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June 2018 Question 2

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Correct answer: C

Rationale

This patient has long-standing diabetes with associated complications from prolonged hyperglycemia, with symptoms of delayed gastric emptying. The next best step would be to perform a gastric-emptying study or scintigraphy to confirm the diagnosis of diabetic gastroparesis. A dietitian consult will be necessary once gastroparesis is confirmed, since dietary modifications are the mainstay of treatment. Strict blood glucose control is necessary to prevent worsening gastrointestinal symptoms, and an evaluation by an endocrinologist is reasonable if gastroparesis is confirmed. A trial of metoclopramide may be necessary if gastroparesis symptoms are not controlled with dietary modifications, but it would not be first-line treatment in diabetic gastroparesis.

References

1. Camilleri M. Advances in diabetic gastroparesis. Rev Gastroenterol Disord. 2002;2:47-56.
2. Camilleri M, Vazquez-Roque MI. Gastric dysmotility at the organ level in gastroparesis. In: Parkman H, McCallum R. Gastroparesis: Pathophysiology, presentation, diagnosis, and treatment. New York: Springer; 2011. p. 37-46.

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Correct answer: C

Rationale

This patient has long-standing diabetes with associated complications from prolonged hyperglycemia, with symptoms of delayed gastric emptying. The next best step would be to perform a gastric-emptying study or scintigraphy to confirm the diagnosis of diabetic gastroparesis. A dietitian consult will be necessary once gastroparesis is confirmed, since dietary modifications are the mainstay of treatment. Strict blood glucose control is necessary to prevent worsening gastrointestinal symptoms, and an evaluation by an endocrinologist is reasonable if gastroparesis is confirmed. A trial of metoclopramide may be necessary if gastroparesis symptoms are not controlled with dietary modifications, but it would not be first-line treatment in diabetic gastroparesis.

References

1. Camilleri M. Advances in diabetic gastroparesis. Rev Gastroenterol Disord. 2002;2:47-56.
2. Camilleri M, Vazquez-Roque MI. Gastric dysmotility at the organ level in gastroparesis. In: Parkman H, McCallum R. Gastroparesis: Pathophysiology, presentation, diagnosis, and treatment. New York: Springer; 2011. p. 37-46.

Correct answer: C

Rationale

This patient has long-standing diabetes with associated complications from prolonged hyperglycemia, with symptoms of delayed gastric emptying. The next best step would be to perform a gastric-emptying study or scintigraphy to confirm the diagnosis of diabetic gastroparesis. A dietitian consult will be necessary once gastroparesis is confirmed, since dietary modifications are the mainstay of treatment. Strict blood glucose control is necessary to prevent worsening gastrointestinal symptoms, and an evaluation by an endocrinologist is reasonable if gastroparesis is confirmed. A trial of metoclopramide may be necessary if gastroparesis symptoms are not controlled with dietary modifications, but it would not be first-line treatment in diabetic gastroparesis.

References

1. Camilleri M. Advances in diabetic gastroparesis. Rev Gastroenterol Disord. 2002;2:47-56.
2. Camilleri M, Vazquez-Roque MI. Gastric dysmotility at the organ level in gastroparesis. In: Parkman H, McCallum R. Gastroparesis: Pathophysiology, presentation, diagnosis, and treatment. New York: Springer; 2011. p. 37-46.

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A 55-year-old obese man with long-standing type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of nausea and early satiety for over a year. His medical history is significant for retinopathy, neuropathy, and nephropathy. His diabetes is treated with subcutaneous insulin and an oral hypoglycemic agent, but his recent glycosylated hemoglobin was 11.2%. Since the onset of symptoms, he has lost approximately 30 pounds. Recent upper endoscopy was normal.

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June 2018 Question 1

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Correct answer: C

Rationale

This patient is presenting early post-liver transplant with severe hepatic dysfunction. This severity of enzyme elevation is concerning for an underlying hepatic artery thrombosis. The next appropriate diagnostic test for this patient is a hepatic ultrasound with Dopplers to assess hepatic artery patency. CMV infection does not typically occur within the first month post-liver transplant and would not be expected to cause this degree of elevation in the liver enzymes. Performance of liver biopsy, MRCP, or ERCP would not reveal the underlying etiology and may result in delay in diagnosis.

Reference

1. Stange BJ, Glanemann M, Nuessler NC, et al. Hepatic artery thrombosis after adult liver transplantation. Liver Transplantation 2003;9:612-20.

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Correct answer: C

Rationale

This patient is presenting early post-liver transplant with severe hepatic dysfunction. This severity of enzyme elevation is concerning for an underlying hepatic artery thrombosis. The next appropriate diagnostic test for this patient is a hepatic ultrasound with Dopplers to assess hepatic artery patency. CMV infection does not typically occur within the first month post-liver transplant and would not be expected to cause this degree of elevation in the liver enzymes. Performance of liver biopsy, MRCP, or ERCP would not reveal the underlying etiology and may result in delay in diagnosis.

