSCT,⁵⁶ but PVOD is a subset of pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with pleural effusions and volume overload on chest radiography.^57,58 It may present early or late after transplant and is poorly understood.

Besides obstructive and restrictive PFT abnormalities, changes in small airway function⁵⁹ after transplant and loss in diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (Dlco) in the first 5 years after transplant have been reported, although these parameters improve by 10 years after transplant.⁶⁰ There do not appear to be any changes in responsiveness to methacholine.⁶¹ Losses in respiratory muscle strength (PiMax and PeMax after transplant) have been reported.⁶² Lower aerobic exercise capacity (Vo₂max) after pediatric HSCT has also been reported.⁶³

Case Conclusion

The patient’s lung function continues to worsen, but no infectious etiologies are discovered. Ultimately, she dies of respiratory failure caused by progressive bronchiolitis obliterans.

Conclusion

Late pulmonary complications occur frequently in patients who have undergone HSCT. These complications can be classified as infectious versus noninfectious etiologies. Late-onset complications are more common in allogeneic transplantations because they are associated with chronic GVHD. These complications can be manifestations of pulmonary GHVD or can be infectious complications associated with prolonged immunosuppression. Appropriate monitoring for the development of BOS is essential. Early and aggressive treatment of respiratory infections and diagnostic bronchoscopy with BAL can help elucidate most infectious causes. Still, diagnostic challenges remain and multiple causes of respiratory deterioration can be present concurrently in the post-HSCT patient. Steroid therapy remains the mainstay treatment for most noninfectious pulmonary complications and should be strongly considered once infection is effectively ruled out.

Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) is increasingly being used to treat hematologic malignancies as well as nonmalignant diseases and solid tumors. Over the past 2 decades overall survival following transplant and transplant-related mortality have improved.¹ With this increased survival, there is a need to focus on late complications after transplantation. Pulmonary complications are a common but sometimes underrecognized cause of late morbidity and mortality in HSCT patients. This article, the second of 2 articles on post-HSCT pulmonary complications, reviews late-onset complications, with a focus on the evaluation and treatment of bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome (BOS), one of the most common and serious late pulmonary complications in HSCT patients. The first article reviewed the management of early-onset pulmonary complications and included a basic overview of stem cell transplantation, discussion of factors associated with pulmonary complications, and a review of methods for assessing pretransplant risk for pulmonary complications in patients undergoing HSCT.²

Case Presentation

A 40-year-old white woman with a history of acute myeloid leukemia status post peripheral blood stem cell transplant presents with dyspnea on exertion, which she states started about 1 month ago and now is limiting her with even 1 flight of stairs. She also complains of mild dry cough and a 4- to 5-lb weight loss over the past 1 to 2 months. She has an occasional runny nose, but denies gastroesophageal reflux, fevers, chills, or night sweats. She has a history of matched related sibling donor transplant with busulfan and cyclophosphamide conditioning 1 year prior to presentation. She has had significant graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), affecting the liver, gastrointestinal tract, skin, and eyes.

On physical examination, heart rate is 110 beats/min, respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min, blood pressure is 92/58 mm Hg, and the patient is afebrile. Eye exam reveals scleral injection, mouth shows dry mucous membranes with a few white plaques, and the skin has chronic changes with a rash over both arms. Cardiac exam reveals tachycardia but regular rhythm and there are no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Lungs are clear bilaterally and abdomen shows no organomegaly.

Laboratory exam shows a white blood cell count of 7800 cells/μL, hemoglobin level of 12.4 g/dL, and platelet count of 186 × 10³/μL. Liver enzymes are mildly elevated. Chest radiograph shows clear lung fields bilaterally.

• What is the differential in this patient with dyspnea 1 year after transplantation?

Late pulmonary complications are generally accepted as those occurring more than 100 days post transplant. This period of time is characterized by chronic GVHD and impaired cellular and humoral immunity. Results of longitudinal studies of infections in adult HSCT patients suggest that special attention should be paid to allogeneic HSCT recipients for post-engraftment infectious pulmonary complications.³ Encapsulated bacteria such as Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most frequent bacterial organisms causing late infectious pulmonary complications. Nontuberculous mycobacteria and Nocardia should also be considered. Depending upon geographic location, social and occupational risk factors, and prevalence, tuberculosis should also enter the differential.

There are many noninfectious late-onset pulmonary complications after HSCT. Unfortunately, the literature has divided pulmonary complications after HSCT using a range of criteria and classifications based upon timing, predominant pulmonary function test (PFT) findings, and etiology. These include early versus late, obstructive versus restrictive, and infectious versus noninfectious, which makes a comprehensive literature review of late pulmonary complications difficult. The most common noninfectious late-onset complications are bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (previously referred to as bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia, or BOOP), and interstitial pneumonia. Other rarely reported complications include eosinophilic pneumonia, pulmonary alveolar proteinosis, air leak syndrome, and pulmonary hypertension.

Case Continued

Because the patient does not have symptoms of infection, PFTs are obtained. Pretransplant PFTs and current PFTs are shown in Table 1.

• What is the diagnosis in this case?

Bronchiolitis Obliterans

BOS is one of the most common and most serious late-onset pulmonary diseases after allogeneic transplantation. It is considered the pulmonary form of chronic GVHD. BOS was first described in 1982 in patients with chronic GVHD after bone marrow transplantation.⁴ Many differing definitions of bronchiolitis obliterans have been described in the literature. A recent review of the topic cites 10 different published sets of criteria for the diagnosis of bronchiolitis obliterans.⁵ Traditionally, bronchiolitis obliterans was thought to occur in 2% to 8% of patients undergoing allogeneic HSCT, but these findings were from older studies that used a diagnosis based on very specific pathology findings. When more liberal diagnostic criteria are used, the incidence may be as high as 26% of allogeneic HSCT patients.⁶

Bronchiolitis obliterans is a progressive lung disease characterized by narrowing of the terminal airways and obliteration of the terminal bronchi. Pathology may show constrictive bronchiolitis but can also show lymphocytic bronchiolitis, which may be associated with a better outcome.⁷ As noted, bronchiolitis obliterans has traditionally been considered a pathologic diagnosis. Current diagnostic criteria have evolved based upon the difficulty in obtaining this diagnosis through transbronchial biopsy given the patchy nature of the disease.⁸ The gold standard of open lung biopsy is seldom pursued in the post-HSCT population as the procedure continues to carry a worrisome risk-benefit profile.

The 2005 National Institutes of Health (NIH) consensus development project on criteria for clinical trials in chronic GVHD developed a clinical strategy for diagnosing BOS using the following criteria: absence of active infection, decreased forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV₁) < 75%, FEV₁/forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio of < 70%, and evidence of air trapping on high-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) or PFTs (residual volume > 120%). These diagnostic criteria were applied to a small series of patients with clinically identified bronchiolitis obliterans or biopsy-proven bronchiolitis obliterans. Only 18% of these patients met the requirements for the NIH consensus definition.⁵ A 2011 study that applied the NIH criteria found an overall prevalence of 5.5% among all transplant recipients but a prevalence of 14% in patients with GVHD.⁹ In 2014, the NIH consensus development group updated their recommendations. The new criteria for diagnosis of BOS require the presence of  airflow obstruction (FEV₁/FVC < 70% or 5^th percentile of predicted), FEV₁ < 75% predicted with a ≥ 10% decline in fewer than 2 years, absence of infection, and presence of air trapping (by expiratory computed tomography [CT] scan or PFT with residual volume >120% predicted) (Table 2).

Some issues must be considered when determining airflow obstruction. The 2005 NIH working group recommends using Crapo as the reference set,¹¹ but the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) III reference values are the preferred reference set at this time¹² and should be used in the United States. A recent article showed that the NHANES values were superior to older reference sets (however, they did not use Crapo as the comparison), although this study used the lower limit of normal as compared with the fixed 70% ratio.¹³ The 2014 NIH consensus group does not recommend a specific reference set and recognizes an FEV₁/FVC ratio of 70% or less than the lower limit of normal as the cutoff value for airflow obstruction.¹⁰

Another issue in PFT interpretation is the finding of a decrease in FEV1 and FVC and normal total lung capacity, which is termed a nonspecific pattern. This pattern has been reported to occur in 9% of all PFTs and usually is associated with obstructive lung disease or obesity.¹⁴ A 2013 study described the nonspecific pattern as a BOS subgroup occurring in up to 31% of bronchiolitis obliterans patients.¹⁵

• What are the radiographic findings of BOS?

Chest radiograph is often normal in BOS. As discussed, air trapping can be documented using HRCT, according to the NIH clinical definition of bronchiolitis obliterans.¹⁶ A study that explored findings and trends seen on HRCT in HSCT patients with BOS found that the syndrome in these patients is characterized by central airway dilatation.¹⁷ Expiratory airway trapping on HRCT is the main finding, and this is best demonstrated on HRCT during inspiratory and expiratory phases.¹⁸ Other findings are bronchial wall thickening, parenchymal hypoattenuation, bronchiectasis, and centrilobular nodules.¹⁹

Galbán and colleagues developed a new technique called parametric response mapping that uses CT scanners to quantify normal parenchyma, functional small airway disease, emphysema, and parenchymal disease as relative lung volumes.²⁰ This technique can detect airflow obstruction and small airway disease and was found to be a good method for detecting BOS after HSCT. In their study of parametric response mapping, the authors found that functional small airway disease affecting 28% or more of the total lung was highly indicative of bronchiolitis obliterans.²⁰

• What therapies are used to treat BOS?

