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High Perioperative Oxygen Fraction Does Not Improve Surgical-Site Infection Frequency after Abdominal Surgery

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High Perioperative Oxygen Fraction Does Not Improve Surgical-Site Infection Frequency after Abdominal Surgery

Clinical question: Does the use of 80% oxygen perioperatively in abdominal surgery decrease the frequency of surgical-site infection within 14 days without increasing the rate of pulmonary complications?

Background: Low oxygen tension in wounds can negatively impact immune response and healing. Increasing inspiratory oxygen fraction during the perioperative period translates into higher wound oxygen tension. However, the benefit of increased oxygen fraction therapy in abdominal surgery healing and complications is not clear, nor is the frequency of pulmonary complications.

Study design: Patient- and observer-blinded clinical trial.

Setting: Fourteen Danish hospitals from October 2006 to October 2008.

Synopsis: Patients were randomized to receive a fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) of 0.80 or 0.30. The primary outcome—surgical-site infection in the superficial or deep wound or intra-abdominal cavity within 14 days of surgery—was defined using Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) criteria. Secondary outcomes included pulmonary complications within 14 days (pneumonia, atelectasis, or respiratory failure), 30-day mortality, duration of post-op course, ICU stay within 14 days post-op, and any abdominal operation within 14 days. The 1,386 patients were enrolled in the intention-to-treat analysis.

Infection occurred in 19.1% of patients given 0.80 FIO2 and in 20.1% of patients given 0.30 FIO2; odds ratio of 0.94 (95% CI 0.72 to 1.22; P=0.64). Numbers of pulmonary complications were not significantly different between the groups.

This trial included acute and nonacute laparotomies with followup for adverse outcomes. Study limitations included the inability to ensure that both groups received timely antibiotics and prevention for hypothermia. Of patients in the 30% FIO2 group, 7.3% required higher oxygen administration. Additionally, infection might have been underestimated in 11.3% of patients who were not followed up on between days 13 and 30.

Bottom line: High oxygen concentration administered during and after laparotomy did not lead to fewer surgical site infections, nor did it significantly increase the frequency of pulmonary complications or death.

Citation: Meyhoff CS, Wetterslev J, Jorgensen LN, et al. Effect of high perioperative oxygen fraction on surgical site infection and pulmonary complications after abdominal surgery: the PROXI randomized clinical trial. JAMA. 2009;302(14):1543-1550.

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Clinical question: Does the use of 80% oxygen perioperatively in abdominal surgery decrease the frequency of surgical-site infection within 14 days without increasing the rate of pulmonary complications?

Background: Low oxygen tension in wounds can negatively impact immune response and healing. Increasing inspiratory oxygen fraction during the perioperative period translates into higher wound oxygen tension. However, the benefit of increased oxygen fraction therapy in abdominal surgery healing and complications is not clear, nor is the frequency of pulmonary complications.

Study design: Patient- and observer-blinded clinical trial.

Setting: Fourteen Danish hospitals from October 2006 to October 2008.

Synopsis: Patients were randomized to receive a fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) of 0.80 or 0.30. The primary outcome—surgical-site infection in the superficial or deep wound or intra-abdominal cavity within 14 days of surgery—was defined using Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) criteria. Secondary outcomes included pulmonary complications within 14 days (pneumonia, atelectasis, or respiratory failure), 30-day mortality, duration of post-op course, ICU stay within 14 days post-op, and any abdominal operation within 14 days. The 1,386 patients were enrolled in the intention-to-treat analysis.

Infection occurred in 19.1% of patients given 0.80 FIO2 and in 20.1% of patients given 0.30 FIO2; odds ratio of 0.94 (95% CI 0.72 to 1.22; P=0.64). Numbers of pulmonary complications were not significantly different between the groups.

This trial included acute and nonacute laparotomies with followup for adverse outcomes. Study limitations included the inability to ensure that both groups received timely antibiotics and prevention for hypothermia. Of patients in the 30% FIO2 group, 7.3% required higher oxygen administration. Additionally, infection might have been underestimated in 11.3% of patients who were not followed up on between days 13 and 30.

Bottom line: High oxygen concentration administered during and after laparotomy did not lead to fewer surgical site infections, nor did it significantly increase the frequency of pulmonary complications or death.

