Fast Facts for Board Review

1. The fungus classically associated with erythematous nodules along the lymphatics on the extremities is:

a. chromomycosis

b. coccidioidomycosis

c. mycetoma

d. paracoccidioidomycosis

e. sporotrichosis

2. The fungal infection that invades blood vessels of diabetics by broad nonseptate hyphae is:

a. aspergillosis

b. candidiasis

c. cryptococcosis

d. hyalohyphomycosis

e. zygomycosis

3. A rural farmer presents with verrucous plaques on his hand of several weeks’ duration. A biopsy revealed round, brown, pigmented bodies resembling copper pennies in the dermis. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis

b. Fonsecaea pedrosoi

c. Fusarium solani

d. Madurella mycetomi

e. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

4. Mucicarmine is most helpful to identify gelatinous capsules in:

a. blastomycosis

b. candidiasis

c. cryptococcosis

d. mucormycosis

e. sporotrichosis

5. A student in a town near the Ohio River reports a headache, fever, nonproductive cough, and papular skin eruption. He has enjoyed the weekends exploring caves. The pathology from a skin biopsy showed small intracellular yeast forms with pseudocapsules. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?

a. Aspergillus fumigatus

b. Coccidioides immitis

c. Histoplasma capsulatum

d. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

e. Sporothrix schenckii

1. The fungus classically associated with erythematous nodules along the lymphatics on the extremities is:

a. chromomycosis

b. coccidioidomycosis

c. mycetoma

d. paracoccidioidomycosis

e. sporotrichosis

2. The fungal infection that invades blood vessels of diabetics by broad nonseptate hyphae is:

a. aspergillosis

b. candidiasis

c. cryptococcosis

d. hyalohyphomycosis

e. zygomycosis

3. A rural farmer presents with verrucous plaques on his hand of several weeks’ duration. A biopsy revealed round, brown, pigmented bodies resembling copper pennies in the dermis. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis

b. Fonsecaea pedrosoi

c. Fusarium solani

d. Madurella mycetomi

e. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

4. Mucicarmine is most helpful to identify gelatinous capsules in:

a. blastomycosis

b. candidiasis

c. cryptococcosis

d. mucormycosis

e. sporotrichosis

5. A student in a town near the Ohio River reports a headache, fever, nonproductive cough, and papular skin eruption. He has enjoyed the weekends exploring caves. The pathology from a skin biopsy showed small intracellular yeast forms with pseudocapsules. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?

a. Aspergillus fumigatus

b. Coccidioides immitis

c. Histoplasma capsulatum

d. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

e. Sporothrix schenckii

1. The fungus classically associated with erythematous nodules along the lymphatics on the extremities is:

a. chromomycosis

b. coccidioidomycosis

c. mycetoma

d. paracoccidioidomycosis

e. sporotrichosis

2. The fungal infection that invades blood vessels of diabetics by broad nonseptate hyphae is:

a. aspergillosis

b. candidiasis

c. cryptococcosis

d. hyalohyphomycosis

e. zygomycosis

3. A rural farmer presents with verrucous plaques on his hand of several weeks’ duration. A biopsy revealed round, brown, pigmented bodies resembling copper pennies in the dermis. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis

b. Fonsecaea pedrosoi

c. Fusarium solani

d. Madurella mycetomi

e. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

4. Mucicarmine is most helpful to identify gelatinous capsules in:

a. blastomycosis

b. candidiasis

c. cryptococcosis

d. mucormycosis

e. sporotrichosis

5. A student in a town near the Ohio River reports a headache, fever, nonproductive cough, and papular skin eruption. He has enjoyed the weekends exploring caves. The pathology from a skin biopsy showed small intracellular yeast forms with pseudocapsules. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?

a. Aspergillus fumigatus

b. Coccidioides immitis

c. Histoplasma capsulatum

d. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

e. Sporothrix schenckii

1. Which of the following muscles is not directly involved in smiling?
a. orbicularis oris
b. risorius
c. zygomaticus major
d. zygomaticus minor

2. Which represents the most robust connection between the internal carotid and external carotid arteries?
a. angular→dorsal nasal
b. infraorbital→angular
c. superior labial→lateral nasal
d. superficial temporal→infraorbital

3. Which muscle is not used during deep inspiration to flare the nares?
a. depressor septi nasi
b. levator labii superioris alaeque nasi
c. nasalis
d. procerus

4. Which muscle receives its innervations from its superficial surface?
a. buccinator
b. depressor anguli oris
c. frontalis
d. mentalis