Traditionally, BOS has been treated with systemic immunosuppression. The recommended treatment had been systemic steroids at approximately 1 mg/ kg. However, it is increasingly recognized that BOS responds poorly to systemic steroids, and systemic steroids may actually be harmful and associated with increased mortality.^15,21 The chronic GVHD recommendations from 2005 recommend ancillary therapy with inhaled corticosteroids and pulmonary rehabilitation.¹¹ The updated 2011 German consensus statement lays out a clear management strategy for mild and moderate-severe disease with monitoring recommendations.²² The 2014 NIH chronic GVHD working group recommends fluticasone, azithromycin, and montelukast (ie, the FAM protocol) for treating BOS.²³ FAM therapy in BOS may help lower the systemic steroid dose.^24,25 Montelukast is not considered a treatment mainstay for BOS after lung transplant, but there is a study showing possible benefit in chronic GVHD.²⁶ An evaluation of the natural history of a cohort of BOS patients treated with FAM therapy showed a rapid decline of FEV₁ in the 6 months prior to diagnosis and treatment of BOS and subsequent stabilization following diagnosis and treatment.²⁷ The benefit of high-dose inhaled corticosteroids or the combination of inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting beta-agonists has been demonstrated in small studies, which showed that these agents stabilized FEV₁ and avoided the untoward side effects of systemic corticosteroids.^28–30

Macrolide antibiotics have been explored as a treatment for BOS post HSCT because pilot studies suggested that azithromycin improved or stabilized FEV₁ in patients with BOS after lung transplant or HSCT.^31–33 Other studies of azithromycin have not shown benefit in the HSCT population after 3 months of therapy.³⁴ A recent meta-analysis could neither support or refute the benefit of azithromycin for BOS after HSCT.³⁵ In the lung transplant population, a study showed that patients who were started on azithromycin after transplant and continued on it 3 times a week had improved FEV₁; these patients also had a reduced rate of BOS and improved overall and BOS-free survival 2 years after transplant.³⁶ However, these benefits of azithromycin have not been observed in patients after HSCT. In fact, the ALLOZITHRO trial was stopped early because prophylactic azithromycin started at the time of the conditioning regimen with HSCT was associated with increased hematologic disease relapse, a decrease in airflow-decline-free survival, and reduced 2-year survival.³⁰

Azithromycin is believed to exert an effect by its anti-inflammatory properties and perhaps by decreasing lung neutrophilia (it may be most beneficial in the subset of patients with high neutrophilia on bronchoalveolar lavage [BAL]).³⁰ Adverse effects of chronic azithromycin include QT prolongation, cardiac arrhythmia, hearing loss, and antibiotic-resistant organism colonization.^37,38

Other therapies include pulmonary rehabilitation, which may improve health-related quality of life and 6-minute walk distance,³⁹ extracorporeal photopheresis,⁴⁰ immunosuppression with calcineurin inhibitors or mycophenolate mofetil,^21,41 and lung transplantation.^42–44 A study with imatinib for the treatment of lung disease in steroid-refractory GVHD has shown promising results, but further validation with larger clinical trials is required.⁴⁵

Case Continued

The patient is diagnosed with BOS and is treated for several months with prednisone 40 mg/day weaned over 3 months. She is started on inhaled corticosteroids, a proton pump inhibitor, and azithromycin 3 times per week, but she has a progressive decline in FEV₁.  She starts pulmonary rehabilitation but continues to functionally decline. Over the next year she develops bilateral pneumothoraces and bilateral cavitary nodules (Figure 1).

• What is causing this decline and the radiographic abnormalities?

Spontaneous air leak syndrome has been described in a little more than 1% of patients undergoing HSCT and has included pneumothorax and mediastinal and subcutaneous emphysema.⁴⁶ It appears that air leak syndrome is more likely to occur in patients with chronic GVHD.⁴⁷ The association between chronic GVHD and air leak syndrome could explain this patient’s recurrent pneumothoraces. The recurrent cavitary nodules are suspicious for infectious etiologies such as nontuberculous mycobacteria, tuberculosis, and fungal infections.

Case Continued

During an episode of pneumothorax, the patient undergoes chest tube placement, pleurodesis, and lung biopsy.  Pathology reveals bronchiolitis obliterans as well as organizing pneumonia (Figure 2). No organisms are seen on acid-fast bacilli or GMS stains.

• What are the other late-onset noninfectious pulmonary complications?

Definitions of other late noninfectious pulmonary complications following HSCT are shown in Table 3.

Interstitial pneumonias may represent COP or may be idiopathic pneumonia syndrome with a later onset or a nonspecific interstitial pneumonia. This syndrome is poorly defined, with a number of differing definitions of the syndrome published in the literature.^50–55

A rare pulmonary complication after HSCT is pulmonary veno-occlusive disease (PVOD). Pulmonary hypertension has been reported after HSCT,⁵⁶ but PVOD is a subset of pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with pleural effusions and volume overload on chest radiography.^57,58 It may present early or late after transplant and is poorly understood.

Besides obstructive and restrictive PFT abnormalities, changes in small airway function⁵⁹ after transplant and loss in diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (Dlco) in the first 5 years after transplant have been reported, although these parameters improve by 10 years after transplant.⁶⁰ There do not appear to be any changes in responsiveness to methacholine.⁶¹ Losses in respiratory muscle strength (PiMax and PeMax after transplant) have been reported.⁶² Lower aerobic exercise capacity (Vo₂max) after pediatric HSCT has also been reported.⁶³

Case Conclusion

The patient’s lung function continues to worsen, but no infectious etiologies are discovered. Ultimately, she dies of respiratory failure caused by progressive bronchiolitis obliterans.

Conclusion

Late pulmonary complications occur frequently in patients who have undergone HSCT. These complications can be classified as infectious versus noninfectious etiologies. Late-onset complications are more common in allogeneic transplantations because they are associated with chronic GVHD. These complications can be manifestations of pulmonary GHVD or can be infectious complications associated with prolonged immunosuppression. Appropriate monitoring for the development of BOS is essential. Early and aggressive treatment of respiratory infections and diagnostic bronchoscopy with BAL can help elucidate most infectious causes. Still, diagnostic challenges remain and multiple causes of respiratory deterioration can be present concurrently in the post-HSCT patient. Steroid therapy remains the mainstay treatment for most noninfectious pulmonary complications and should be strongly considered once infection is effectively ruled out.

NEW ORLEANS – Cell-free (cf) DNA looked like an informative biomarker for both the severity of pulmonary artery hypertension and the survival prognosis for patients with this disease, based on results from two preliminary studies involving a total of 173 people.

Mitchel L. Zoler/MDedge News

“Plasma levels of cell-free DNA are elevated in patients with pulmonary artery hypertension, compared with healthy controls, and may predict disease severity and mortality,” Samuel B. Brusca, MD, said at the at the annual meeting of the American College of Cardiology.

A growing biomedical literature has documented a role for cfDNA in tracking the course of cancer, septic shock, and transplanted organs (Transplantation. 2019 Feb;103[2]:273-83) (Cell-Free DNA: Applications in Different Diseases, in “Cell-free DNA as Diagnostic Markers.” [New York: Humana Press, 2018, pp. 3-12]). Based on this background Dr. Brusca and his associates decided to examine whether plasma levels of cfDNA linked with pulmonary artery hypertension (PAH) severity and survival.

Their first study included seven patients with mild PAH (defined as patients with a tricuspid annular plane systolic excursion [TAPSE] of more than 18 mm and a maximum oxygen uptake [VO₂] of at least 75% of predicted), eight with severe PAH (a TAPSE of 18 mm or less and a VO₂ of less than 75%), and seven healthy adult controls. Measurement of plasma cfDNA showed an average level of 19.4 ng/mL among the healthy controls (prior reports had indicated that 10-20 ng/mL were normal levels), 22.0 ng/mL among patients with mild PAH, and 36.2 ng/mL in those with severe PAH. The level among the severe PAH patients was significantly higher than the level in controls by two different statistical tests, said Dr. Brusca, a critical care medicine physician at the National Institutes of Health Clinical Center in Bethesda, Md.

The second analysis by Dr. Brusca and his associates included 151 PAH patients followed by physicians at the Clinical Center for an average of 40 months. Their analysis tracked survival of these patients relative to their baseline levels of cfDNA and divided into tertiles. Patients in the lowest tertile had a starting cfDNA level of up to 39 ng/mL, those in the middle tertile had levels of 39.1-64.0 ng/mL, and those in the top tertile had levels of at least 64.1 ng/mL. A Kaplan-Meier analysis showed statistically significant differences in survival rates between each of the tertiles. Patients in the lowest tertile had a 5-year actuarial survival rate of about 65%, those in the middle tertile had a survival rate of about 48%, and those in the tertile with the highest level of cfDNA had a survival rate of about 28%.

Additional studies of cfDNA are needed in larger numbers of PAH patients, and cfDNA levels should be compared with levels of other, more established biomarkers, such as inflammatory cytokines, Dr. Brusca said in an interview.

Dr. Brusca had no disclosures. The study received no commercial funding.