Reference

1. Stange BJ, Glanemann M, Nuessler NC, et al. Hepatic artery thrombosis after adult liver transplantation. Liver Transplantation 2003;9:612-20.

Correct answer: C

Rationale

This patient is presenting early post-liver transplant with severe hepatic dysfunction. This severity of enzyme elevation is concerning for an underlying hepatic artery thrombosis. The next appropriate diagnostic test for this patient is a hepatic ultrasound with Dopplers to assess hepatic artery patency. CMV infection does not typically occur within the first month post-liver transplant and would not be expected to cause this degree of elevation in the liver enzymes. Performance of liver biopsy, MRCP, or ERCP would not reveal the underlying etiology and may result in delay in diagnosis.

Reference

1. Stange BJ, Glanemann M, Nuessler NC, et al. Hepatic artery thrombosis after adult liver transplantation. Liver Transplantation 2003;9:612-20.

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A 62-year-old man underwent deceased-donor liver transplant 36 hours ago for decompensated chronic hepatitis C cirrhosis. He did well initially posttransplant with a steady decline in his transaminases and improvement in hepatic synthetic function. But he has had a rapidly progressive decline in his clinical status over the past 12 hours. On physical exam, his mental status is notable for new confusion. His temperature is 38.9 ºC. Laboratory data reveal the following:
AST 10,300 U/L
ALT 14,550 U/L
total bilirubin 9.6 mg/dL
alkaline phosphatase 693 IU/L
INR 3.6
creatinine 4.6 mg/dL with oliguria.

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DDSEP8 Quick quiz May question 2

Article Type
Changed
Fri, 04/27/2018 - 14:18

Correct Answer: B
 
Rationale
This patient has a neuroendocrine tumor (e.g., carcinoid). These tumors are derived from enterochromaffin-like cells and appear as nests or ribbons of endocrine cells. There are three types of carcinoids. Type 1 is the most common and has a benign course. Type 1 neuroendocrine tumors can be multifocal, well-differentiated and associated with type A chronic atrophic gastritis. Small tumors can be treated with endoscopic resection. Type 2 lesions tend to be multifocal and associated with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) and multiple endocrine neoplasia 1 (MEN1). Up to 30% of type 2 tumors present with lymph node metastases. Type 3 gastric carcinoids are not associated with hypergastrinemia and have poor prognosis. Type 3 gastric carcinoids should be managed with surgery.
 
References
1. ASGE Standards of Practice Committee, Evans JA, Chandrasekhara V, et al. The role of endoscopy in the management of premalignant and malignant conditions of the stomach. Gastrointest Endosc. 2015;82(1):1-8.
2. Shaib YH, Rugge M, Graham DY, et al. Management of gastric polyps: an endoscopy-based approach. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol. 2013;11(11):1374-84.
 

 

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Correct Answer: B
 
Rationale
This patient has a neuroendocrine tumor (e.g., carcinoid). These tumors are derived from enterochromaffin-like cells and appear as nests or ribbons of endocrine cells. There are three types of carcinoids. Type 1 is the most common and has a benign course. Type 1 neuroendocrine tumors can be multifocal, well-differentiated and associated with type A chronic atrophic gastritis. Small tumors can be treated with endoscopic resection. Type 2 lesions tend to be multifocal and associated with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) and multiple endocrine neoplasia 1 (MEN1). Up to 30% of type 2 tumors present with lymph node metastases. Type 3 gastric carcinoids are not associated with hypergastrinemia and have poor prognosis. Type 3 gastric carcinoids should be managed with surgery.
 
References
1. ASGE Standards of Practice Committee, Evans JA, Chandrasekhara V, et al. The role of endoscopy in the management of premalignant and malignant conditions of the stomach. Gastrointest Endosc. 2015;82(1):1-8.
2. Shaib YH, Rugge M, Graham DY, et al. Management of gastric polyps: an endoscopy-based approach. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol. 2013;11(11):1374-84.
 

 

Correct Answer: B
 
Rationale
This patient has a neuroendocrine tumor (e.g., carcinoid). These tumors are derived from enterochromaffin-like cells and appear as nests or ribbons of endocrine cells. There are three types of carcinoids. Type 1 is the most common and has a benign course. Type 1 neuroendocrine tumors can be multifocal, well-differentiated and associated with type A chronic atrophic gastritis. Small tumors can be treated with endoscopic resection. Type 2 lesions tend to be multifocal and associated with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) and multiple endocrine neoplasia 1 (MEN1). Up to 30% of type 2 tumors present with lymph node metastases. Type 3 gastric carcinoids are not associated with hypergastrinemia and have poor prognosis. Type 3 gastric carcinoids should be managed with surgery.
 