5. Blood supply to the chin is primarily from what branch of the external carotid artery?
a. inferior labial
b. maxillary
c. ophthalmic
d. superficial temporal

1. Which of the following muscles is not directly involved in smiling?
a. orbicularis oris
b. risorius
c. zygomaticus major
d. zygomaticus minor

2. Which represents the most robust connection between the internal carotid and external carotid arteries?
a. angular→dorsal nasal
b. infraorbital→angular
c. superior labial→lateral nasal
d. superficial temporal→infraorbital

3. Which muscle is not used during deep inspiration to flare the nares?
a. depressor septi nasi
b. levator labii superioris alaeque nasi
c. nasalis
d. procerus

4. Which muscle receives its innervations from its superficial surface?
a. buccinator
b. depressor anguli oris
c. frontalis
d. mentalis

5. Blood supply to the chin is primarily from what branch of the external carotid artery?
a. inferior labial
b. maxillary
c. ophthalmic
d. superficial temporal

1. Which of the following muscles is not directly involved in smiling?
a. orbicularis oris
b. risorius
c. zygomaticus major
d. zygomaticus minor

2. Which represents the most robust connection between the internal carotid and external carotid arteries?
a. angular→dorsal nasal
b. infraorbital→angular
c. superior labial→lateral nasal
d. superficial temporal→infraorbital

3. Which muscle is not used during deep inspiration to flare the nares?
a. depressor septi nasi
b. levator labii superioris alaeque nasi
c. nasalis
d. procerus

4. Which muscle receives its innervations from its superficial surface?
a. buccinator
b. depressor anguli oris
c. frontalis
d. mentalis

5. Blood supply to the chin is primarily from what branch of the external carotid artery?
a. inferior labial
b. maxillary
c. ophthalmic
d. superficial temporal

1. Which of the following cosmetic injectables binds water to create volume, has a low allergic reaction profile, and lasts approximately 6 months?

a. bovine-derived collagen

b. calcium hydroxylapatite

c. human-derived collagen

d. hyaluronic acid

e. polymethyl methacrylate

2. Which cosmetic injectable demonstrates radiopacity?

a. bovine-derived collagen

b. calcium hydroxylapatite

c. human-derived collagen

d. poly-L-lactic acid

e. polymethyl methacrylate

3. Which cosmetic injectable is contraindicated in the glabellar region due to increased risk for tissue necrosis?

a. bovine-derived collagen

b. human-derived collagen

c. poly-L-lactic acid

d. a and b

e. a, b, and c

4. Which of the following cosmetic injectables is the least likely to illicit a localized inflammatory response?

a. calcium hydroxylapatite

b. human-derived collagen

c. hyaluronic acid

d. poly-L-lactic acid

e. silicone

5. Which of the following cosmetic injectables is approved by the US Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus–associated lipoatrophy?

a. bovine-derived collagen

b. human-derived collagen

c. hyaluronic acid

d. poly-L-lactic acid

e. polymethyl methacrylate

1. Which of the following cosmetic injectables binds water to create volume, has a low allergic reaction profile, and lasts approximately 6 months?

a. bovine-derived collagen

b. calcium hydroxylapatite

c. human-derived collagen

d. hyaluronic acid

e. polymethyl methacrylate

2. Which cosmetic injectable demonstrates radiopacity?

a. bovine-derived collagen

b. calcium hydroxylapatite

c. human-derived collagen

d. poly-L-lactic acid

e. polymethyl methacrylate

3. Which cosmetic injectable is contraindicated in the glabellar region due to increased risk for tissue necrosis?

a. bovine-derived collagen

b. human-derived collagen

c. poly-L-lactic acid

d. a and b

e. a, b, and c

4. Which of the following cosmetic injectables is the least likely to illicit a localized inflammatory response?

a. calcium hydroxylapatite

b. human-derived collagen

c. hyaluronic acid

d. poly-L-lactic acid

e. silicone

5. Which of the following cosmetic injectables is approved by the US Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus–associated lipoatrophy?

a. bovine-derived collagen

b. human-derived collagen

c. hyaluronic acid

d. poly-L-lactic acid

e. polymethyl methacrylate

1. Which of the following cosmetic injectables binds water to create volume, has a low allergic reaction profile, and lasts approximately 6 months?