[email protected]

SOURCE: Brusca SB et al. J Am Coll Cardiol. 2019 March 12;73(9 Suppl 1):1897.

NEW ORLEANS – Cell-free (cf) DNA looked like an informative biomarker for both the severity of pulmonary artery hypertension and the survival prognosis for patients with this disease, based on results from two preliminary studies involving a total of 173 people.

Mitchel L. Zoler/MDedge News

“Plasma levels of cell-free DNA are elevated in patients with pulmonary artery hypertension, compared with healthy controls, and may predict disease severity and mortality,” Samuel B. Brusca, MD, said at the at the annual meeting of the American College of Cardiology.

A growing biomedical literature has documented a role for cfDNA in tracking the course of cancer, septic shock, and transplanted organs (Transplantation. 2019 Feb;103[2]:273-83) (Cell-Free DNA: Applications in Different Diseases, in “Cell-free DNA as Diagnostic Markers.” [New York: Humana Press, 2018, pp. 3-12]). Based on this background Dr. Brusca and his associates decided to examine whether plasma levels of cfDNA linked with pulmonary artery hypertension (PAH) severity and survival.

Their first study included seven patients with mild PAH (defined as patients with a tricuspid annular plane systolic excursion [TAPSE] of more than 18 mm and a maximum oxygen uptake [VO₂] of at least 75% of predicted), eight with severe PAH (a TAPSE of 18 mm or less and a VO₂ of less than 75%), and seven healthy adult controls. Measurement of plasma cfDNA showed an average level of 19.4 ng/mL among the healthy controls (prior reports had indicated that 10-20 ng/mL were normal levels), 22.0 ng/mL among patients with mild PAH, and 36.2 ng/mL in those with severe PAH. The level among the severe PAH patients was significantly higher than the level in controls by two different statistical tests, said Dr. Brusca, a critical care medicine physician at the National Institutes of Health Clinical Center in Bethesda, Md.

The second analysis by Dr. Brusca and his associates included 151 PAH patients followed by physicians at the Clinical Center for an average of 40 months. Their analysis tracked survival of these patients relative to their baseline levels of cfDNA and divided into tertiles. Patients in the lowest tertile had a starting cfDNA level of up to 39 ng/mL, those in the middle tertile had levels of 39.1-64.0 ng/mL, and those in the top tertile had levels of at least 64.1 ng/mL. A Kaplan-Meier analysis showed statistically significant differences in survival rates between each of the tertiles. Patients in the lowest tertile had a 5-year actuarial survival rate of about 65%, those in the middle tertile had a survival rate of about 48%, and those in the tertile with the highest level of cfDNA had a survival rate of about 28%.

Additional studies of cfDNA are needed in larger numbers of PAH patients, and cfDNA levels should be compared with levels of other, more established biomarkers, such as inflammatory cytokines, Dr. Brusca said in an interview.

Dr. Brusca had no disclosures. The study received no commercial funding.

[email protected]

SOURCE: Brusca SB et al. J Am Coll Cardiol. 2019 March 12;73(9 Suppl 1):1897.

NEW ORLEANS – Cell-free (cf) DNA looked like an informative biomarker for both the severity of pulmonary artery hypertension and the survival prognosis for patients with this disease, based on results from two preliminary studies involving a total of 173 people.

Mitchel L. Zoler/MDedge News

“Plasma levels of cell-free DNA are elevated in patients with pulmonary artery hypertension, compared with healthy controls, and may predict disease severity and mortality,” Samuel B. Brusca, MD, said at the at the annual meeting of the American College of Cardiology.

A growing biomedical literature has documented a role for cfDNA in tracking the course of cancer, septic shock, and transplanted organs (Transplantation. 2019 Feb;103[2]:273-83) (Cell-Free DNA: Applications in Different Diseases, in “Cell-free DNA as Diagnostic Markers.” [New York: Humana Press, 2018, pp. 3-12]). Based on this background Dr. Brusca and his associates decided to examine whether plasma levels of cfDNA linked with pulmonary artery hypertension (PAH) severity and survival.

Their first study included seven patients with mild PAH (defined as patients with a tricuspid annular plane systolic excursion [TAPSE] of more than 18 mm and a maximum oxygen uptake [VO₂] of at least 75% of predicted), eight with severe PAH (a TAPSE of 18 mm or less and a VO₂ of less than 75%), and seven healthy adult controls. Measurement of plasma cfDNA showed an average level of 19.4 ng/mL among the healthy controls (prior reports had indicated that 10-20 ng/mL were normal levels), 22.0 ng/mL among patients with mild PAH, and 36.2 ng/mL in those with severe PAH. The level among the severe PAH patients was significantly higher than the level in controls by two different statistical tests, said Dr. Brusca, a critical care medicine physician at the National Institutes of Health Clinical Center in Bethesda, Md.

The second analysis by Dr. Brusca and his associates included 151 PAH patients followed by physicians at the Clinical Center for an average of 40 months. Their analysis tracked survival of these patients relative to their baseline levels of cfDNA and divided into tertiles. Patients in the lowest tertile had a starting cfDNA level of up to 39 ng/mL, those in the middle tertile had levels of 39.1-64.0 ng/mL, and those in the top tertile had levels of at least 64.1 ng/mL. A Kaplan-Meier analysis showed statistically significant differences in survival rates between each of the tertiles. Patients in the lowest tertile had a 5-year actuarial survival rate of about 65%, those in the middle tertile had a survival rate of about 48%, and those in the tertile with the highest level of cfDNA had a survival rate of about 28%.

Additional studies of cfDNA are needed in larger numbers of PAH patients, and cfDNA levels should be compared with levels of other, more established biomarkers, such as inflammatory cytokines, Dr. Brusca said in an interview.

Dr. Brusca had no disclosures. The study received no commercial funding.

[email protected]

SOURCE: Brusca SB et al. J Am Coll Cardiol. 2019 March 12;73(9 Suppl 1):1897.

A Food and Drug Administration Advisory Committee voted that the benefit-risk profile of an inhaled treatment for cystic fibrosis merits approval of the drug – dry powder mannitol (DPM).

Mannitol is a naturally occurring sugar alcohol that is used as a low-calorie sweetener; it is generally recognized as safe when taken enterically. Inhaled DPM, marketed as Aridol, is currently approved as a bronchoprovocation agent. For the current indication, DPM is given as 10x40-mg capsules twice daily.

In a 9-7 vote, the FDA’s Pulmonary-Allergy Drugs Advisory Committee (PADAC) decided that DPM’s modest potential to improve pulmonary function in adults with cystic fibrosis (CF) outweighed a potential signal for increased exacerbations seen in clinical trials.

Chiesi USA Inc. is seeking approval of DPM for the management of cystic fibrosis to improve pulmonary function in patients 18 years of age and older in conjunction with standard therapies. It plans to market DPM as Bronchitol.

Some committee members who voted against approval, including PADAC chair David H. Au, MD, worried that DPM’s ease of use might prompt patients and caregivers to substitute it for inhaled hypertonic saline, a medication that’s more burdensome to use but has a longer track record for efficacy and safety. While hypertonic saline requires cumbersome equipment and cleaning regimens and takes 20-30 minutes to administer, DPM is administered over about 5 minutes via a series of capsules inserted into a small inhaler device.

“I was very impressed by conversations that we heard from the community that this will be viewed as a substitute drug [for hypertonic saline],” said Dr. Au, professor of medicine at the University of Washington, Seattle. “Before we make that leap of faith ... we have to better understand how it has to be used.” He also acknowledged that making the call for DPM was “challenging.”

Other committee members were reassured by the fact that DPM is approved for adult use in 35 countries; it’s been in use since 2011 in Australia for adults and children.

Some members also noted an unmet need in CF therapies and placed confidence in those treating CF patients to find ways to use DPM safely and effectively. “I’m really counting on the cystic fibrosis clinicians who do this for a living to figure out where to use this in their armamentarium,” said John M. Kelso, MD, an allergist at Scripps Clinic, San Diego.

In 2012, the initial new drug application submitted by Pharmaxis, which then held marketing rights to DPM, resulted in a “no” vote for approval from PADAC, and eventual FDA denial of approval. The initial submission was supported by two phase 3 clinical trials, 301 and 302, that included pediatric patients. In the pediatric population, there was concern for increased hemoptysis with DPM, so the FDA advised the drug’s marketers to consider seeking approval for an adult population only in its reapplication. The current submission followed a new double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial, study 303, that included adults with CF aged 18 or over.

All three studies had similar designs, tracking change from baseline in forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV₁) from baseline to the end of the 26-week study period. In addition to this primary endpoint, secondary endpoints included other pulmonary function measures, as well as the number of protocol-defined pulmonary exacerbations (PDPEs). Participants also reported quality of life and symptom measures on the Cystic Fibrosis Questionnaire–Revised (CFQ-R).

In study 301, the dropout rate approached one in three participants with higher discontinuation in the intervention than the control arm, causing significant statistical problems in dealing with missing data. Thus, said the FDA’s Robert Lim, MD, though this study had positive results for FEV₁, it was not “statistically robust.”

The second study, 302, did not meet its primary endpoint, and there was “no support from secondary endpoints” for efficacy, said Dr. Lim, a clinical team leader in the FDA’s Division of Pulmonary, Allergy, and Rheumatology Products.