References
1. ASGE Standards of Practice Committee, Evans JA, Chandrasekhara V, et al. The role of endoscopy in the management of premalignant and malignant conditions of the stomach. Gastrointest Endosc. 2015;82(1):1-8.
2. Shaib YH, Rugge M, Graham DY, et al. Management of gastric polyps: an endoscopy-based approach. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol. 2013;11(11):1374-84.
 

 

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A 78-year-old woman presents with anemia and peripheral neuropathy. Laboratory evaluation reveals elevated MCV and vitamin B12 deficiency. Antiparietal and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies are positive. Endoscopy reveals atrophic-appearing mucosa and an 8-mm nodule in the gastric body. Complete endoscopic resection of the nodule is performed.

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DDSEP8 Quick quiz May question 1

Article Type
Changed
Fri, 04/27/2018 - 14:17

 Correct Answer: C
 
Rationale
In a population study of U.S. veterans infected with hepatitis C (n = 110,484), a Cox proportional hazards model was used to determine risk of developing cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma for genotypes 1-4, after adjusting for age, period of service, race, gender, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, alcohol use, diabetes, body mass index, and antiviral treatment. Despite genotype 3 patients being younger, their risk of developing cirrhosis was highest with hazard ratio = 1.30 (1.22, 1.39), compared to genotype 1 (reference, HR 1.0), genotype 2 with HR = 0.68 (0.64, 0.73), and genotype 4 with HR = 0.94 (0.78, 1.14). Likewise, the risk of development of hepatocellular carcinoma was highest for genotype 3 HCV with HR = 1.80 (1.60, 2.03), compared to a genotype 2 (HR = 0.55, 0.47, 0.63), and genotype 4 (0.99, 0.68, 1.45).  
It is speculated that the hepatic steatosis that is a direct result of genotype 3 HCV may contribute to the accelerated progression to cirrhosis and HCC, but this has not been proven and was not evaluated in this Veteran Affairs study.
 
Reference
1. Kanwal F, Kramer JR, Ilyas J, et al. HCV genotype 3 is associated with an increased risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular cancer in a national sample of U.S. veterans with HCV. Hepatology. 2014;60(1):98-105.

 

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 Correct Answer: C
 
Rationale
In a population study of U.S. veterans infected with hepatitis C (n = 110,484), a Cox proportional hazards model was used to determine risk of developing cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma for genotypes 1-4, after adjusting for age, period of service, race, gender, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, alcohol use, diabetes, body mass index, and antiviral treatment. Despite genotype 3 patients being younger, their risk of developing cirrhosis was highest with hazard ratio = 1.30 (1.22, 1.39), compared to genotype 1 (reference, HR 1.0), genotype 2 with HR = 0.68 (0.64, 0.73), and genotype 4 with HR = 0.94 (0.78, 1.14). Likewise, the risk of development of hepatocellular carcinoma was highest for genotype 3 HCV with HR = 1.80 (1.60, 2.03), compared to a genotype 2 (HR = 0.55, 0.47, 0.63), and genotype 4 (0.99, 0.68, 1.45).  
It is speculated that the hepatic steatosis that is a direct result of genotype 3 HCV may contribute to the accelerated progression to cirrhosis and HCC, but this has not been proven and was not evaluated in this Veteran Affairs study.
 
Reference
1. Kanwal F, Kramer JR, Ilyas J, et al. HCV genotype 3 is associated with an increased risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular cancer in a national sample of U.S. veterans with HCV. Hepatology. 2014;60(1):98-105.

 

 Correct Answer: C
 
Rationale
In a population study of U.S. veterans infected with hepatitis C (n = 110,484), a Cox proportional hazards model was used to determine risk of developing cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma for genotypes 1-4, after adjusting for age, period of service, race, gender, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, alcohol use, diabetes, body mass index, and antiviral treatment. Despite genotype 3 patients being younger, their risk of developing cirrhosis was highest with hazard ratio = 1.30 (1.22, 1.39), compared to genotype 1 (reference, HR 1.0), genotype 2 with HR = 0.68 (0.64, 0.73), and genotype 4 with HR = 0.94 (0.78, 1.14). Likewise, the risk of development of hepatocellular carcinoma was highest for genotype 3 HCV with HR = 1.80 (1.60, 2.03), compared to a genotype 2 (HR = 0.55, 0.47, 0.63), and genotype 4 (0.99, 0.68, 1.45).  
It is speculated that the hepatic steatosis that is a direct result of genotype 3 HCV may contribute to the accelerated progression to cirrhosis and HCC, but this has not been proven and was not evaluated in this Veteran Affairs study.
 