Citation: Meyhoff CS, Wetterslev J, Jorgensen LN, et al. Effect of high perioperative oxygen fraction on surgical site infection and pulmonary complications after abdominal surgery: the PROXI randomized clinical trial. JAMA. 2009;302(14):1543-1550.

Clinical question: Does the use of 80% oxygen perioperatively in abdominal surgery decrease the frequency of surgical-site infection within 14 days without increasing the rate of pulmonary complications?

Background: Low oxygen tension in wounds can negatively impact immune response and healing. Increasing inspiratory oxygen fraction during the perioperative period translates into higher wound oxygen tension. However, the benefit of increased oxygen fraction therapy in abdominal surgery healing and complications is not clear, nor is the frequency of pulmonary complications.

Study design: Patient- and observer-blinded clinical trial.

Setting: Fourteen Danish hospitals from October 2006 to October 2008.

Synopsis: Patients were randomized to receive a fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) of 0.80 or 0.30. The primary outcome—surgical-site infection in the superficial or deep wound or intra-abdominal cavity within 14 days of surgery—was defined using Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) criteria. Secondary outcomes included pulmonary complications within 14 days (pneumonia, atelectasis, or respiratory failure), 30-day mortality, duration of post-op course, ICU stay within 14 days post-op, and any abdominal operation within 14 days. The 1,386 patients were enrolled in the intention-to-treat analysis.

Infection occurred in 19.1% of patients given 0.80 FIO2 and in 20.1% of patients given 0.30 FIO2; odds ratio of 0.94 (95% CI 0.72 to 1.22; P=0.64). Numbers of pulmonary complications were not significantly different between the groups.

This trial included acute and nonacute laparotomies with followup for adverse outcomes. Study limitations included the inability to ensure that both groups received timely antibiotics and prevention for hypothermia. Of patients in the 30% FIO2 group, 7.3% required higher oxygen administration. Additionally, infection might have been underestimated in 11.3% of patients who were not followed up on between days 13 and 30.

Bottom line: High oxygen concentration administered during and after laparotomy did not lead to fewer surgical site infections, nor did it significantly increase the frequency of pulmonary complications or death.

Citation: Meyhoff CS, Wetterslev J, Jorgensen LN, et al. Effect of high perioperative oxygen fraction on surgical site infection and pulmonary complications after abdominal surgery: the PROXI randomized clinical trial. JAMA. 2009;302(14):1543-1550.

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Computer-Based Reminders Have Small to Modest Effect on Care Processes

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Computer-Based Reminders Have Small to Modest Effect on Care Processes

Clinical question: Do on-screen, computer-based clinical reminders improve adherence to target processes of care or clinical outcomes?

Background: Gaps between practice guidelines and routine care are caused, in part, by the inability of clinicians to access or recall information at the point of care. Although automated reminder systems offer the promise of “just in time” recommendations, studies of electronic reminders have demonstrated mixed results.

Study design: Literature review and meta-analysis.

Setting: Multiple databases and information repositories, including MEDLINE, EMBASE, and CINAHL.

Synopsis: The authors conducted a literature search to identify randomized and quasi-randomized controlled trials measuring the effect of computer-based reminders on process measures or clinical outcomes. To avoid statistical challenges inherent in unit-of-analysis errors, the authors reported median improvement in process adherence or median change in clinical endpoints.

Out of a pool of 2,036 citations, 28 studies detailing 32 comparative analyses were included. Across the 28 studies, reminders resulted in a median improvement in target process adherence of 4.2% (3.3% for prescribing behavior, 2.8% for test ordering). Eight comparisons reported dichotomous clinical endpoints and collectively showed a median absolute improvement of 2.5%.

The greatest contribution to measured treatment effects came from large academic centers with well-established electronic health records and robust informatics departments. No characteristics of the reminder system or the clinical context were associated with the magnitude of impact. A potential limitation in reporting median effects across studies is that all studies were given equal weight.

Bottom line: Electronic reminders appear to have a small, positive effect on clinician adherence to recommended processes, although it is uncertain what contextual or design features are responsible for the greatest treatment effect.

Citation: Shojania K, Jennings A, Mayhew A, Ramsay CR, Eccles MP, Grimshaw J. The effects of on-screen, point of care computer reminders on processes and outcomes of care. Cochrane Database Syst Rev. 2009(3):CD001096. TH

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Clinical question: Do on-screen, computer-based clinical reminders improve adherence to target processes of care or clinical outcomes?