The current submission was also supported by a new post hoc subgroup analysis of adults in studies 301 and 302. A total of 414 patients receiving DPM and 347 receiving placebo (DPM at a nontherapeutic level) were included in the integrated analysis of patients from all three studies. Studies 301 and 302 both had open-label extension arms, allowing more patients to be included in safety data.

The problems caused by the missing data from study 301 were addressed in the design of study 303 by encouraging patients who discontinued the study drug to continue data collection efforts for the study. Dropout rates were lower overall in study 303 and balanced between arms.

Over the 26-week duration of study 303, investigators saw a statistically significant improvement in FEV₁ of about 50 mL, according to the FDA’s analysis. Post hoc analyses of studies 301 and 302 showed point estimate increases of approximately 80 mL, according to Dr. Lim.

In its presentations, Chiesi USA presented its integrated analysis of adult data from the three clinical trials. The analysis showed an increase in FEV₁ from baseline of 73 mL for the DPM group, compared with an increase of 7 mL for the control group, using an intention-to-treat population (P less than .001). The committee heard evidence that in adults with CF, pulmonary function typically decreases by 1%-3% annually.

The PDPE rate was slightly higher in the DPM group than in the control group in studies 302 and 303, but the differences were not statistically significant. These findings have a backdrop of an overall low rate of PDPEs ranging from 0.221 to 0.995 per year, according to Chiesi presenter Scott Donaldson, MD, a pulmonologist who directs the adult cystic fibrosis center at the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill.

When looking at the subgroup of United States study participants, the DPM integrated cohort included more patients with a history of prior pulmonary exacerbations. In the DPM group, 45% of U.S. participants had at least one exacerbation in the prior year, and 20% had two or more exacerbations, compared with 38% and 14%, respectively, in the control group. Chiesi argued that this imbalance was likely responsible for the increased exacerbation rate.

The sponsor and the FDA used different imputation methods to account for missing data from the earlier studies, complicating interpretation of the potential signal for increased exacerbations.

Quality of life data were similar between groups across the studies.

In the end, the view of the “yes” voters was encapsulated by James M. Tracy, DO, an allergist in private practice in Omaha, Neb. “This is not a drug for everybody; but absolutely, it’s a drug for somebody. Ultimately we have to make that decision – I do think that we study populations, but we really take care of people.”

The FDA usually follows the recommendations of its advisory panels.

[email protected]

A Food and Drug Administration Advisory Committee voted that the benefit-risk profile of an inhaled treatment for cystic fibrosis merits approval of the drug – dry powder mannitol (DPM).

Mannitol is a naturally occurring sugar alcohol that is used as a low-calorie sweetener; it is generally recognized as safe when taken enterically. Inhaled DPM, marketed as Aridol, is currently approved as a bronchoprovocation agent. For the current indication, DPM is given as 10x40-mg capsules twice daily.

In a 9-7 vote, the FDA’s Pulmonary-Allergy Drugs Advisory Committee (PADAC) decided that DPM’s modest potential to improve pulmonary function in adults with cystic fibrosis (CF) outweighed a potential signal for increased exacerbations seen in clinical trials.

Chiesi USA Inc. is seeking approval of DPM for the management of cystic fibrosis to improve pulmonary function in patients 18 years of age and older in conjunction with standard therapies. It plans to market DPM as Bronchitol.

Some committee members who voted against approval, including PADAC chair David H. Au, MD, worried that DPM’s ease of use might prompt patients and caregivers to substitute it for inhaled hypertonic saline, a medication that’s more burdensome to use but has a longer track record for efficacy and safety. While hypertonic saline requires cumbersome equipment and cleaning regimens and takes 20-30 minutes to administer, DPM is administered over about 5 minutes via a series of capsules inserted into a small inhaler device.

“I was very impressed by conversations that we heard from the community that this will be viewed as a substitute drug [for hypertonic saline],” said Dr. Au, professor of medicine at the University of Washington, Seattle. “Before we make that leap of faith ... we have to better understand how it has to be used.” He also acknowledged that making the call for DPM was “challenging.”

Other committee members were reassured by the fact that DPM is approved for adult use in 35 countries; it’s been in use since 2011 in Australia for adults and children.

Some members also noted an unmet need in CF therapies and placed confidence in those treating CF patients to find ways to use DPM safely and effectively. “I’m really counting on the cystic fibrosis clinicians who do this for a living to figure out where to use this in their armamentarium,” said John M. Kelso, MD, an allergist at Scripps Clinic, San Diego.

In 2012, the initial new drug application submitted by Pharmaxis, which then held marketing rights to DPM, resulted in a “no” vote for approval from PADAC, and eventual FDA denial of approval. The initial submission was supported by two phase 3 clinical trials, 301 and 302, that included pediatric patients. In the pediatric population, there was concern for increased hemoptysis with DPM, so the FDA advised the drug’s marketers to consider seeking approval for an adult population only in its reapplication. The current submission followed a new double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial, study 303, that included adults with CF aged 18 or over.

All three studies had similar designs, tracking change from baseline in forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV₁) from baseline to the end of the 26-week study period. In addition to this primary endpoint, secondary endpoints included other pulmonary function measures, as well as the number of protocol-defined pulmonary exacerbations (PDPEs). Participants also reported quality of life and symptom measures on the Cystic Fibrosis Questionnaire–Revised (CFQ-R).

In study 301, the dropout rate approached one in three participants with higher discontinuation in the intervention than the control arm, causing significant statistical problems in dealing with missing data. Thus, said the FDA’s Robert Lim, MD, though this study had positive results for FEV₁, it was not “statistically robust.”

The second study, 302, did not meet its primary endpoint, and there was “no support from secondary endpoints” for efficacy, said Dr. Lim, a clinical team leader in the FDA’s Division of Pulmonary, Allergy, and Rheumatology Products.

The current submission was also supported by a new post hoc subgroup analysis of adults in studies 301 and 302. A total of 414 patients receiving DPM and 347 receiving placebo (DPM at a nontherapeutic level) were included in the integrated analysis of patients from all three studies. Studies 301 and 302 both had open-label extension arms, allowing more patients to be included in safety data.

The problems caused by the missing data from study 301 were addressed in the design of study 303 by encouraging patients who discontinued the study drug to continue data collection efforts for the study. Dropout rates were lower overall in study 303 and balanced between arms.

Over the 26-week duration of study 303, investigators saw a statistically significant improvement in FEV₁ of about 50 mL, according to the FDA’s analysis. Post hoc analyses of studies 301 and 302 showed point estimate increases of approximately 80 mL, according to Dr. Lim.

In its presentations, Chiesi USA presented its integrated analysis of adult data from the three clinical trials. The analysis showed an increase in FEV₁ from baseline of 73 mL for the DPM group, compared with an increase of 7 mL for the control group, using an intention-to-treat population (P less than .001). The committee heard evidence that in adults with CF, pulmonary function typically decreases by 1%-3% annually.

The PDPE rate was slightly higher in the DPM group than in the control group in studies 302 and 303, but the differences were not statistically significant. These findings have a backdrop of an overall low rate of PDPEs ranging from 0.221 to 0.995 per year, according to Chiesi presenter Scott Donaldson, MD, a pulmonologist who directs the adult cystic fibrosis center at the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill.

When looking at the subgroup of United States study participants, the DPM integrated cohort included more patients with a history of prior pulmonary exacerbations. In the DPM group, 45% of U.S. participants had at least one exacerbation in the prior year, and 20% had two or more exacerbations, compared with 38% and 14%, respectively, in the control group. Chiesi argued that this imbalance was likely responsible for the increased exacerbation rate.

The sponsor and the FDA used different imputation methods to account for missing data from the earlier studies, complicating interpretation of the potential signal for increased exacerbations.

Quality of life data were similar between groups across the studies.

In the end, the view of the “yes” voters was encapsulated by James M. Tracy, DO, an allergist in private practice in Omaha, Neb. “This is not a drug for everybody; but absolutely, it’s a drug for somebody. Ultimately we have to make that decision – I do think that we study populations, but we really take care of people.”

The FDA usually follows the recommendations of its advisory panels.

[email protected]

A Food and Drug Administration Advisory Committee voted that the benefit-risk profile of an inhaled treatment for cystic fibrosis merits approval of the drug – dry powder mannitol (DPM).

Mannitol is a naturally occurring sugar alcohol that is used as a low-calorie sweetener; it is generally recognized as safe when taken enterically. Inhaled DPM, marketed as Aridol, is currently approved as a bronchoprovocation agent. For the current indication, DPM is given as 10x40-mg capsules twice daily.

In a 9-7 vote, the FDA’s Pulmonary-Allergy Drugs Advisory Committee (PADAC) decided that DPM’s modest potential to improve pulmonary function in adults with cystic fibrosis (CF) outweighed a potential signal for increased exacerbations seen in clinical trials.

Chiesi USA Inc. is seeking approval of DPM for the management of cystic fibrosis to improve pulmonary function in patients 18 years of age and older in conjunction with standard therapies. It plans to market DPM as Bronchitol.