Reference
1. Kanwal F, Kramer JR, Ilyas J, et al. HCV genotype 3 is associated with an increased risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular cancer in a national sample of U.S. veterans with HCV. Hepatology. 2014;60(1):98-105.

 

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Which HCV genotype is associated with the highest risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma?

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DDSEP® 8 Quick Quiz - April 2018 Question 2

Article Type
Changed
Sun, 04/01/2018 - 08:00

Q2. Correct Answer: C 
 
Rationale
 
The patient presents with acute gallstone pancreatitis. In patients with gallstone pancreatitis and evidence of cholangitis, ERCP with sphincterotomy and stone extraction should be performed. The patients fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain are sufficient to make the diagnosis of cholangitis. It is too early in the course of the disease to evaluate for pancreatic necrosis. Typically, triglyceride levels above 1,000 mg/dL are required to induce pancreatitis. Finally, while the patient has cholelithiasis, there is no evidence of cholecystitis. Therefore, a HIDA scan is not warranted. 
 
Reference  
1. Behrns KE, Ashley SW, Hunter JG, Carr-Locke D. Early ERCP for gallstone pancreatitis: for whom and when? J Gastrointestinal Surgery. 2008;12(4):629-33. 
 

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Q2. Correct Answer: C 
 
Rationale
 
The patient presents with acute gallstone pancreatitis. In patients with gallstone pancreatitis and evidence of cholangitis, ERCP with sphincterotomy and stone extraction should be performed. The patients fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain are sufficient to make the diagnosis of cholangitis. It is too early in the course of the disease to evaluate for pancreatic necrosis. Typically, triglyceride levels above 1,000 mg/dL are required to induce pancreatitis. Finally, while the patient has cholelithiasis, there is no evidence of cholecystitis. Therefore, a HIDA scan is not warranted. 
 
Reference  
1. Behrns KE, Ashley SW, Hunter JG, Carr-Locke D. Early ERCP for gallstone pancreatitis: for whom and when? J Gastrointestinal Surgery. 2008;12(4):629-33. 
 

Q2. Correct Answer: C 
 
Rationale
 
The patient presents with acute gallstone pancreatitis. In patients with gallstone pancreatitis and evidence of cholangitis, ERCP with sphincterotomy and stone extraction should be performed. The patients fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain are sufficient to make the diagnosis of cholangitis. It is too early in the course of the disease to evaluate for pancreatic necrosis. Typically, triglyceride levels above 1,000 mg/dL are required to induce pancreatitis. Finally, while the patient has cholelithiasis, there is no evidence of cholecystitis. Therefore, a HIDA scan is not warranted. 
 
Reference  
1. Behrns KE, Ashley SW, Hunter JG, Carr-Locke D. Early ERCP for gallstone pancreatitis: for whom and when? J Gastrointestinal Surgery. 2008;12(4):629-33. 
 

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A 50-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of severe epigastric pain and vomiting. She is afebrile with a blood pressure of 100/50 mm Hg, and pulse of 110 bpm. Physical exam shows right upper quadrant and epigastric tenderness to palpation without rebound. Labs demonstrate a white blood cell count of 17,000/mm3, hemoglobin of 16 g/dL, creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL, alanine aminotransferase of 215 U/L, aspartate aminotransferase of 190 U/L, a total bilirubin of 2.1 mg/dL, and triglycerides of 492 mg/dL. Right upper quadrant ultrasound reveals gallstones and a 1.2-cm common bile duct. The following day, despite being hydrated aggressively, the patient develops a fever and becomes jaundiced with worsening abdominal pain. 
What would be the next step in the patient's management?

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DDSEP® 8 Quick Quiz - April 2018 Question 1

Article Type
Changed
Sun, 04/01/2018 - 08:00

Q1. Correct Answer: C 
 
Rationale  
The CagA strain of H. pylori has been found to be associated with an increased risk of gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma. CagA-producing H. pylori infection also cause more severe mucosal inflammation and is associated with higher incidences of gastric and duodenal ulcers. A protective effect of CagA+ H. pylori against gastroesophageal reflux disease, reflux esophagitis, Barrett's esophagus, and esophageal adenocarcinoma has been suggested, as some epidemiologic studies have shown a decreased prevalence of these disorders. Although further studies are needed to verify these relationships, no studies to date have demonstrated an increased risk of esophageal carcinoma associated with H. pylori. CagA-producing H. pylori has not been associated with gastric carcinoid tumor. 
 