Background: Gaps between practice guidelines and routine care are caused, in part, by the inability of clinicians to access or recall information at the point of care. Although automated reminder systems offer the promise of “just in time” recommendations, studies of electronic reminders have demonstrated mixed results.

Study design: Literature review and meta-analysis.

Setting: Multiple databases and information repositories, including MEDLINE, EMBASE, and CINAHL.

Synopsis: The authors conducted a literature search to identify randomized and quasi-randomized controlled trials measuring the effect of computer-based reminders on process measures or clinical outcomes. To avoid statistical challenges inherent in unit-of-analysis errors, the authors reported median improvement in process adherence or median change in clinical endpoints.

Out of a pool of 2,036 citations, 28 studies detailing 32 comparative analyses were included. Across the 28 studies, reminders resulted in a median improvement in target process adherence of 4.2% (3.3% for prescribing behavior, 2.8% for test ordering). Eight comparisons reported dichotomous clinical endpoints and collectively showed a median absolute improvement of 2.5%.

The greatest contribution to measured treatment effects came from large academic centers with well-established electronic health records and robust informatics departments. No characteristics of the reminder system or the clinical context were associated with the magnitude of impact. A potential limitation in reporting median effects across studies is that all studies were given equal weight.

Bottom line: Electronic reminders appear to have a small, positive effect on clinician adherence to recommended processes, although it is uncertain what contextual or design features are responsible for the greatest treatment effect.

Citation: Shojania K, Jennings A, Mayhew A, Ramsay CR, Eccles MP, Grimshaw J. The effects of on-screen, point of care computer reminders on processes and outcomes of care. Cochrane Database Syst Rev. 2009(3):CD001096. TH

Clinical question: Do on-screen, computer-based clinical reminders improve adherence to target processes of care or clinical outcomes?

Background: Gaps between practice guidelines and routine care are caused, in part, by the inability of clinicians to access or recall information at the point of care. Although automated reminder systems offer the promise of “just in time” recommendations, studies of electronic reminders have demonstrated mixed results.

Study design: Literature review and meta-analysis.

Setting: Multiple databases and information repositories, including MEDLINE, EMBASE, and CINAHL.

Synopsis: The authors conducted a literature search to identify randomized and quasi-randomized controlled trials measuring the effect of computer-based reminders on process measures or clinical outcomes. To avoid statistical challenges inherent in unit-of-analysis errors, the authors reported median improvement in process adherence or median change in clinical endpoints.

Out of a pool of 2,036 citations, 28 studies detailing 32 comparative analyses were included. Across the 28 studies, reminders resulted in a median improvement in target process adherence of 4.2% (3.3% for prescribing behavior, 2.8% for test ordering). Eight comparisons reported dichotomous clinical endpoints and collectively showed a median absolute improvement of 2.5%.

The greatest contribution to measured treatment effects came from large academic centers with well-established electronic health records and robust informatics departments. No characteristics of the reminder system or the clinical context were associated with the magnitude of impact. A potential limitation in reporting median effects across studies is that all studies were given equal weight.

Bottom line: Electronic reminders appear to have a small, positive effect on clinician adherence to recommended processes, although it is uncertain what contextual or design features are responsible for the greatest treatment effect.

Citation: Shojania K, Jennings A, Mayhew A, Ramsay CR, Eccles MP, Grimshaw J. The effects of on-screen, point of care computer reminders on processes and outcomes of care. Cochrane Database Syst Rev. 2009(3):CD001096. TH

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Patient Participation in Medication Reconciliation at Discharge Helps Detect Prescribing Discrepancies

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Patient Participation in Medication Reconciliation at Discharge Helps Detect Prescribing Discrepancies

Clinical question: Does the inclusion of a medication adherence counseling session during a hospital discharge reconciliation process reduce discrepancies in the final medication regimen?

Background: Inadvertent medication prescribing errors are an important cause of preventable adverse drug events and commonly occur at transitions of care. Although medication reconciliation processes can identify errors, the best strategies for implementation remain unclear.

Study design: Prospective, observational cohort.

Setting: A 550-bed teaching hospital in the Netherlands.