Some committee members who voted against approval, including PADAC chair David H. Au, MD, worried that DPM’s ease of use might prompt patients and caregivers to substitute it for inhaled hypertonic saline, a medication that’s more burdensome to use but has a longer track record for efficacy and safety. While hypertonic saline requires cumbersome equipment and cleaning regimens and takes 20-30 minutes to administer, DPM is administered over about 5 minutes via a series of capsules inserted into a small inhaler device.

“I was very impressed by conversations that we heard from the community that this will be viewed as a substitute drug [for hypertonic saline],” said Dr. Au, professor of medicine at the University of Washington, Seattle. “Before we make that leap of faith ... we have to better understand how it has to be used.” He also acknowledged that making the call for DPM was “challenging.”

Other committee members were reassured by the fact that DPM is approved for adult use in 35 countries; it’s been in use since 2011 in Australia for adults and children.

Some members also noted an unmet need in CF therapies and placed confidence in those treating CF patients to find ways to use DPM safely and effectively. “I’m really counting on the cystic fibrosis clinicians who do this for a living to figure out where to use this in their armamentarium,” said John M. Kelso, MD, an allergist at Scripps Clinic, San Diego.

In 2012, the initial new drug application submitted by Pharmaxis, which then held marketing rights to DPM, resulted in a “no” vote for approval from PADAC, and eventual FDA denial of approval. The initial submission was supported by two phase 3 clinical trials, 301 and 302, that included pediatric patients. In the pediatric population, there was concern for increased hemoptysis with DPM, so the FDA advised the drug’s marketers to consider seeking approval for an adult population only in its reapplication. The current submission followed a new double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial, study 303, that included adults with CF aged 18 or over.

All three studies had similar designs, tracking change from baseline in forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV₁) from baseline to the end of the 26-week study period. In addition to this primary endpoint, secondary endpoints included other pulmonary function measures, as well as the number of protocol-defined pulmonary exacerbations (PDPEs). Participants also reported quality of life and symptom measures on the Cystic Fibrosis Questionnaire–Revised (CFQ-R).

In study 301, the dropout rate approached one in three participants with higher discontinuation in the intervention than the control arm, causing significant statistical problems in dealing with missing data. Thus, said the FDA’s Robert Lim, MD, though this study had positive results for FEV₁, it was not “statistically robust.”

The second study, 302, did not meet its primary endpoint, and there was “no support from secondary endpoints” for efficacy, said Dr. Lim, a clinical team leader in the FDA’s Division of Pulmonary, Allergy, and Rheumatology Products.

The current submission was also supported by a new post hoc subgroup analysis of adults in studies 301 and 302. A total of 414 patients receiving DPM and 347 receiving placebo (DPM at a nontherapeutic level) were included in the integrated analysis of patients from all three studies. Studies 301 and 302 both had open-label extension arms, allowing more patients to be included in safety data.

The problems caused by the missing data from study 301 were addressed in the design of study 303 by encouraging patients who discontinued the study drug to continue data collection efforts for the study. Dropout rates were lower overall in study 303 and balanced between arms.

Over the 26-week duration of study 303, investigators saw a statistically significant improvement in FEV₁ of about 50 mL, according to the FDA’s analysis. Post hoc analyses of studies 301 and 302 showed point estimate increases of approximately 80 mL, according to Dr. Lim.

In its presentations, Chiesi USA presented its integrated analysis of adult data from the three clinical trials. The analysis showed an increase in FEV₁ from baseline of 73 mL for the DPM group, compared with an increase of 7 mL for the control group, using an intention-to-treat population (P less than .001). The committee heard evidence that in adults with CF, pulmonary function typically decreases by 1%-3% annually.

The PDPE rate was slightly higher in the DPM group than in the control group in studies 302 and 303, but the differences were not statistically significant. These findings have a backdrop of an overall low rate of PDPEs ranging from 0.221 to 0.995 per year, according to Chiesi presenter Scott Donaldson, MD, a pulmonologist who directs the adult cystic fibrosis center at the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill.

When looking at the subgroup of United States study participants, the DPM integrated cohort included more patients with a history of prior pulmonary exacerbations. In the DPM group, 45% of U.S. participants had at least one exacerbation in the prior year, and 20% had two or more exacerbations, compared with 38% and 14%, respectively, in the control group. Chiesi argued that this imbalance was likely responsible for the increased exacerbation rate.

The sponsor and the FDA used different imputation methods to account for missing data from the earlier studies, complicating interpretation of the potential signal for increased exacerbations.

Quality of life data were similar between groups across the studies.

In the end, the view of the “yes” voters was encapsulated by James M. Tracy, DO, an allergist in private practice in Omaha, Neb. “This is not a drug for everybody; but absolutely, it’s a drug for somebody. Ultimately we have to make that decision – I do think that we study populations, but we really take care of people.”

The FDA usually follows the recommendations of its advisory panels.

[email protected]

BALTIMORE – In children with pharyngitis, it’s safe to skip group A Streptococcus testing if there are no exudates, children are 11 years or older, and there is either no cervical adenopathy or adenopathy without fever, according to a Boston Children’s Hospital investigation.

LightFieldStudios/iStock/Getty Images Plus

The prevalence of group A Streptococcus among children who meet those criteria is 13%, less than the estimated asymptomatic carriage rate of about 15%. Among 67,127 children tested for strep and treated for sore throats in a network of retail health clinics across the United States, 35% fit the profile.

Investigators led by Daniel Shapiro, MD, a pediatrics fellow at Boston Children’s, concluded that “laboratory testing for GAS [group A Streptococcus] might be safely avoided in a large proportion of patients with sore throats. In doing so, we may avoid some of the downstream effects of unnecessary antibiotic use.” Incorporating the rules into EHRs “might help physicians identify patients who are at low risk of GAS pharyngitis.”

The study team tackled a long-standing and vexing problem in general pediatrics: how to distinguish viral from GAS pharyngitis. They often present the same way, so it’s difficult to tell them apart, but important to do so to prevent misuse of antibiotics. Health care providers generally rely on rapid strep tests and other assays to make the call, but they have to be used cautiously, because asymptomatic carriers also will test positive and be at risk for unnecessary treatment, Dr. Shapiro said at the Pediatric Academic Societies annual meeting.

To try to prevent that, the Infectious Disease Society of America (IDSA) recommends against strep testing in children who present with overt viral signs, including cough, rhinorrhea, oral ulcers, and hoarseness (Clin Infect Dis. 2012 Nov 15;55[10]:1279-82).

In a previous study at Boston Children’s ED, however, Dr. Shapiro and his colleagues found that 29% of children with overt viral features were positive for GAS, suggesting that the IDSA guidelines probably go too far (Pediatrics. 2017 May;139[5]. pii: e20163403).

“One might conclude that while it’s a good rule of thumb to avoid testing patients with viral features, some of the patients with viral features really do have GAS pharyngitis, so the recommendation to forgo testing in all these kids needs a little bit of refinement,” he said.

That was the goal of the new study; the team sought to identify viral features that signaled a low risk of GAS pharyngitis and, therefore, no need for testing. Low risk was defined as less than 15%, in keeping with the asymptomatic carriage rate.

The 67,127 patients were aged 3-21 years. Their signs and symptoms were collected at the retail clinics in a standardized form. The subjects had rapid strep tests, with negative results confirmed by DNA probe or culture.

Fifty-four percent had viral features, defined in the study as cough, runny nose, or hoarseness (oral ulcers weren’t collected on the form). The overall prevalence of GAS was 35%, similar to previous studies; 39% of children with no viral features tested positive for GAS versus 26% of children with all three. Exudates and age below 11 years were strongly associated with GAS among patients with viral features.

It turned out that just 23% of children without exudates were GAS positive; the number fell to 15% when limited to children 11 years or older, and to 13% when either no cervical adenopathy or adenopathy without fever were added to the mix. So skip the strep test in pharyngitis when there are no exudates in children 11 years or older lacking cervical adenopathy or who have adenopathy without fever.

There was no industry funding, and Dr. Shapiro didn’t have any disclosures.

[email protected]

BALTIMORE – In children with pharyngitis, it’s safe to skip group A Streptococcus testing if there are no exudates, children are 11 years or older, and there is either no cervical adenopathy or adenopathy without fever, according to a Boston Children’s Hospital investigation.

LightFieldStudios/iStock/Getty Images Plus

The prevalence of group A Streptococcus among children who meet those criteria is 13%, less than the estimated asymptomatic carriage rate of about 15%. Among 67,127 children tested for strep and treated for sore throats in a network of retail health clinics across the United States, 35% fit the profile.

Investigators led by Daniel Shapiro, MD, a pediatrics fellow at Boston Children’s, concluded that “laboratory testing for GAS [group A Streptococcus] might be safely avoided in a large proportion of patients with sore throats. In doing so, we may avoid some of the downstream effects of unnecessary antibiotic use.” Incorporating the rules into EHRs “might help physicians identify patients who are at low risk of GAS pharyngitis.”

The study team tackled a long-standing and vexing problem in general pediatrics: how to distinguish viral from GAS pharyngitis. They often present the same way, so it’s difficult to tell them apart, but important to do so to prevent misuse of antibiotics. Health care providers generally rely on rapid strep tests and other assays to make the call, but they have to be used cautiously, because asymptomatic carriers also will test positive and be at risk for unnecessary treatment, Dr. Shapiro said at the Pediatric Academic Societies annual meeting.

