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Practice Question Answers: Medications in Dermatology, Part 2

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Practice Question Answers: Medications in Dermatology, Part 2

1. A 40-year-old woman is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. You discuss treatment options and decide to start hydroxychloroquine. What laboratory tests and monitoring are required prior to starting this medication?

a. complete blood cell count with differential and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
b. complete blood cell count with differential and complete metabolic profile
c. ophthalmology evaluation and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
d. b and c

2. Two months ago you saw a 30-year-old woman with a history of severe atopic dermatitis. She had been using topical steroids with not much improvement. You decided to start a systemic medication. Within 1 month of drug initiation, she called your office to tell you that she is much better but has noticed unwanted hair on her face lately. Which medication is most likely implicated?

a. cyclosporine
b. dapsone
c. hydroxychloroquine
d. methotrexate

3. A 70-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus who drinks 10 cans of beer per week presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of diffuse tense bullae and pruritus on the legs and trunk. Direct immunofluorescence displayed linear deposition of IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction, confirming your clinical diagnosis. What is the best long-term treatment option for this patient?

a. combination of oral steroids plus methotrexate
b. oral steroids and mycophenolate mofetil
c. oral steroids only
d. topical steroids only

4. A 45-year-old Venezuelan man presents with painful nodules on his bilateral lower legs. A biopsy demonstrates acid-fast bacilli, and a multidrug regimen is initiated for erythema nodosum leprosum. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the treatment that is US Food and Drug Administration approved for this condition?

a. inhibits chemotaxis
b. inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
c. inhibits tumor necrosis factor α
d. suppresses T-cell function and B-cell antibody production

5. A patient consults her physician because of several side effects from a medication she started 2 weeks ago due to erythematous to violaceous papules on the legs from palpable purpura. She reports diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fatigue. Which medication is she taking?

a. azathioprine
b. colchicine
c. dapsone
d. methotrexate

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1. A 40-year-old woman is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. You discuss treatment options and decide to start hydroxychloroquine. What laboratory tests and monitoring are required prior to starting this medication?

a. complete blood cell count with differential and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
b. complete blood cell count with differential and complete metabolic profile
c. ophthalmology evaluation and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
d. b and c

2. Two months ago you saw a 30-year-old woman with a history of severe atopic dermatitis. She had been using topical steroids with not much improvement. You decided to start a systemic medication. Within 1 month of drug initiation, she called your office to tell you that she is much better but has noticed unwanted hair on her face lately. Which medication is most likely implicated?

a. cyclosporine
b. dapsone
c. hydroxychloroquine
d. methotrexate

3. A 70-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus who drinks 10 cans of beer per week presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of diffuse tense bullae and pruritus on the legs and trunk. Direct immunofluorescence displayed linear deposition of IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction, confirming your clinical diagnosis. What is the best long-term treatment option for this patient?

a. combination of oral steroids plus methotrexate
b. oral steroids and mycophenolate mofetil
c. oral steroids only
d. topical steroids only

4. A 45-year-old Venezuelan man presents with painful nodules on his bilateral lower legs. A biopsy demonstrates acid-fast bacilli, and a multidrug regimen is initiated for erythema nodosum leprosum. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the treatment that is US Food and Drug Administration approved for this condition?

a. inhibits chemotaxis
b. inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
c. inhibits tumor necrosis factor α
d. suppresses T-cell function and B-cell antibody production

5. A patient consults her physician because of several side effects from a medication she started 2 weeks ago due to erythematous to violaceous papules on the legs from palpable purpura. She reports diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fatigue. Which medication is she taking?

a. azathioprine
b. colchicine
c. dapsone
d. methotrexate

1. A 40-year-old woman is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. You discuss treatment options and decide to start hydroxychloroquine. What laboratory tests and monitoring are required prior to starting this medication?

a. complete blood cell count with differential and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
b. complete blood cell count with differential and complete metabolic profile
c. ophthalmology evaluation and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
d. b and c

2. Two months ago you saw a 30-year-old woman with a history of severe atopic dermatitis. She had been using topical steroids with not much improvement. You decided to start a systemic medication. Within 1 month of drug initiation, she called your office to tell you that she is much better but has noticed unwanted hair on her face lately. Which medication is most likely implicated?

a. cyclosporine
b. dapsone
c. hydroxychloroquine
d. methotrexate

3. A 70-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus who drinks 10 cans of beer per week presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of diffuse tense bullae and pruritus on the legs and trunk. Direct immunofluorescence displayed linear deposition of IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction, confirming your clinical diagnosis. What is the best long-term treatment option for this patient?

a. combination of oral steroids plus methotrexate
b. oral steroids and mycophenolate mofetil
c. oral steroids only
d. topical steroids only