Synopsis: Of 437 patients admitted to a pulmonary ward and screened for eligibility, 267 were included in the analysis. A pharmacy specialist reviewed all available community prescription records, inpatient documentation, and discharge medication lists in an effort to identify discrepancies. Potential errors were discussed with the prescriber. Then, the pharmacy specialist interviewed the patient and provided additional counseling. Any new discrepancies were discussed with the prescriber. All questions raised by the pharmacist were recorded, as were all subsequent prescriber interventions.

The primary outcome measure was the number of interventions made as a result of pharmacy review. A total of 940 questions were asked. At least one intervention was recorded for 87% of patients before counseling (mean 2.7 interventions/patient) and for 97% of patients after (mean 5.3 interventions/patient). Discrepancies were addressed for 63.7% of patients before counseling and 72.5% after. Pharmacotherapy was optimized for 67.2% of patients before counseling and 76.3% after.

Bottom line: Patient engagement in the medication reconciliation process incrementally improves the quality of the history and helps identify clinically meaningful discrepancies at the time of hospital discharge.

Citation: Karapinar-Carkit F, Borgsteede S, Zoer J, Smit HJ, Egberts AC, van den Bemt P. Effect of medication reconciliation with and without patient counseling on the number of pharmaceutical interventions among patients discharged from the hospital. Ann Pharmacother. 2009;43(6):1001-1010.

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Clinical question: Does the inclusion of a medication adherence counseling session during a hospital discharge reconciliation process reduce discrepancies in the final medication regimen?

Background: Inadvertent medication prescribing errors are an important cause of preventable adverse drug events and commonly occur at transitions of care. Although medication reconciliation processes can identify errors, the best strategies for implementation remain unclear.

Study design: Prospective, observational cohort.

Setting: A 550-bed teaching hospital in the Netherlands.

Synopsis: Of 437 patients admitted to a pulmonary ward and screened for eligibility, 267 were included in the analysis. A pharmacy specialist reviewed all available community prescription records, inpatient documentation, and discharge medication lists in an effort to identify discrepancies. Potential errors were discussed with the prescriber. Then, the pharmacy specialist interviewed the patient and provided additional counseling. Any new discrepancies were discussed with the prescriber. All questions raised by the pharmacist were recorded, as were all subsequent prescriber interventions.

The primary outcome measure was the number of interventions made as a result of pharmacy review. A total of 940 questions were asked. At least one intervention was recorded for 87% of patients before counseling (mean 2.7 interventions/patient) and for 97% of patients after (mean 5.3 interventions/patient). Discrepancies were addressed for 63.7% of patients before counseling and 72.5% after. Pharmacotherapy was optimized for 67.2% of patients before counseling and 76.3% after.

Bottom line: Patient engagement in the medication reconciliation process incrementally improves the quality of the history and helps identify clinically meaningful discrepancies at the time of hospital discharge.

Citation: Karapinar-Carkit F, Borgsteede S, Zoer J, Smit HJ, Egberts AC, van den Bemt P. Effect of medication reconciliation with and without patient counseling on the number of pharmaceutical interventions among patients discharged from the hospital. Ann Pharmacother. 2009;43(6):1001-1010.

Clinical question: Does the inclusion of a medication adherence counseling session during a hospital discharge reconciliation process reduce discrepancies in the final medication regimen?

Background: Inadvertent medication prescribing errors are an important cause of preventable adverse drug events and commonly occur at transitions of care. Although medication reconciliation processes can identify errors, the best strategies for implementation remain unclear.

Study design: Prospective, observational cohort.

Setting: A 550-bed teaching hospital in the Netherlands.

Synopsis: Of 437 patients admitted to a pulmonary ward and screened for eligibility, 267 were included in the analysis. A pharmacy specialist reviewed all available community prescription records, inpatient documentation, and discharge medication lists in an effort to identify discrepancies. Potential errors were discussed with the prescriber. Then, the pharmacy specialist interviewed the patient and provided additional counseling. Any new discrepancies were discussed with the prescriber. All questions raised by the pharmacist were recorded, as were all subsequent prescriber interventions.