a. bovine-derived collagen

b. calcium hydroxylapatite

c. human-derived collagen

d. hyaluronic acid

e. polymethyl methacrylate

2. Which cosmetic injectable demonstrates radiopacity?

a. bovine-derived collagen

b. calcium hydroxylapatite

c. human-derived collagen

d. poly-L-lactic acid

e. polymethyl methacrylate

3. Which cosmetic injectable is contraindicated in the glabellar region due to increased risk for tissue necrosis?

a. bovine-derived collagen

b. human-derived collagen

c. poly-L-lactic acid

d. a and b

e. a, b, and c

4. Which of the following cosmetic injectables is the least likely to illicit a localized inflammatory response?

a. calcium hydroxylapatite

b. human-derived collagen

c. hyaluronic acid

d. poly-L-lactic acid

e. silicone

5. Which of the following cosmetic injectables is approved by the US Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus–associated lipoatrophy?

a. bovine-derived collagen

b. human-derived collagen

c. hyaluronic acid

d. poly-L-lactic acid

e. polymethyl methacrylate

1. The most commonly used substrate for indirect immunofluorescence in diagnosing paraneoplastic pemphigus is:

a. guinea pig esophagus
b. monkey bladder
c. monkey esophagus
d. rat bladder
e. rat esophagus

2. Which solid organ malignancy is most commonly associated with paraneoplastic Sweet syndrome in men?

a. bladder
b. brain
c. gastrointestinal
d. lung
e. renal

3. A patient with necrolytic migratory erythema and glucagonoma syndrome can be expected to have the following abnormal laboratory results:
a. elevated amino acid levels
b. elevated red blood cell count
c. elevated serum glucagon levels
d. elevated zinc level
e. low serum glucagon levels

4. Leser-Trélat sign has been reported to present with which of the following:
a. acanthosis nigricans
b. acquired ichthyosis
c. severe pruritus
d. tripe palms
e. all of the above

5. Which of the following is most strongly associated with an increased risk for malignancy in dermatomyositis?
a. anti-Mi2 autoantibody
b. anti-p155 autoantibody
c. elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. positive antinuclear antibody
e. positive double-stranded DNA

1. The most commonly used substrate for indirect immunofluorescence in diagnosing paraneoplastic pemphigus is:

a. guinea pig esophagus
b. monkey bladder
c. monkey esophagus
d. rat bladder
e. rat esophagus

2. Which solid organ malignancy is most commonly associated with paraneoplastic Sweet syndrome in men?

a. bladder
b. brain
c. gastrointestinal
d. lung
e. renal

3. A patient with necrolytic migratory erythema and glucagonoma syndrome can be expected to have the following abnormal laboratory results:
a. elevated amino acid levels
b. elevated red blood cell count
c. elevated serum glucagon levels
d. elevated zinc level
e. low serum glucagon levels

4. Leser-Trélat sign has been reported to present with which of the following:
a. acanthosis nigricans
b. acquired ichthyosis
c. severe pruritus
d. tripe palms
e. all of the above

5. Which of the following is most strongly associated with an increased risk for malignancy in dermatomyositis?
a. anti-Mi2 autoantibody
b. anti-p155 autoantibody
c. elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. positive antinuclear antibody
e. positive double-stranded DNA

1. The most commonly used substrate for indirect immunofluorescence in diagnosing paraneoplastic pemphigus is:

a. guinea pig esophagus
b. monkey bladder
c. monkey esophagus
d. rat bladder
e. rat esophagus

2. Which solid organ malignancy is most commonly associated with paraneoplastic Sweet syndrome in men?

a. bladder
b. brain
c. gastrointestinal
d. lung
e. renal

3. A patient with necrolytic migratory erythema and glucagonoma syndrome can be expected to have the following abnormal laboratory results:
a. elevated amino acid levels
b. elevated red blood cell count
c. elevated serum glucagon levels
d. elevated zinc level
e. low serum glucagon levels

4. Leser-Trélat sign has been reported to present with which of the following:
a. acanthosis nigricans
b. acquired ichthyosis
c. severe pruritus
d. tripe palms
e. all of the above

5. Which of the following is most strongly associated with an increased risk for malignancy in dermatomyositis?
a. anti-Mi2 autoantibody
b. anti-p155 autoantibody
c. elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. positive antinuclear antibody
e. positive double-stranded DNA

1. A 17-year-old adolescent girl presents to the emergency department with breathing trouble. She has no history of respiratory disease and no medical history of consequence. After leaving an uncomplicated laser hair removal appointment, she developed shortness of breath. On examination she is tachypneic and tachycardic with a pulse oximetry of 88% on 90% nonrebreather mask. What is the appropriate course of action?