To try to prevent that, the Infectious Disease Society of America (IDSA) recommends against strep testing in children who present with overt viral signs, including cough, rhinorrhea, oral ulcers, and hoarseness (Clin Infect Dis. 2012 Nov 15;55[10]:1279-82).

In a previous study at Boston Children’s ED, however, Dr. Shapiro and his colleagues found that 29% of children with overt viral features were positive for GAS, suggesting that the IDSA guidelines probably go too far (Pediatrics. 2017 May;139[5]. pii: e20163403).

“One might conclude that while it’s a good rule of thumb to avoid testing patients with viral features, some of the patients with viral features really do have GAS pharyngitis, so the recommendation to forgo testing in all these kids needs a little bit of refinement,” he said.

That was the goal of the new study; the team sought to identify viral features that signaled a low risk of GAS pharyngitis and, therefore, no need for testing. Low risk was defined as less than 15%, in keeping with the asymptomatic carriage rate.

The 67,127 patients were aged 3-21 years. Their signs and symptoms were collected at the retail clinics in a standardized form. The subjects had rapid strep tests, with negative results confirmed by DNA probe or culture.

Fifty-four percent had viral features, defined in the study as cough, runny nose, or hoarseness (oral ulcers weren’t collected on the form). The overall prevalence of GAS was 35%, similar to previous studies; 39% of children with no viral features tested positive for GAS versus 26% of children with all three. Exudates and age below 11 years were strongly associated with GAS among patients with viral features.

It turned out that just 23% of children without exudates were GAS positive; the number fell to 15% when limited to children 11 years or older, and to 13% when either no cervical adenopathy or adenopathy without fever were added to the mix. So skip the strep test in pharyngitis when there are no exudates in children 11 years or older lacking cervical adenopathy or who have adenopathy without fever.

There was no industry funding, and Dr. Shapiro didn’t have any disclosures.

[email protected]

BALTIMORE – In children with pharyngitis, it’s safe to skip group A Streptococcus testing if there are no exudates, children are 11 years or older, and there is either no cervical adenopathy or adenopathy without fever, according to a Boston Children’s Hospital investigation.

LightFieldStudios/iStock/Getty Images Plus

The prevalence of group A Streptococcus among children who meet those criteria is 13%, less than the estimated asymptomatic carriage rate of about 15%. Among 67,127 children tested for strep and treated for sore throats in a network of retail health clinics across the United States, 35% fit the profile.

Investigators led by Daniel Shapiro, MD, a pediatrics fellow at Boston Children’s, concluded that “laboratory testing for GAS [group A Streptococcus] might be safely avoided in a large proportion of patients with sore throats. In doing so, we may avoid some of the downstream effects of unnecessary antibiotic use.” Incorporating the rules into EHRs “might help physicians identify patients who are at low risk of GAS pharyngitis.”

The study team tackled a long-standing and vexing problem in general pediatrics: how to distinguish viral from GAS pharyngitis. They often present the same way, so it’s difficult to tell them apart, but important to do so to prevent misuse of antibiotics. Health care providers generally rely on rapid strep tests and other assays to make the call, but they have to be used cautiously, because asymptomatic carriers also will test positive and be at risk for unnecessary treatment, Dr. Shapiro said at the Pediatric Academic Societies annual meeting.

To try to prevent that, the Infectious Disease Society of America (IDSA) recommends against strep testing in children who present with overt viral signs, including cough, rhinorrhea, oral ulcers, and hoarseness (Clin Infect Dis. 2012 Nov 15;55[10]:1279-82).

In a previous study at Boston Children’s ED, however, Dr. Shapiro and his colleagues found that 29% of children with overt viral features were positive for GAS, suggesting that the IDSA guidelines probably go too far (Pediatrics. 2017 May;139[5]. pii: e20163403).

“One might conclude that while it’s a good rule of thumb to avoid testing patients with viral features, some of the patients with viral features really do have GAS pharyngitis, so the recommendation to forgo testing in all these kids needs a little bit of refinement,” he said.

That was the goal of the new study; the team sought to identify viral features that signaled a low risk of GAS pharyngitis and, therefore, no need for testing. Low risk was defined as less than 15%, in keeping with the asymptomatic carriage rate.

The 67,127 patients were aged 3-21 years. Their signs and symptoms were collected at the retail clinics in a standardized form. The subjects had rapid strep tests, with negative results confirmed by DNA probe or culture.

Fifty-four percent had viral features, defined in the study as cough, runny nose, or hoarseness (oral ulcers weren’t collected on the form). The overall prevalence of GAS was 35%, similar to previous studies; 39% of children with no viral features tested positive for GAS versus 26% of children with all three. Exudates and age below 11 years were strongly associated with GAS among patients with viral features.

It turned out that just 23% of children without exudates were GAS positive; the number fell to 15% when limited to children 11 years or older, and to 13% when either no cervical adenopathy or adenopathy without fever were added to the mix. So skip the strep test in pharyngitis when there are no exudates in children 11 years or older lacking cervical adenopathy or who have adenopathy without fever.

There was no industry funding, and Dr. Shapiro didn’t have any disclosures.

[email protected]

ILLUSTRATIVE CASE

Ms. M is a 55-year-old woman who is generally healthy, but who was diagnosed recently with severe vitamin D deficiency (serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D level of 8 ng/mL). She is being seen for her second episode of acute viral bronchitis in the past 6 months. She has no significant smoking or exposure history, no history of asthma, and takes no respiratory medications. Standard treatment for her level of vitamin D deficiency is 50,000 IU/week in bolus dosing, but is that your best option in this case?

Acute respiratory tract infections (ARTIs) include nonspecific upper respiratory illnesses, otitis media, sinusitis (~70% viral), pharyngitis, acute bronchitis (also ~70% viral), influenza, respiratory syncytial virus, and pneumonia.^1,2 In the United States, ARTIs strain the health care system and are the most common cause of ambulatory care visits, accounting for almost 120 million, or about 10% of all visits, per year.³ In addition, ARTIs account for almost 50% of antibiotic prescriptions for adults and almost 75% of antibiotic prescriptions for children—many of which are unnecessary.^2,4

While patient and parent education, antibiotic stewardship programs, and demand management may reduce inappropriate antibiotic use and the overall burden of ARTIs on the health care system, prevention of infections is a powerful tool within the overall approach to managing ARTIs.

STUDY SUMMARY

Vitamin D protects against ARTIs, but only in smaller doses

This 2017 systematic review and meta-analysis of 25 trials (N=10,933) evaluated vitamin D supplementation for the prevention of ARTIs in the primary care setting. Individual participant data were reevaluated to reduce risk of bias. The Cochrane risk of bias tool was used to address threats to validity.

The review and meta-analysis included institutional review board–approved, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trials of vitamin D₃ or vitamin D₂ supplementation of any duration and in any language. The incidence of ARTI was a prespecified efficacy outcome. Duration of the included randomized controlled trials (RCTs) ranged from 7 weeks to 1.5 years.

Outcomes. The primary outcome was an incidence of at least 1 ARTI. Secondary outcomes included incidence of upper and lower ARTIs; incidence of adverse reactions to vitamin D; incidence of emergency department visits or hospital admission or both for ARTI; use of antimicrobials for ARTI; absence from work or school due to ARTI, and mortality (ARTI-related and all-cause).

Findings. Daily or weekly vitamin D supplementation (in doses ranging from < 20 to ≥ 50 µg/d) reduced the risk for ARTI (adjusted odds ratio [AOR] = 0.88; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.81-0.96; number needed to treat [NNT] = 33). In subgroup analysis, daily or weekly vitamin D was protective (AOR = 0.81; 95% CI, 0.72-0.91), but bolus dosing (≥ 30,000 IU) was not (AOR = 0.97; 95% CI, 0.86-1.10).

Continue to: In 2-step analysis...

This study found that low-dose daily or weekly vitamin D supplementation was protective against acute respiratory tract infections, but bolus dosing was not.

In 2-step analysis, patients benefited who: had baseline circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentrations < 10 ng/mL (AOR = 0.30; 95% CI, 0.17-0.53; NNT = 4); had baseline circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels of 10 to 28 ng/mL (AOR = 0.75; 95% CI, 0.60-0.95; NNT = 15); were ages 1.1 to 15.9 years (AOR = 0.59; 95% CI, 0.45-0.79); were ages 16 to 65 years (AOR = 0.79; 95% CI, 0.63-0.99); or had a body mass index < 25 (AOR = 0.82; 95% CI, 0.71-0.95).

Higher D levels are a different story. Vitamin D supplementation in people with circulating levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D ≥ 30 ng/mL did not appear to provide benefit (AOR = 0.96; 95% CI, 0.78-1.18). Supplementation in this population did not influence any of the secondary outcomes, including risk for all-cause serious adverse events (AOR = 0.98; 95% CI, 0.80-1.20).

WHAT’S NEW

A more accurate snapshot

Previous studies of vitamin D and respiratory tract infections were mostly observational in nature. Those that were RCTs used variable doses of vitamin D, had variable baseline 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels, and employed various methods to monitor ARTI symptoms/incidence.^5-8 This is the first systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trials with supplementation using vitamin D₃ or vitamin D₂ that used individual participant-level data, which gives a more accurate estimate of outcomes when compared with traditional meta-analyses.

CAVEATS

Only the most deficient benefit?