4. A 45-year-old Venezuelan man presents with painful nodules on his bilateral lower legs. A biopsy demonstrates acid-fast bacilli, and a multidrug regimen is initiated for erythema nodosum leprosum. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the treatment that is US Food and Drug Administration approved for this condition?

a. inhibits chemotaxis
b. inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
c. inhibits tumor necrosis factor α
d. suppresses T-cell function and B-cell antibody production

5. A patient consults her physician because of several side effects from a medication she started 2 weeks ago due to erythematous to violaceous papules on the legs from palpable purpura. She reports diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fatigue. Which medication is she taking?

a. azathioprine
b. colchicine
c. dapsone
d. methotrexate

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Medications in Dermatology, Part 2: Immunosuppressives

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Dr. Pichardo-Geisinger is Assistant Professor of Dermatology, Wake Forest Baptist Health, Winston-Salem, North Carolina.

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Practice Question Answers: Chemotherapeutic Agents and Dermatologic Side Effects

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Practice Question Answers: Chemotherapeutic Agents and Dermatologic Side Effects

1. Which of the following chemotherapy agents has demonstrated the ability to cause accelerated rheumatoid nodule formation?

a. cisplatin
b. methotrexate
c. paclitaxel
d. rituximab
e. tamoxifen

2. Which of the following chemotherapy agents can cause sticky skin syndrome when combined with ketoconazole?

a. doxorubicin
b. etoposide
c. imatinib
d. sorafenib
e. thalidomide

3. Which of the following agents is not a protein kinase inhibitor?

a. bortezomib
b. cetuximab
c. erlotinib
d. imatinib
e. sorafenib

4. Which of the following chemotherapy agents can be used off label in the treatment of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans?

a. etoposide
b. imatinib
c. interferon alfa
d. lenalidomide
e. methotrexate

5. What chemotherapy agent has been shown to cause deep venous thromboembolism?

a. daunorubicin
b. doxorubicin
c. erlotinib
d. paclitaxel
e. thalidomide

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1. Which of the following chemotherapy agents has demonstrated the ability to cause accelerated rheumatoid nodule formation?

a. cisplatin
b. methotrexate
c. paclitaxel
d. rituximab
e. tamoxifen

2. Which of the following chemotherapy agents can cause sticky skin syndrome when combined with ketoconazole?

a. doxorubicin
b. etoposide
c. imatinib
d. sorafenib
e. thalidomide

3. Which of the following agents is not a protein kinase inhibitor?

a. bortezomib
b. cetuximab
c. erlotinib
d. imatinib
e. sorafenib

4. Which of the following chemotherapy agents can be used off label in the treatment of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans?

a. etoposide
b. imatinib
c. interferon alfa
d. lenalidomide
e. methotrexate

5. What chemotherapy agent has been shown to cause deep venous thromboembolism?

a. daunorubicin
b. doxorubicin
c. erlotinib
d. paclitaxel
e. thalidomide

1. Which of the following chemotherapy agents has demonstrated the ability to cause accelerated rheumatoid nodule formation?

a. cisplatin
b. methotrexate
c. paclitaxel
d. rituximab
e. tamoxifen

2. Which of the following chemotherapy agents can cause sticky skin syndrome when combined with ketoconazole?

a. doxorubicin
b. etoposide
c. imatinib
d. sorafenib
e. thalidomide

3. Which of the following agents is not a protein kinase inhibitor?

a. bortezomib
b. cetuximab
c. erlotinib
d. imatinib
e. sorafenib

4. Which of the following chemotherapy agents can be used off label in the treatment of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans?

a. etoposide
b. imatinib
c. interferon alfa
d. lenalidomide
e. methotrexate

5. What chemotherapy agent has been shown to cause deep venous thromboembolism?

a. daunorubicin
b. doxorubicin
c. erlotinib
d. paclitaxel
e. thalidomide

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Practice Question Answers: Closure Materials

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Practice Question Answers: Closure Materials

1. Which of the following suture properties is most responsible for accommodation of edema postoperatively?

a. memory
b. plasticity
c. pliability
d. size
e. stretching

2. Which of the following has the highest memory?

a. coated polyester (Ethibond Excel)
b. poliglecaprone 25 (Monocryl)
c. polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)
d. silk
e. stainless steel

3. The most worrisome consequence of capillarity is:

a. increased potential of translocation of bacterium in a wound
b. increased reactivity
c. increased spitting of suture
d. increased wound edema
e. decreased tensile strength

4. Which of the following would be an excellent choice for closing the mucosal surface on an Abbe flap repair?

a. 2-octyl cyanoacrylate (Dermabond Advanced)
b. 5-0 chromic gut
c. 5-0 coated polyester (Ethibond Excel)
d. 5-0 polybutester (Novafil)
e. polypropylene (Prolene)

5. Knot security is thought to be most directly related to which property of suture:

a. coefficient of friction
b. configuration
c. memory
d. size
e. tensile strength