References  
1. Fallone CA, Barkun AN, Göttke MU, et al. Association of Helicobacter pylori genotype with gastroesophageal reflux disease and other upper gastrointestinal diseases. Am J Gastroenterol. 2000;95(3):659-69. 
2. Huang JQ, Zheng GF, Sumanac K, et al. Meta-analysis of the relationship between cagA seropositivity and gastric cancer. Gastroenterology 2003;125(6):1636-44. 
3. Islami F, Kamangar F. Helicobacter pylori and esophageal cancer risk: a meta-analysis. Cancer Prev Res. 2008;1:329-38. 

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Q1. Correct Answer: C 
 
Rationale  
The CagA strain of H. pylori has been found to be associated with an increased risk of gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma. CagA-producing H. pylori infection also cause more severe mucosal inflammation and is associated with higher incidences of gastric and duodenal ulcers. A protective effect of CagA+ H. pylori against gastroesophageal reflux disease, reflux esophagitis, Barrett's esophagus, and esophageal adenocarcinoma has been suggested, as some epidemiologic studies have shown a decreased prevalence of these disorders. Although further studies are needed to verify these relationships, no studies to date have demonstrated an increased risk of esophageal carcinoma associated with H. pylori. CagA-producing H. pylori has not been associated with gastric carcinoid tumor. 
 
References  
1. Fallone CA, Barkun AN, Göttke MU, et al. Association of Helicobacter pylori genotype with gastroesophageal reflux disease and other upper gastrointestinal diseases. Am J Gastroenterol. 2000;95(3):659-69. 
2. Huang JQ, Zheng GF, Sumanac K, et al. Meta-analysis of the relationship between cagA seropositivity and gastric cancer. Gastroenterology 2003;125(6):1636-44. 
3. Islami F, Kamangar F. Helicobacter pylori and esophageal cancer risk: a meta-analysis. Cancer Prev Res. 2008;1:329-38. 

Q1. Correct Answer: C 
 
Rationale  
The CagA strain of H. pylori has been found to be associated with an increased risk of gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma. CagA-producing H. pylori infection also cause more severe mucosal inflammation and is associated with higher incidences of gastric and duodenal ulcers. A protective effect of CagA+ H. pylori against gastroesophageal reflux disease, reflux esophagitis, Barrett's esophagus, and esophageal adenocarcinoma has been suggested, as some epidemiologic studies have shown a decreased prevalence of these disorders. Although further studies are needed to verify these relationships, no studies to date have demonstrated an increased risk of esophageal carcinoma associated with H. pylori. CagA-producing H. pylori has not been associated with gastric carcinoid tumor. 
 
References  
1. Fallone CA, Barkun AN, Göttke MU, et al. Association of Helicobacter pylori genotype with gastroesophageal reflux disease and other upper gastrointestinal diseases. Am J Gastroenterol. 2000;95(3):659-69. 
2. Huang JQ, Zheng GF, Sumanac K, et al. Meta-analysis of the relationship between cagA seropositivity and gastric cancer. Gastroenterology 2003;125(6):1636-44. 
3. Islami F, Kamangar F. Helicobacter pylori and esophageal cancer risk: a meta-analysis. Cancer Prev Res. 2008;1:329-38. 

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The CagA strain of Helicobacter pylori is associated with which of the following?

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DDSEP® 8 Quick Quiz - March 2018 Question 2

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Changed
Thu, 03/01/2018 - 09:21

Correct Answer: B

Rationale 
The patient has a favorable anatomy for a surgical drainage procedure such as a lateral pancreaticojejunostomy (Peustow procedure). Surgery has been noted to provide superior pain relief over 5 years compared with endoscopy. Hospital costs and length of stay were similar between the groups. Continued medical therapy is unlikely to add further benefit on top of what she has already achieved. EUS-guided celiac plexus block will only provide temporary pain relief. There are limited long-term data on the effectiveness of total pancreatectomy with islet autotransplantation in alleviating pain.

References 
1. Cahen D.L., Gouma D.J., Laramée P., et al. Gastroenterology. 2011;141(5):1690-5. 
2. Conwell D.L., Lee L.S., Yadav D., et al. American pancreatic association practice guidelines in chronic pancreatitis. Pancreas. 2014;43:1143-62.
 

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Correct Answer: B

Rationale 
The patient has a favorable anatomy for a surgical drainage procedure such as a lateral pancreaticojejunostomy (Peustow procedure). Surgery has been noted to provide superior pain relief over 5 years compared with endoscopy. Hospital costs and length of stay were similar between the groups. Continued medical therapy is unlikely to add further benefit on top of what she has already achieved. EUS-guided celiac plexus block will only provide temporary pain relief. There are limited long-term data on the effectiveness of total pancreatectomy with islet autotransplantation in alleviating pain.

References 
1. Cahen D.L., Gouma D.J., Laramée P., et al. Gastroenterology. 2011;141(5):1690-5. 
2. Conwell D.L., Lee L.S., Yadav D., et al. American pancreatic association practice guidelines in chronic pancreatitis. Pancreas. 2014;43:1143-62.
 