The primary outcome measure was the number of interventions made as a result of pharmacy review. A total of 940 questions were asked. At least one intervention was recorded for 87% of patients before counseling (mean 2.7 interventions/patient) and for 97% of patients after (mean 5.3 interventions/patient). Discrepancies were addressed for 63.7% of patients before counseling and 72.5% after. Pharmacotherapy was optimized for 67.2% of patients before counseling and 76.3% after.

Bottom line: Patient engagement in the medication reconciliation process incrementally improves the quality of the history and helps identify clinically meaningful discrepancies at the time of hospital discharge.

Citation: Karapinar-Carkit F, Borgsteede S, Zoer J, Smit HJ, Egberts AC, van den Bemt P. Effect of medication reconciliation with and without patient counseling on the number of pharmaceutical interventions among patients discharged from the hospital. Ann Pharmacother. 2009;43(6):1001-1010.

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Negative D-Dimer Test Can Safely Exclude Pulmonary Embolism in Patients at Low To Intermediate Clinical Risk

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Negative D-Dimer Test Can Safely Exclude Pulmonary Embolism in Patients at Low To Intermediate Clinical Risk

Clinical question: In patients with symptoms consistent with pulmonary embolism (PE), can evaluation with a clinical risk assessment tool and D-dimer assay identify patients who do not require CT angiography to exclude PE?

Background: D-dimer is a highly sensitive but nonspecific marker of VTE, and studies suggest that VTE can be ruled out without further imaging in patients with low clinical probability of disease and a negative D-dimer test. Nevertheless, this practice has not been adopted uniformly, and CT angiography (CTA) overuse continues.

Study design: Prospective registry cohort.

Setting: A 550-bed community teaching hospital in Chicago.

Synopsis: Consecutive patients presenting to the ED with symptoms suggestive of PE were evaluated with 1) revised Geneva score; 2) D-dimer assay; and 3) CTA. Among the 627 patients who underwent all three components of the evaluation, 44.8% were identified as low probability for PE by revised Geneva score, 52.6% as intermediate probability, and 2.6% as high probability. The overall prevalence of PE (using CTA as the gold standard) was very low (4.5%); just 2.1% of low-risk, 5.2% of intermediate-risk, and 31.2% of high-risk patients were ultimately found to have PE on CTA.

Using a cutoff of 1.2 mg/L, the D-dimer assay accurately detected all low- to intermediate-probability patients with PE (sensitivity and negative predictive value of 100%). One patient in the high probability group did have a PE, even though the patient had a D-dimer value <1.2 mg/L (sensitivity and NPV both 80%). Had diagnostic testing stopped after a negative D-dimer result in the low- to intermediate-probability patients, 172 CTAs (27%) would have been avoided.

Bottom line: In a low-prevalence cohort, no pulmonary emboli were identified by CTA in any patient with a low to intermediate clinical risk assessment and a negative quantitative D-dimer assay result.

Citation: Gupta RT, Kakarla RK, Kirshenbaum KJ, Tapson VF. D-dimers and efficacy of clinical risk estimation algorithms: sensitivity in evaluation of acute pulmonary embolism. AJR Am J Roentgenol. 2009;193(2):425-430.

 

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Clinical question: In patients with symptoms consistent with pulmonary embolism (PE), can evaluation with a clinical risk assessment tool and D-dimer assay identify patients who do not require CT angiography to exclude PE?

Background: D-dimer is a highly sensitive but nonspecific marker of VTE, and studies suggest that VTE can be ruled out without further imaging in patients with low clinical probability of disease and a negative D-dimer test. Nevertheless, this practice has not been adopted uniformly, and CT angiography (CTA) overuse continues.

Study design: Prospective registry cohort.

Setting: A 550-bed community teaching hospital in Chicago.

Synopsis: Consecutive patients presenting to the ED with symptoms suggestive of PE were evaluated with 1) revised Geneva score; 2) D-dimer assay; and 3) CTA. Among the 627 patients who underwent all three components of the evaluation, 44.8% were identified as low probability for PE by revised Geneva score, 52.6% as intermediate probability, and 2.6% as high probability. The overall prevalence of PE (using CTA as the gold standard) was very low (4.5%); just 2.1% of low-risk, 5.2% of intermediate-risk, and 31.2% of high-risk patients were ultimately found to have PE on CTA.