a. epinephrine and intravenous diphenhydramine

b. intravenous methylene blue (1 mg/kg)

c. intravenous methylprednisolone sodium succinate (Solu-Medrol, Pharmacia & Upjohn Co)

d. oxygen and nebulizer treatments

e. spiral chest computed tomography

2. Which is the most likely order of symptoms in a patient with increasing lidocaine toxicity?

a. coma, anxiety, disorientation, focal seizures

b. nausea, bradypnea, metallic taste, dizziness

c. perioral numbness, diplopia, bradycardia, cardiac arrest

d. seizure, somnolence, vomiting, coma

e. slurred speech, dizziness, bradycardia, tinnitus, seizure

3. What is the maximum amount of 1% lidocaine (with epinephrine) that can be safely administered to a 50-kg healthy adult?

a. 150 mg

b. 175 mg

c. 200 mg

d. 250 mg

e. 350 mg

4. Which of the following will not decrease pain from local administration of lidocaine for most patients?

a. addition of sodium bicarbonate to the preparation

b. background music or conversation

c. quick administration

d. tapping the skin

e. warming the anesthetic

5. Which of the following can be safely used in a patient with a p-aminobenzoic acid allergy?

a. chloroprocaine

b. lidocaine (preservative free)

c. procaine

d. proparacaine

e. tetracaine

1. A 17-year-old adolescent girl presents to the emergency department with breathing trouble. She has no history of respiratory disease and no medical history of consequence. After leaving an uncomplicated laser hair removal appointment, she developed shortness of breath. On examination she is tachypneic and tachycardic with a pulse oximetry of 88% on 90% nonrebreather mask. What is the appropriate course of action?

a. epinephrine and intravenous diphenhydramine

b. intravenous methylene blue (1 mg/kg)

c. intravenous methylprednisolone sodium succinate (Solu-Medrol, Pharmacia & Upjohn Co)

d. oxygen and nebulizer treatments

e. spiral chest computed tomography

2. Which is the most likely order of symptoms in a patient with increasing lidocaine toxicity?

a. coma, anxiety, disorientation, focal seizures

b. nausea, bradypnea, metallic taste, dizziness

c. perioral numbness, diplopia, bradycardia, cardiac arrest

d. seizure, somnolence, vomiting, coma

e. slurred speech, dizziness, bradycardia, tinnitus, seizure

3. What is the maximum amount of 1% lidocaine (with epinephrine) that can be safely administered to a 50-kg healthy adult?

a. 150 mg

b. 175 mg

c. 200 mg

d. 250 mg

e. 350 mg

4. Which of the following will not decrease pain from local administration of lidocaine for most patients?

a. addition of sodium bicarbonate to the preparation

b. background music or conversation

c. quick administration

d. tapping the skin

e. warming the anesthetic

5. Which of the following can be safely used in a patient with a p-aminobenzoic acid allergy?

a. chloroprocaine

b. lidocaine (preservative free)

c. procaine

d. proparacaine

e. tetracaine

1. A 17-year-old adolescent girl presents to the emergency department with breathing trouble. She has no history of respiratory disease and no medical history of consequence. After leaving an uncomplicated laser hair removal appointment, she developed shortness of breath. On examination she is tachypneic and tachycardic with a pulse oximetry of 88% on 90% nonrebreather mask. What is the appropriate course of action?

a. epinephrine and intravenous diphenhydramine

b. intravenous methylene blue (1 mg/kg)

c. intravenous methylprednisolone sodium succinate (Solu-Medrol, Pharmacia & Upjohn Co)

d. oxygen and nebulizer treatments

e. spiral chest computed tomography

2. Which is the most likely order of symptoms in a patient with increasing lidocaine toxicity?

a. coma, anxiety, disorientation, focal seizures

b. nausea, bradypnea, metallic taste, dizziness

c. perioral numbness, diplopia, bradycardia, cardiac arrest

d. seizure, somnolence, vomiting, coma

e. slurred speech, dizziness, bradycardia, tinnitus, seizure

3. What is the maximum amount of 1% lidocaine (with epinephrine) that can be safely administered to a 50-kg healthy adult?

a. 150 mg

b. 175 mg

c. 200 mg

d. 250 mg

e. 350 mg

4. Which of the following will not decrease pain from local administration of lidocaine for most patients?

a. addition of sodium bicarbonate to the preparation

b. background music or conversation

c. quick administration

d. tapping the skin

e. warming the anesthetic

5. Which of the following can be safely used in a patient with a p-aminobenzoic acid allergy?

a. chloroprocaine

b. lidocaine (preservative free)

c. procaine

d. proparacaine

e. tetracaine