Correct Answer: B

Rationale 
The patient has a favorable anatomy for a surgical drainage procedure such as a lateral pancreaticojejunostomy (Peustow procedure). Surgery has been noted to provide superior pain relief over 5 years compared with endoscopy. Hospital costs and length of stay were similar between the groups. Continued medical therapy is unlikely to add further benefit on top of what she has already achieved. EUS-guided celiac plexus block will only provide temporary pain relief. There are limited long-term data on the effectiveness of total pancreatectomy with islet autotransplantation in alleviating pain.

References 
1. Cahen D.L., Gouma D.J., Laramée P., et al. Gastroenterology. 2011;141(5):1690-5. 
2. Conwell D.L., Lee L.S., Yadav D., et al. American pancreatic association practice guidelines in chronic pancreatitis. Pancreas. 2014;43:1143-62.
 

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A 68-year-old woman with alcoholic chronic pancreatitis has constant, disabling pain. She has previously tried gabapentin, celecoxib, and antioxidants with partial improvement. She currently takes nonenteric coated pancrealipase (90,000 IU per meal) and controlled-release oxycontin. CT of the abdomen demonstrates a few small punctate calcifications in the head of the pancreas, a 1-cm calculus in the genu with a markedly dilated pancreatic duct in the body and tail, and moderate distal atrophy. There are no pseudocysts. She discusses further options to treat her pain.

Which intervention will most likely improve her pain and quality of life over the next 5 years?

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DDSEP® 8 Quick Quiz - March 2018 Question 1

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Q1. Correct answer: C

Rationale 
The initial management of dyspepsia depends on symptoms and presence of any “alarm features.” In patients without “alarm features” presenting with symptoms suggestive of hepatobiliary or pancreatic causes, the initial diagnostic tests should include liver/pancreatic blood tests and abdominal imaging. For other dyspeptic patients without alarm features, initial management would include H. pylori testing (breath, stool antigen, or antibody) and/or empiric antisecretory (PPI) therapy. However, for patients who present with “alarm features” such as dysphagia, anemia, GI bleeding, anorexia, significant weight loss, etc., an upper endoscopy should be performed to evaluate for the presence of any upper GI tract malignancy. In this patient, the presence of microcytic anemia is an alarm feature. Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline may be used as treatment for functional dyspepsia, after organic causes have been ruled out.

Reference 
1. Talley N.J., Vakil N.B., Moayyedi P. American Gastroenterological Association technical review on the evaluation of dyspepsia. Gastroenterology 2005;129:1756-80.

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Q1. Correct answer: C

Rationale 
The initial management of dyspepsia depends on symptoms and presence of any “alarm features.” In patients without “alarm features” presenting with symptoms suggestive of hepatobiliary or pancreatic causes, the initial diagnostic tests should include liver/pancreatic blood tests and abdominal imaging. For other dyspeptic patients without alarm features, initial management would include H. pylori testing (breath, stool antigen, or antibody) and/or empiric antisecretory (PPI) therapy. However, for patients who present with “alarm features” such as dysphagia, anemia, GI bleeding, anorexia, significant weight loss, etc., an upper endoscopy should be performed to evaluate for the presence of any upper GI tract malignancy. In this patient, the presence of microcytic anemia is an alarm feature. Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline may be used as treatment for functional dyspepsia, after organic causes have been ruled out.

Reference 
1. Talley N.J., Vakil N.B., Moayyedi P. American Gastroenterological Association technical review on the evaluation of dyspepsia. Gastroenterology 2005;129:1756-80.

Q1. Correct answer: C

Rationale 
The initial management of dyspepsia depends on symptoms and presence of any “alarm features.” In patients without “alarm features” presenting with symptoms suggestive of hepatobiliary or pancreatic causes, the initial diagnostic tests should include liver/pancreatic blood tests and abdominal imaging. For other dyspeptic patients without alarm features, initial management would include H. pylori testing (breath, stool antigen, or antibody) and/or empiric antisecretory (PPI) therapy. However, for patients who present with “alarm features” such as dysphagia, anemia, GI bleeding, anorexia, significant weight loss, etc., an upper endoscopy should be performed to evaluate for the presence of any upper GI tract malignancy. In this patient, the presence of microcytic anemia is an alarm feature. Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline may be used as treatment for functional dyspepsia, after organic causes have been ruled out.

Reference 
1. Talley N.J., Vakil N.B., Moayyedi P. American Gastroenterological Association technical review on the evaluation of dyspepsia. Gastroenterology 2005;129:1756-80.