Using a cutoff of 1.2 mg/L, the D-dimer assay accurately detected all low- to intermediate-probability patients with PE (sensitivity and negative predictive value of 100%). One patient in the high probability group did have a PE, even though the patient had a D-dimer value <1.2 mg/L (sensitivity and NPV both 80%). Had diagnostic testing stopped after a negative D-dimer result in the low- to intermediate-probability patients, 172 CTAs (27%) would have been avoided.

Bottom line: In a low-prevalence cohort, no pulmonary emboli were identified by CTA in any patient with a low to intermediate clinical risk assessment and a negative quantitative D-dimer assay result.

Citation: Gupta RT, Kakarla RK, Kirshenbaum KJ, Tapson VF. D-dimers and efficacy of clinical risk estimation algorithms: sensitivity in evaluation of acute pulmonary embolism. AJR Am J Roentgenol. 2009;193(2):425-430.

 

Clinical question: In patients with symptoms consistent with pulmonary embolism (PE), can evaluation with a clinical risk assessment tool and D-dimer assay identify patients who do not require CT angiography to exclude PE?

Background: D-dimer is a highly sensitive but nonspecific marker of VTE, and studies suggest that VTE can be ruled out without further imaging in patients with low clinical probability of disease and a negative D-dimer test. Nevertheless, this practice has not been adopted uniformly, and CT angiography (CTA) overuse continues.

Study design: Prospective registry cohort.

Setting: A 550-bed community teaching hospital in Chicago.

Synopsis: Consecutive patients presenting to the ED with symptoms suggestive of PE were evaluated with 1) revised Geneva score; 2) D-dimer assay; and 3) CTA. Among the 627 patients who underwent all three components of the evaluation, 44.8% were identified as low probability for PE by revised Geneva score, 52.6% as intermediate probability, and 2.6% as high probability. The overall prevalence of PE (using CTA as the gold standard) was very low (4.5%); just 2.1% of low-risk, 5.2% of intermediate-risk, and 31.2% of high-risk patients were ultimately found to have PE on CTA.

Using a cutoff of 1.2 mg/L, the D-dimer assay accurately detected all low- to intermediate-probability patients with PE (sensitivity and negative predictive value of 100%). One patient in the high probability group did have a PE, even though the patient had a D-dimer value <1.2 mg/L (sensitivity and NPV both 80%). Had diagnostic testing stopped after a negative D-dimer result in the low- to intermediate-probability patients, 172 CTAs (27%) would have been avoided.

Bottom line: In a low-prevalence cohort, no pulmonary emboli were identified by CTA in any patient with a low to intermediate clinical risk assessment and a negative quantitative D-dimer assay result.

Citation: Gupta RT, Kakarla RK, Kirshenbaum KJ, Tapson VF. D-dimers and efficacy of clinical risk estimation algorithms: sensitivity in evaluation of acute pulmonary embolism. AJR Am J Roentgenol. 2009;193(2):425-430.

 

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Patient Signout Is Not Uniformly Comprehensive and Often Lacks Critical Information

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Patient Signout Is Not Uniformly Comprehensive and Often Lacks Critical Information

Clinical question: Do signouts vary in the quality and quantity of information, and what are the various factors affecting signout quality?

Background: Miscommunication during transfers of responsibility for hospitalized patients is common and can result in harm. Recommendations for safe and effective handoffs emphasize key content, clear communication, senior staff supervision, and adequate time for questions. Still, little is known about adherence to these recommendations in clinical practice.

Study design: Prospective, observational cohort.

Setting: Medical unit of an acute-care teaching hospital.

Synopsis: Oral signouts were audiotaped among IM house staff teams and the accompanying written signouts were collected for review of content. Signout sessions (n=88) included eight IM teams at one hospital and contained 503 patient signouts.

The median signout duration was 35 seconds (IQR 19-62) per patient. Key clinical information was present in just 62% of combined written or oral signouts. Most signouts included no questions from the recipient. Factors associated with higher rate of content inclusion included: familiarity with the patient, sense of responsibility (primary team vs. covering team), only one signout per day (as compared to sequential signout), presence of a senior resident, and comprehensive, written signouts.

Study limitations include the Hawthorne effect, as several participants mentioned that the presence of audiotape led to more comprehensive signouts than are typical. Also, the signout quality assessment in this study has not been validated with patient-safety outcomes.