Vitamin D supplementation was safe and protected against ARTIs overall, but the greatest effect of vitamin D supplementation on the prevention of ARTIs was noted in those who were most severely vitamin D deficient (those with circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin levels < 10 ng/mL, NNT = 4; 10-28 ng/mL, NNT = 15). There was no demonstrable effect once circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels reached 30 ng/mL.

CHALLENGES TO IMPLEMENTATION

Breaking tradition

The study found that both daily and weekly doses of vitamin D were effective in reducing the incidence of ARTIs, but the doses used were much lower than the commonly used 10,000 to 50,000 IU bolus doses, which were ineffective in reducing ARTIs in the current meta-analysis. Since bolus dosing is an ingrained practice for many providers, changing this may prove challenging.

Continue to: In addition...

In addition, the authors of the study suggest that one of the ways to provide this level of vitamin D is through food fortification, but food fortification is often complicated by emotional and/or political issues that could thwart implementation.

ACKNOWLEDGEMENT

The PURLs Surveillance System was supported in part by Grant Number UL1RR024999 from the National Center For Research Resources, a Clinical Translational Science Award to the University of Chicago. The content is solely the responsibility of the authors and does not necessarily represent the official views of the National Center For Research Resources or the National Institutes of Health.

ILLUSTRATIVE CASE

Ms. M is a 55-year-old woman who is generally healthy, but who was diagnosed recently with severe vitamin D deficiency (serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D level of 8 ng/mL). She is being seen for her second episode of acute viral bronchitis in the past 6 months. She has no significant smoking or exposure history, no history of asthma, and takes no respiratory medications. Standard treatment for her level of vitamin D deficiency is 50,000 IU/week in bolus dosing, but is that your best option in this case?

Acute respiratory tract infections (ARTIs) include nonspecific upper respiratory illnesses, otitis media, sinusitis (~70% viral), pharyngitis, acute bronchitis (also ~70% viral), influenza, respiratory syncytial virus, and pneumonia.^1,2 In the United States, ARTIs strain the health care system and are the most common cause of ambulatory care visits, accounting for almost 120 million, or about 10% of all visits, per year.³ In addition, ARTIs account for almost 50% of antibiotic prescriptions for adults and almost 75% of antibiotic prescriptions for children—many of which are unnecessary.^2,4

While patient and parent education, antibiotic stewardship programs, and demand management may reduce inappropriate antibiotic use and the overall burden of ARTIs on the health care system, prevention of infections is a powerful tool within the overall approach to managing ARTIs.

STUDY SUMMARY

Vitamin D protects against ARTIs, but only in smaller doses

This 2017 systematic review and meta-analysis of 25 trials (N=10,933) evaluated vitamin D supplementation for the prevention of ARTIs in the primary care setting. Individual participant data were reevaluated to reduce risk of bias. The Cochrane risk of bias tool was used to address threats to validity.

The review and meta-analysis included institutional review board–approved, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trials of vitamin D₃ or vitamin D₂ supplementation of any duration and in any language. The incidence of ARTI was a prespecified efficacy outcome. Duration of the included randomized controlled trials (RCTs) ranged from 7 weeks to 1.5 years.

Outcomes. The primary outcome was an incidence of at least 1 ARTI. Secondary outcomes included incidence of upper and lower ARTIs; incidence of adverse reactions to vitamin D; incidence of emergency department visits or hospital admission or both for ARTI; use of antimicrobials for ARTI; absence from work or school due to ARTI, and mortality (ARTI-related and all-cause).

Findings. Daily or weekly vitamin D supplementation (in doses ranging from < 20 to ≥ 50 µg/d) reduced the risk for ARTI (adjusted odds ratio [AOR] = 0.88; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.81-0.96; number needed to treat [NNT] = 33). In subgroup analysis, daily or weekly vitamin D was protective (AOR = 0.81; 95% CI, 0.72-0.91), but bolus dosing (≥ 30,000 IU) was not (AOR = 0.97; 95% CI, 0.86-1.10).

Continue to: In 2-step analysis...

This study found that low-dose daily or weekly vitamin D supplementation was protective against acute respiratory tract infections, but bolus dosing was not.

In 2-step analysis, patients benefited who: had baseline circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentrations < 10 ng/mL (AOR = 0.30; 95% CI, 0.17-0.53; NNT = 4); had baseline circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels of 10 to 28 ng/mL (AOR = 0.75; 95% CI, 0.60-0.95; NNT = 15); were ages 1.1 to 15.9 years (AOR = 0.59; 95% CI, 0.45-0.79); were ages 16 to 65 years (AOR = 0.79; 95% CI, 0.63-0.99); or had a body mass index < 25 (AOR = 0.82; 95% CI, 0.71-0.95).

Higher D levels are a different story. Vitamin D supplementation in people with circulating levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D ≥ 30 ng/mL did not appear to provide benefit (AOR = 0.96; 95% CI, 0.78-1.18). Supplementation in this population did not influence any of the secondary outcomes, including risk for all-cause serious adverse events (AOR = 0.98; 95% CI, 0.80-1.20).

WHAT’S NEW

A more accurate snapshot

Previous studies of vitamin D and respiratory tract infections were mostly observational in nature. Those that were RCTs used variable doses of vitamin D, had variable baseline 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels, and employed various methods to monitor ARTI symptoms/incidence.^5-8 This is the first systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trials with supplementation using vitamin D₃ or vitamin D₂ that used individual participant-level data, which gives a more accurate estimate of outcomes when compared with traditional meta-analyses.

CAVEATS

Only the most deficient benefit?

Vitamin D supplementation was safe and protected against ARTIs overall, but the greatest effect of vitamin D supplementation on the prevention of ARTIs was noted in those who were most severely vitamin D deficient (those with circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin levels < 10 ng/mL, NNT = 4; 10-28 ng/mL, NNT = 15). There was no demonstrable effect once circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels reached 30 ng/mL.

CHALLENGES TO IMPLEMENTATION

Breaking tradition

The study found that both daily and weekly doses of vitamin D were effective in reducing the incidence of ARTIs, but the doses used were much lower than the commonly used 10,000 to 50,000 IU bolus doses, which were ineffective in reducing ARTIs in the current meta-analysis. Since bolus dosing is an ingrained practice for many providers, changing this may prove challenging.

Continue to: In addition...

In addition, the authors of the study suggest that one of the ways to provide this level of vitamin D is through food fortification, but food fortification is often complicated by emotional and/or political issues that could thwart implementation.

ACKNOWLEDGEMENT

The PURLs Surveillance System was supported in part by Grant Number UL1RR024999 from the National Center For Research Resources, a Clinical Translational Science Award to the University of Chicago. The content is solely the responsibility of the authors and does not necessarily represent the official views of the National Center For Research Resources or the National Institutes of Health.

ILLUSTRATIVE CASE

Ms. M is a 55-year-old woman who is generally healthy, but who was diagnosed recently with severe vitamin D deficiency (serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D level of 8 ng/mL). She is being seen for her second episode of acute viral bronchitis in the past 6 months. She has no significant smoking or exposure history, no history of asthma, and takes no respiratory medications. Standard treatment for her level of vitamin D deficiency is 50,000 IU/week in bolus dosing, but is that your best option in this case?

Acute respiratory tract infections (ARTIs) include nonspecific upper respiratory illnesses, otitis media, sinusitis (~70% viral), pharyngitis, acute bronchitis (also ~70% viral), influenza, respiratory syncytial virus, and pneumonia.^1,2 In the United States, ARTIs strain the health care system and are the most common cause of ambulatory care visits, accounting for almost 120 million, or about 10% of all visits, per year.³ In addition, ARTIs account for almost 50% of antibiotic prescriptions for adults and almost 75% of antibiotic prescriptions for children—many of which are unnecessary.^2,4

While patient and parent education, antibiotic stewardship programs, and demand management may reduce inappropriate antibiotic use and the overall burden of ARTIs on the health care system, prevention of infections is a powerful tool within the overall approach to managing ARTIs.

STUDY SUMMARY

Vitamin D protects against ARTIs, but only in smaller doses

This 2017 systematic review and meta-analysis of 25 trials (N=10,933) evaluated vitamin D supplementation for the prevention of ARTIs in the primary care setting. Individual participant data were reevaluated to reduce risk of bias. The Cochrane risk of bias tool was used to address threats to validity.

The review and meta-analysis included institutional review board–approved, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trials of vitamin D₃ or vitamin D₂ supplementation of any duration and in any language. The incidence of ARTI was a prespecified efficacy outcome. Duration of the included randomized controlled trials (RCTs) ranged from 7 weeks to 1.5 years.

Outcomes. The primary outcome was an incidence of at least 1 ARTI. Secondary outcomes included incidence of upper and lower ARTIs; incidence of adverse reactions to vitamin D; incidence of emergency department visits or hospital admission or both for ARTI; use of antimicrobials for ARTI; absence from work or school due to ARTI, and mortality (ARTI-related and all-cause).

Findings. Daily or weekly vitamin D supplementation (in doses ranging from < 20 to ≥ 50 µg/d) reduced the risk for ARTI (adjusted odds ratio [AOR] = 0.88; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.81-0.96; number needed to treat [NNT] = 33). In subgroup analysis, daily or weekly vitamin D was protective (AOR = 0.81; 95% CI, 0.72-0.91), but bolus dosing (≥ 30,000 IU) was not (AOR = 0.97; 95% CI, 0.86-1.10).