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A 37-year-old man with no significant past medical history presents with a dull, nonradiating epigastric pain for 3 months. The pain is not associated with eating or positional changes. He denies any heartburn, regurgitation, chest pain, nausea, vomiting, dysphagia, odynophagia, or weight loss. He currently does not take any medications or supplements. Social and family history are not significant. Physical examination reveals minimal tenderness to deep palpation in the epigastrum, but otherwise it is unremarkable. A complete blood count reveals a white blood cell count of 6, hemoglobin 10 g/dL, MCV 72 fL, and platelet count of 200 x 103/mcL. What is the most important next step of management?

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DDSEP® 8 Quick Quiz - February 2018 Question 2

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Answer: C
 

Rationale

The patient has ascending cholangitis. After stabilization and initiation of antibiotics, the next most appropriate step is ERCP. The patient is high risk for postsphincterotomy bleeding as he is on three antithrombotic agents. The most prudent course of action is ERCP with stent placement. ERCP and stent placement is not contraindicated in patients on antithrombotic agents. This will allow for confirmation of the diagnosis as well as therapy for the obstruction. Once the patient has recovered, he can return on an elective basis, off antithrombotic agents, for definitive management of the common bile duct stone. MRCP would allow for a diagnosis; however, it is not therapeutic, and in the setting of cholangitis, management of the obstruction is necessary. Continued medical management neither provides information regarding diagnosis nor treats the obstruction. Percutaneous biliary drain would provide appropriate drainage but, as he is at a high risk for bleeding, ERCP with stent placement is a better therapeutic option in this patient.
 

References

1. Committee, ASGE Standards of Practice, et al. Management of anti-thrombotic agents for endoscopic procedures. Gastrointest Endosc. 2009;70(6):1060-70.

2. Boustiere C., Veitch A., Vanbiervliet G., et al. Endoscopy and antiplatelet agents. Endoscopy. 2011;43(5):445-61.

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Answer: C
 

Rationale

The patient has ascending cholangitis. After stabilization and initiation of antibiotics, the next most appropriate step is ERCP. The patient is high risk for postsphincterotomy bleeding as he is on three antithrombotic agents. The most prudent course of action is ERCP with stent placement. ERCP and stent placement is not contraindicated in patients on antithrombotic agents. This will allow for confirmation of the diagnosis as well as therapy for the obstruction. Once the patient has recovered, he can return on an elective basis, off antithrombotic agents, for definitive management of the common bile duct stone. MRCP would allow for a diagnosis; however, it is not therapeutic, and in the setting of cholangitis, management of the obstruction is necessary. Continued medical management neither provides information regarding diagnosis nor treats the obstruction. Percutaneous biliary drain would provide appropriate drainage but, as he is at a high risk for bleeding, ERCP with stent placement is a better therapeutic option in this patient.
 

References

1. Committee, ASGE Standards of Practice, et al. Management of anti-thrombotic agents for endoscopic procedures. Gastrointest Endosc. 2009;70(6):1060-70.

2. Boustiere C., Veitch A., Vanbiervliet G., et al. Endoscopy and antiplatelet agents. Endoscopy. 2011;43(5):445-61.

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Answer: C
 

Rationale

The patient has ascending cholangitis. After stabilization and initiation of antibiotics, the next most appropriate step is ERCP. The patient is high risk for postsphincterotomy bleeding as he is on three antithrombotic agents. The most prudent course of action is ERCP with stent placement. ERCP and stent placement is not contraindicated in patients on antithrombotic agents. This will allow for confirmation of the diagnosis as well as therapy for the obstruction. Once the patient has recovered, he can return on an elective basis, off antithrombotic agents, for definitive management of the common bile duct stone. MRCP would allow for a diagnosis; however, it is not therapeutic, and in the setting of cholangitis, management of the obstruction is necessary. Continued medical management neither provides information regarding diagnosis nor treats the obstruction. Percutaneous biliary drain would provide appropriate drainage but, as he is at a high risk for bleeding, ERCP with stent placement is a better therapeutic option in this patient.
 

References

1. Committee, ASGE Standards of Practice, et al. Management of anti-thrombotic agents for endoscopic procedures. Gastrointest Endosc. 2009;70(6):1060-70.

2. Boustiere C., Veitch A., Vanbiervliet G., et al. Endoscopy and antiplatelet agents. Endoscopy. 2011;43(5):445-61.

[email protected]

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A 76-year-old man presents with 2 days of epigastric abdominal pain radiating to the back accompanied by nausea, vomiting, fevers, and chills. His past medical history is notable for diabetes, hypertension, coronary artery disease, on clopidogrel and aspirin, as well as atrial fibrillation, for which he is on warfarin. Vital signs at presentation are temperature of 39.1°C, blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. Labs reveal a WBC count of 15,000/mm3, total bilirubin of 4.0 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase of 234 IU/L, AST 120 IU/L, ALT 131 IU/L, and an INR of 2.7. An abdominal ultrasound reveals a common bile duct dilated to 1.5 cm. 
 