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1. Which of the following suture properties is most responsible for accommodation of edema postoperatively?

a. memory
b. plasticity
c. pliability
d. size
e. stretching

2. Which of the following has the highest memory?

a. coated polyester (Ethibond Excel)
b. poliglecaprone 25 (Monocryl)
c. polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)
d. silk
e. stainless steel

3. The most worrisome consequence of capillarity is:

a. increased potential of translocation of bacterium in a wound
b. increased reactivity
c. increased spitting of suture
d. increased wound edema
e. decreased tensile strength

4. Which of the following would be an excellent choice for closing the mucosal surface on an Abbe flap repair?

a. 2-octyl cyanoacrylate (Dermabond Advanced)
b. 5-0 chromic gut
c. 5-0 coated polyester (Ethibond Excel)
d. 5-0 polybutester (Novafil)
e. polypropylene (Prolene)

5. Knot security is thought to be most directly related to which property of suture:

a. coefficient of friction
b. configuration
c. memory
d. size
e. tensile strength

1. Which of the following suture properties is most responsible for accommodation of edema postoperatively?

a. memory
b. plasticity
c. pliability
d. size
e. stretching

2. Which of the following has the highest memory?

a. coated polyester (Ethibond Excel)
b. poliglecaprone 25 (Monocryl)
c. polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)
d. silk
e. stainless steel

3. The most worrisome consequence of capillarity is:

a. increased potential of translocation of bacterium in a wound
b. increased reactivity
c. increased spitting of suture
d. increased wound edema
e. decreased tensile strength

4. Which of the following would be an excellent choice for closing the mucosal surface on an Abbe flap repair?

a. 2-octyl cyanoacrylate (Dermabond Advanced)
b. 5-0 chromic gut
c. 5-0 coated polyester (Ethibond Excel)
d. 5-0 polybutester (Novafil)
e. polypropylene (Prolene)

5. Knot security is thought to be most directly related to which property of suture:

a. coefficient of friction
b. configuration
c. memory
d. size
e. tensile strength

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Practice Question Answers: Lasers for Tattoo Removal

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Practice Question Answers: Lasers for Tattoo Removal

1. Which tattoo color is most commonly associated with allergic reactions that are eczematous, lichenoid, or granulomatous?

a. orange

b. purple

c. red

d. white

e. yellow

2. Which of the following lasers is the optimal device to use for tattoo removal?

a. argon laser

b. CO2

c. intense pulsed light

d. pulsed dye laser

e. quality-switched ruby, alexandrite, or Nd:YAG laser

3. Which of the following is the most important treatment end point in tattoo removal?

a. edema

b. erythema

c. immediate darkening

d. immediate whitening

e. pinpoint bleeding

4. Which of the following organisms recently has been implicated in tattoo infections?

a. Mycobacterium chelonae

b. Mycobacterium ulcerans

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d. Staphylococcus aureus

e. Streptococcus pyogenes

5. Darkening of which tattoo color(s) is the most frequently associated and worrisome side effect from a quality-switched laser?

a. light red

b. pink

c. white

d. a and b

e. a, b, and c

Author and Disclosure Information

Dr. Taylor is Assistant Professor of Dermatology, Wake Forest University School of Medicine, Winston-Salem, North Carolina.

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Dr. Taylor is Assistant Professor of Dermatology, Wake Forest University School of Medicine, Winston-Salem, North Carolina.

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Dr. Taylor is Assistant Professor of Dermatology, Wake Forest University School of Medicine, Winston-Salem, North Carolina.

1. Which tattoo color is most commonly associated with allergic reactions that are eczematous, lichenoid, or granulomatous?

a. orange

b. purple

c. red

d. white

e. yellow

2. Which of the following lasers is the optimal device to use for tattoo removal?

a. argon laser

b. CO2

c. intense pulsed light

d. pulsed dye laser

e. quality-switched ruby, alexandrite, or Nd:YAG laser

3. Which of the following is the most important treatment end point in tattoo removal?

a. edema

b. erythema

c. immediate darkening

d. immediate whitening

e. pinpoint bleeding

4. Which of the following organisms recently has been implicated in tattoo infections?

a. Mycobacterium chelonae

b. Mycobacterium ulcerans

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d. Staphylococcus aureus

e. Streptococcus pyogenes

5. Darkening of which tattoo color(s) is the most frequently associated and worrisome side effect from a quality-switched laser?

a. light red

b. pink

c. white

d. a and b

e. a, b, and c

1. Which tattoo color is most commonly associated with allergic reactions that are eczematous, lichenoid, or granulomatous?