Continue to: In 2-step analysis...

This study found that low-dose daily or weekly vitamin D supplementation was protective against acute respiratory tract infections, but bolus dosing was not.

In 2-step analysis, patients benefited who: had baseline circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentrations < 10 ng/mL (AOR = 0.30; 95% CI, 0.17-0.53; NNT = 4); had baseline circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels of 10 to 28 ng/mL (AOR = 0.75; 95% CI, 0.60-0.95; NNT = 15); were ages 1.1 to 15.9 years (AOR = 0.59; 95% CI, 0.45-0.79); were ages 16 to 65 years (AOR = 0.79; 95% CI, 0.63-0.99); or had a body mass index < 25 (AOR = 0.82; 95% CI, 0.71-0.95).

Higher D levels are a different story. Vitamin D supplementation in people with circulating levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D ≥ 30 ng/mL did not appear to provide benefit (AOR = 0.96; 95% CI, 0.78-1.18). Supplementation in this population did not influence any of the secondary outcomes, including risk for all-cause serious adverse events (AOR = 0.98; 95% CI, 0.80-1.20).

WHAT’S NEW

A more accurate snapshot

Previous studies of vitamin D and respiratory tract infections were mostly observational in nature. Those that were RCTs used variable doses of vitamin D, had variable baseline 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels, and employed various methods to monitor ARTI symptoms/incidence.^5-8 This is the first systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trials with supplementation using vitamin D₃ or vitamin D₂ that used individual participant-level data, which gives a more accurate estimate of outcomes when compared with traditional meta-analyses.

CAVEATS

Only the most deficient benefit?

Vitamin D supplementation was safe and protected against ARTIs overall, but the greatest effect of vitamin D supplementation on the prevention of ARTIs was noted in those who were most severely vitamin D deficient (those with circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin levels < 10 ng/mL, NNT = 4; 10-28 ng/mL, NNT = 15). There was no demonstrable effect once circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels reached 30 ng/mL.

CHALLENGES TO IMPLEMENTATION

Breaking tradition

The study found that both daily and weekly doses of vitamin D were effective in reducing the incidence of ARTIs, but the doses used were much lower than the commonly used 10,000 to 50,000 IU bolus doses, which were ineffective in reducing ARTIs in the current meta-analysis. Since bolus dosing is an ingrained practice for many providers, changing this may prove challenging.

Continue to: In addition...

In addition, the authors of the study suggest that one of the ways to provide this level of vitamin D is through food fortification, but food fortification is often complicated by emotional and/or political issues that could thwart implementation.

ACKNOWLEDGEMENT

The PURLs Surveillance System was supported in part by Grant Number UL1RR024999 from the National Center For Research Resources, a Clinical Translational Science Award to the University of Chicago. The content is solely the responsibility of the authors and does not necessarily represent the official views of the National Center For Research Resources or the National Institutes of Health.

The mean number of office visits for otitis media in children younger than 5 years dropped significantly after the introduction of the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, according to findings published in the International Journal of Pediatric Otorhinolaryngology.

KatarzynaBialasiewicz/Thinkstock

Previous studies have shown that more than half of children with otitis media (OM) have serotypes included in the PCV7 vaccine (4, 6B, 9V, 14, 18C, 19F, and 23F), wrote Xiaofeng Zhou, MD, of Pfizer, New York, and colleagues.

To assess the impact of PCV13, with the additional serotypes 1, 3, 5, 6A, 7F, and 19A, the researchers analyzed data from the U.S. National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey and National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey for three time periods: pre-PCV7 (1997-1999), after the introduction of PCV7 (2001-2009), and after the introduction of PCV13 (2011-2013).

Between the pre-PCV7 and PCV13 time periods, the researchers found significant reductions in the mean rates of OM visits of 48% and 41% among children younger than 2 years and younger than 5 years, respectively; reductions were 24% and 22%, respectively, when comparing PCV13 and PCV7. Ambulatory care visits for skin rash and trauma were not significantly different among the study periods.

Comparing the PCV7 and PCV13 time periods, the mean number of OM visits per 100 children declined from 84 to 64 per 100 children younger than 2 years, 41 to 34 per 100 children between ages 2 and 5 years, and from 59 to 46 per 100 children younger than 5 years.

The study findings were limited by several factors including the use of an ecologic study design, which was chosen to help reduce selection bias, but that did not show evidence of the field effectiveness of the PCV13 vaccine. Another limitation was the potential misclassification of patients with OM given clinician variability in diagnostic criteria, the researchers noted.

“Our results in this study, while not providing direct evidence of causality, nonetheless suggest a significant and positive impact of the PCV13 vaccination program on otitis media for children less than 5 years of age in the U.S., with further reductions in OM visits observed in PCV13 period following a decade of PCV7 use,” Dr. Zhou and associates said.

The investigators are employed by Pfizer, which funded the study.

SOURCE: Zhou X et al. Int J Pediatr Otorhinolaryngol. 2019 Apr. 119:96-102.

The mean number of office visits for otitis media in children younger than 5 years dropped significantly after the introduction of the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, according to findings published in the International Journal of Pediatric Otorhinolaryngology.

KatarzynaBialasiewicz/Thinkstock

Previous studies have shown that more than half of children with otitis media (OM) have serotypes included in the PCV7 vaccine (4, 6B, 9V, 14, 18C, 19F, and 23F), wrote Xiaofeng Zhou, MD, of Pfizer, New York, and colleagues.

To assess the impact of PCV13, with the additional serotypes 1, 3, 5, 6A, 7F, and 19A, the researchers analyzed data from the U.S. National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey and National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey for three time periods: pre-PCV7 (1997-1999), after the introduction of PCV7 (2001-2009), and after the introduction of PCV13 (2011-2013).

Between the pre-PCV7 and PCV13 time periods, the researchers found significant reductions in the mean rates of OM visits of 48% and 41% among children younger than 2 years and younger than 5 years, respectively; reductions were 24% and 22%, respectively, when comparing PCV13 and PCV7. Ambulatory care visits for skin rash and trauma were not significantly different among the study periods.

Comparing the PCV7 and PCV13 time periods, the mean number of OM visits per 100 children declined from 84 to 64 per 100 children younger than 2 years, 41 to 34 per 100 children between ages 2 and 5 years, and from 59 to 46 per 100 children younger than 5 years.

The study findings were limited by several factors including the use of an ecologic study design, which was chosen to help reduce selection bias, but that did not show evidence of the field effectiveness of the PCV13 vaccine. Another limitation was the potential misclassification of patients with OM given clinician variability in diagnostic criteria, the researchers noted.

“Our results in this study, while not providing direct evidence of causality, nonetheless suggest a significant and positive impact of the PCV13 vaccination program on otitis media for children less than 5 years of age in the U.S., with further reductions in OM visits observed in PCV13 period following a decade of PCV7 use,” Dr. Zhou and associates said.

The investigators are employed by Pfizer, which funded the study.

SOURCE: Zhou X et al. Int J Pediatr Otorhinolaryngol. 2019 Apr. 119:96-102.

The mean number of office visits for otitis media in children younger than 5 years dropped significantly after the introduction of the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, according to findings published in the International Journal of Pediatric Otorhinolaryngology.

KatarzynaBialasiewicz/Thinkstock

Previous studies have shown that more than half of children with otitis media (OM) have serotypes included in the PCV7 vaccine (4, 6B, 9V, 14, 18C, 19F, and 23F), wrote Xiaofeng Zhou, MD, of Pfizer, New York, and colleagues.

To assess the impact of PCV13, with the additional serotypes 1, 3, 5, 6A, 7F, and 19A, the researchers analyzed data from the U.S. National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey and National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey for three time periods: pre-PCV7 (1997-1999), after the introduction of PCV7 (2001-2009), and after the introduction of PCV13 (2011-2013).

Between the pre-PCV7 and PCV13 time periods, the researchers found significant reductions in the mean rates of OM visits of 48% and 41% among children younger than 2 years and younger than 5 years, respectively; reductions were 24% and 22%, respectively, when comparing PCV13 and PCV7. Ambulatory care visits for skin rash and trauma were not significantly different among the study periods.

Comparing the PCV7 and PCV13 time periods, the mean number of OM visits per 100 children declined from 84 to 64 per 100 children younger than 2 years, 41 to 34 per 100 children between ages 2 and 5 years, and from 59 to 46 per 100 children younger than 5 years.

The study findings were limited by several factors including the use of an ecologic study design, which was chosen to help reduce selection bias, but that did not show evidence of the field effectiveness of the PCV13 vaccine. Another limitation was the potential misclassification of patients with OM given clinician variability in diagnostic criteria, the researchers noted.

“Our results in this study, while not providing direct evidence of causality, nonetheless suggest a significant and positive impact of the PCV13 vaccination program on otitis media for children less than 5 years of age in the U.S., with further reductions in OM visits observed in PCV13 period following a decade of PCV7 use,” Dr. Zhou and associates said.

The investigators are employed by Pfizer, which funded the study.

SOURCE: Zhou X et al. Int J Pediatr Otorhinolaryngol. 2019 Apr. 119:96-102.