Following fluid resuscitation and initiation of antibiotics, what is the next most appropriate step? 
 

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DDSEP® 8 Quick Quiz - February 2018 Question 1

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Answer: B

Rationale

Hypergastrinemia is normally a physiologic response to hypochlorhydria. When hypergastrinemia occurs in the setting of acidic gastric pH, it is considered inappropriate. Gastrinoma is a component of MEN-1 syndrome that results in abnormal gastrin release and acid hypersecretion. Gastric outlet obstruction may lead to stomach distention and persistent stimulation by retained food, causing increased gastrin release and acid secretion. Chronic renal failure leads to a decrease in clearance of gastrin from the circulation, resulting in hypergastrinemia. This increase in circulating gastrin results in stimulation of parietal cells to release acid into the gastric lumen. Therefore, the hypergastrinemia associated with chronic renal failure is inappropriate, given the high serum gastrin level despite low intragastric pH. Retained antrum results when a small portion of antrum is left attached to the duodenal bulb (afferent loop) during a Billroth II surgical procedure. As a result, the G cells from the retained antrum are displaced from the stomach and excluded from the inhibitory effects of gastric acid. The lack of negative feedback leads to persistently high gastrin release and resultant acid production. H. pylori pangastritis results in suppression of acid secretion, leading to a high intragastric pH. Therefore, it represents an appropriate cause for hypergastrinemia.

Reference

1. Murugesan S.V., Varro A., Pritchard D.M. Review article: Strategies to determine whether hypergastrinaemia is due to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome rather than a more common benign cause. Aliment Pharmacol Ther. 2009;29:1055-68.

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Answer: B

Rationale

Hypergastrinemia is normally a physiologic response to hypochlorhydria. When hypergastrinemia occurs in the setting of acidic gastric pH, it is considered inappropriate. Gastrinoma is a component of MEN-1 syndrome that results in abnormal gastrin release and acid hypersecretion. Gastric outlet obstruction may lead to stomach distention and persistent stimulation by retained food, causing increased gastrin release and acid secretion. Chronic renal failure leads to a decrease in clearance of gastrin from the circulation, resulting in hypergastrinemia. This increase in circulating gastrin results in stimulation of parietal cells to release acid into the gastric lumen. Therefore, the hypergastrinemia associated with chronic renal failure is inappropriate, given the high serum gastrin level despite low intragastric pH. Retained antrum results when a small portion of antrum is left attached to the duodenal bulb (afferent loop) during a Billroth II surgical procedure. As a result, the G cells from the retained antrum are displaced from the stomach and excluded from the inhibitory effects of gastric acid. The lack of negative feedback leads to persistently high gastrin release and resultant acid production. H. pylori pangastritis results in suppression of acid secretion, leading to a high intragastric pH. Therefore, it represents an appropriate cause for hypergastrinemia.

Reference

1. Murugesan S.V., Varro A., Pritchard D.M. Review article: Strategies to determine whether hypergastrinaemia is due to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome rather than a more common benign cause. Aliment Pharmacol Ther. 2009;29:1055-68.

 

Answer: B

Rationale

Hypergastrinemia is normally a physiologic response to hypochlorhydria. When hypergastrinemia occurs in the setting of acidic gastric pH, it is considered inappropriate. Gastrinoma is a component of MEN-1 syndrome that results in abnormal gastrin release and acid hypersecretion. Gastric outlet obstruction may lead to stomach distention and persistent stimulation by retained food, causing increased gastrin release and acid secretion. Chronic renal failure leads to a decrease in clearance of gastrin from the circulation, resulting in hypergastrinemia. This increase in circulating gastrin results in stimulation of parietal cells to release acid into the gastric lumen. Therefore, the hypergastrinemia associated with chronic renal failure is inappropriate, given the high serum gastrin level despite low intragastric pH. Retained antrum results when a small portion of antrum is left attached to the duodenal bulb (afferent loop) during a Billroth II surgical procedure. As a result, the G cells from the retained antrum are displaced from the stomach and excluded from the inhibitory effects of gastric acid. The lack of negative feedback leads to persistently high gastrin release and resultant acid production. H. pylori pangastritis results in suppression of acid secretion, leading to a high intragastric pH. Therefore, it represents an appropriate cause for hypergastrinemia.

Reference

1. Murugesan S.V., Varro A., Pritchard D.M. Review article: Strategies to determine whether hypergastrinaemia is due to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome rather than a more common benign cause. Aliment Pharmacol Ther. 2009;29:1055-68.

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Which of the following conditions is associated with hypergastrinemia and elevated gastric pH?

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