a. orange

b. purple

c. red

d. white

e. yellow

2. Which of the following lasers is the optimal device to use for tattoo removal?

a. argon laser

b. CO2

c. intense pulsed light

d. pulsed dye laser

e. quality-switched ruby, alexandrite, or Nd:YAG laser

3. Which of the following is the most important treatment end point in tattoo removal?

a. edema

b. erythema

c. immediate darkening

d. immediate whitening

e. pinpoint bleeding

4. Which of the following organisms recently has been implicated in tattoo infections?

a. Mycobacterium chelonae

b. Mycobacterium ulcerans

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d. Staphylococcus aureus

e. Streptococcus pyogenes

5. Darkening of which tattoo color(s) is the most frequently associated and worrisome side effect from a quality-switched laser?

a. light red

b. pink

c. white

d. a and b

e. a, b, and c

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Practice Question Answers: Medications in Dermatology, Part 1

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Practice Question Answers: Medications in Dermatology, Part 1

1. Tetracyclines work via:

a. blocking the transpeptidation step of cell wall synthesis

b. inhibiting penicillin-binding proteins of transpeptidation

c. inhibiting protein synthesis by binding the 30S ribosomal subunit of messenger RNA

d. inhibiting protein synthesis by binding the 50S ribosomal subunit of messenger RNA

e. inhibiting DNA gyrase

2. Which of the following does not require viral thymidine kinase phosphorylation to work?

a. cidofovir

b. famciclovir

c. ganciclovir

d. penciclovir

e. valacyclovir

3. After taking an antibiotic, a patient notices that his tears are orange-red in color. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a. cephalosporins

b. cidofovir

c. fluoroquinolones

d. foscarnet

e. rifampin

4. Which of the following is most commonly associated with pseudomembranous colitis?

a. azithromycin

b. cephalexin

c. clindamycin

d. doxycycline

e. rifampin

5. Penile ulcers have been reported in patients taking which of the following:

a. acyclovir

b. cidofovir

c. foscarnet

d. ganciclovir

e. penciclovir

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1. Tetracyclines work via:

a. blocking the transpeptidation step of cell wall synthesis

b. inhibiting penicillin-binding proteins of transpeptidation

c. inhibiting protein synthesis by binding the 30S ribosomal subunit of messenger RNA

d. inhibiting protein synthesis by binding the 50S ribosomal subunit of messenger RNA

e. inhibiting DNA gyrase

2. Which of the following does not require viral thymidine kinase phosphorylation to work?

a. cidofovir

b. famciclovir

c. ganciclovir

d. penciclovir

e. valacyclovir

3. After taking an antibiotic, a patient notices that his tears are orange-red in color. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a. cephalosporins

b. cidofovir

c. fluoroquinolones

d. foscarnet

e. rifampin

4. Which of the following is most commonly associated with pseudomembranous colitis?

a. azithromycin

b. cephalexin

c. clindamycin

d. doxycycline

e. rifampin

5. Penile ulcers have been reported in patients taking which of the following:

a. acyclovir

b. cidofovir

c. foscarnet

d. ganciclovir

e. penciclovir

1. Tetracyclines work via:

a. blocking the transpeptidation step of cell wall synthesis

b. inhibiting penicillin-binding proteins of transpeptidation

c. inhibiting protein synthesis by binding the 30S ribosomal subunit of messenger RNA

d. inhibiting protein synthesis by binding the 50S ribosomal subunit of messenger RNA

e. inhibiting DNA gyrase

2. Which of the following does not require viral thymidine kinase phosphorylation to work?

a. cidofovir

b. famciclovir

c. ganciclovir

d. penciclovir

e. valacyclovir

3. After taking an antibiotic, a patient notices that his tears are orange-red in color. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a. cephalosporins

b. cidofovir

c. fluoroquinolones

d. foscarnet

e. rifampin

4. Which of the following is most commonly associated with pseudomembranous colitis?

a. azithromycin

b. cephalexin

c. clindamycin

d. doxycycline

e. rifampin

5. Penile ulcers have been reported in patients taking which of the following:

a. acyclovir

b. cidofovir

c. foscarnet

d. ganciclovir

e. penciclovir

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Medications in Dermatology, Part 1: Systemic Antibiotics and Antivirals

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Medications in Dermatology, Part 1: Systemic Antibiotics and Antivirals
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Medications in Dermatology, Part 1: Systemic Antibiotics and Antivirals
Legacy Keywords
penicillins, cephalosporins, tetracyclines, macrolides, fluoroquinolones, rifamycins, lincosamides, sulfonamides, glycopeptides, nitroimidazoles, acyclovir, valacyclovir, penciclovir, famciclovir, ganciclovir, foscarnet, cidofovir
Legacy Keywords
penicillins, cephalosporins, tetracyclines, macrolides, fluoroquinolones, rifamycins, lincosamides, sulfonamides, glycopeptides, nitroimidazoles, acyclovir, valacyclovir, penciclovir, famciclovir, ganciclovir, foscarnet, cidofovir
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