Bottom line: Signouts among internal-medicine residents at this one hospital showed variability in terms of quantitative and qualitative information and often missed crucial information about patient care.

Citation: Horwitz LI, Moin T, Krumholz HM, Wang L, Bradley EH. What are covering doctors told about their patients? Analysis of sign-out among internal medicine house staff. Qual Saf Health Care. 2009;18(4):248-255.

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Clinical question: Do signouts vary in the quality and quantity of information, and what are the various factors affecting signout quality?

Background: Miscommunication during transfers of responsibility for hospitalized patients is common and can result in harm. Recommendations for safe and effective handoffs emphasize key content, clear communication, senior staff supervision, and adequate time for questions. Still, little is known about adherence to these recommendations in clinical practice.

Study design: Prospective, observational cohort.

Setting: Medical unit of an acute-care teaching hospital.

Synopsis: Oral signouts were audiotaped among IM house staff teams and the accompanying written signouts were collected for review of content. Signout sessions (n=88) included eight IM teams at one hospital and contained 503 patient signouts.

The median signout duration was 35 seconds (IQR 19-62) per patient. Key clinical information was present in just 62% of combined written or oral signouts. Most signouts included no questions from the recipient. Factors associated with higher rate of content inclusion included: familiarity with the patient, sense of responsibility (primary team vs. covering team), only one signout per day (as compared to sequential signout), presence of a senior resident, and comprehensive, written signouts.

Study limitations include the Hawthorne effect, as several participants mentioned that the presence of audiotape led to more comprehensive signouts than are typical. Also, the signout quality assessment in this study has not been validated with patient-safety outcomes.

Bottom line: Signouts among internal-medicine residents at this one hospital showed variability in terms of quantitative and qualitative information and often missed crucial information about patient care.

Citation: Horwitz LI, Moin T, Krumholz HM, Wang L, Bradley EH. What are covering doctors told about their patients? Analysis of sign-out among internal medicine house staff. Qual Saf Health Care. 2009;18(4):248-255.

Clinical question: Do signouts vary in the quality and quantity of information, and what are the various factors affecting signout quality?

Background: Miscommunication during transfers of responsibility for hospitalized patients is common and can result in harm. Recommendations for safe and effective handoffs emphasize key content, clear communication, senior staff supervision, and adequate time for questions. Still, little is known about adherence to these recommendations in clinical practice.

Study design: Prospective, observational cohort.

Setting: Medical unit of an acute-care teaching hospital.

Synopsis: Oral signouts were audiotaped among IM house staff teams and the accompanying written signouts were collected for review of content. Signout sessions (n=88) included eight IM teams at one hospital and contained 503 patient signouts.

The median signout duration was 35 seconds (IQR 19-62) per patient. Key clinical information was present in just 62% of combined written or oral signouts. Most signouts included no questions from the recipient. Factors associated with higher rate of content inclusion included: familiarity with the patient, sense of responsibility (primary team vs. covering team), only one signout per day (as compared to sequential signout), presence of a senior resident, and comprehensive, written signouts.

Study limitations include the Hawthorne effect, as several participants mentioned that the presence of audiotape led to more comprehensive signouts than are typical. Also, the signout quality assessment in this study has not been validated with patient-safety outcomes.

Bottom line: Signouts among internal-medicine residents at this one hospital showed variability in terms of quantitative and qualitative information and often missed crucial information about patient care.

Citation: Horwitz LI, Moin T, Krumholz HM, Wang L, Bradley EH. What are covering doctors told about their patients? Analysis of sign-out among internal medicine house staff. Qual Saf Health Care. 2009;18(4):248-255.

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Emergency Department Signout via Voicemail Yields Mixed Reviews

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Emergency Department Signout via Voicemail Yields Mixed Reviews

Clinical question: How does traditional, oral signout from emergency providers to inpatient medicine physicians compare to dictated, voicemail signout?

Background: Communication failures contribute to errors in care transition from ED to inpatient medicine units. Signout between ED providers and internal medicine (IM) physicians is typically oral (“synchronous communication”). It is not known how dictated signout to a voicemail system (“asynchronous communication”) affects the quality and safety of handoff communications.

Study design: Prospective, pre-post analysis.

Setting: A 944-bed urban academic medical center in Connecticut.

Synopsis: Surveys were administered to all IM and ED providers before and after the implementation of a voicemail signout system. In the new system, ED providers dictated signout for stable patients, rather than giving traditional synchronous telephone signout. It was the responsibility of the admitting IM physician to listen to the voicemail after receiving a text notification that a patient was being admitted.

ED providers recorded signouts in 89.5% of medicine admissions. However, voicemails were accessed only 58.5% of the time by receiving physicians. All ED providers and 56% of IM physicians believed signout was easier following the voicemail intervention. Overall, ED providers gave the quality, content, and accuracy of their signout communication higher ratings than IM physicians did; 69% of all providers felt the interaction among participants was worse following the intervention. There was no change in the rate of perceived adverse events or ICU transfers within 24 hours after admission.

This intervention was a QI initiative at a single center. Mixed results and small sample size limit generalizability of the study.

Bottom line: Asynchronous signout by voicemail increased efficiency, particularly among ED providers but decreased perceived quality of interaction between medical providers without obviously affecting patient safety.

Citation: Horwitz LI, Parwani V, Shah NR, et al. Evaluation of an asynchronous physician voicemail sign-out for emergency department admissions. Ann Emerg Med. 2009;54:368-378.

 

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Clinical question: How does traditional, oral signout from emergency providers to inpatient medicine physicians compare to dictated, voicemail signout?

Background: Communication failures contribute to errors in care transition from ED to inpatient medicine units. Signout between ED providers and internal medicine (IM) physicians is typically oral (“synchronous communication”). It is not known how dictated signout to a voicemail system (“asynchronous communication”) affects the quality and safety of handoff communications.

Study design: Prospective, pre-post analysis.

Setting: A 944-bed urban academic medical center in Connecticut.

Synopsis: Surveys were administered to all IM and ED providers before and after the implementation of a voicemail signout system. In the new system, ED providers dictated signout for stable patients, rather than giving traditional synchronous telephone signout. It was the responsibility of the admitting IM physician to listen to the voicemail after receiving a text notification that a patient was being admitted.

ED providers recorded signouts in 89.5% of medicine admissions. However, voicemails were accessed only 58.5% of the time by receiving physicians. All ED providers and 56% of IM physicians believed signout was easier following the voicemail intervention. Overall, ED providers gave the quality, content, and accuracy of their signout communication higher ratings than IM physicians did; 69% of all providers felt the interaction among participants was worse following the intervention. There was no change in the rate of perceived adverse events or ICU transfers within 24 hours after admission.

This intervention was a QI initiative at a single center. Mixed results and small sample size limit generalizability of the study.

Bottom line: Asynchronous signout by voicemail increased efficiency, particularly among ED providers but decreased perceived quality of interaction between medical providers without obviously affecting patient safety.

Citation: Horwitz LI, Parwani V, Shah NR, et al. Evaluation of an asynchronous physician voicemail sign-out for emergency department admissions. Ann Emerg Med. 2009;54:368-378.

 

Clinical question: How does traditional, oral signout from emergency providers to inpatient medicine physicians compare to dictated, voicemail signout?

Background: Communication failures contribute to errors in care transition from ED to inpatient medicine units. Signout between ED providers and internal medicine (IM) physicians is typically oral (“synchronous communication”). It is not known how dictated signout to a voicemail system (“asynchronous communication”) affects the quality and safety of handoff communications.

Study design: Prospective, pre-post analysis.

Setting: A 944-bed urban academic medical center in Connecticut.

Synopsis: Surveys were administered to all IM and ED providers before and after the implementation of a voicemail signout system. In the new system, ED providers dictated signout for stable patients, rather than giving traditional synchronous telephone signout. It was the responsibility of the admitting IM physician to listen to the voicemail after receiving a text notification that a patient was being admitted.

ED providers recorded signouts in 89.5% of medicine admissions. However, voicemails were accessed only 58.5% of the time by receiving physicians. All ED providers and 56% of IM physicians believed signout was easier following the voicemail intervention. Overall, ED providers gave the quality, content, and accuracy of their signout communication higher ratings than IM physicians did; 69% of all providers felt the interaction among participants was worse following the intervention. There was no change in the rate of perceived adverse events or ICU transfers within 24 hours after admission.

This intervention was a QI initiative at a single center. Mixed results and small sample size limit generalizability of the study.

Bottom line: Asynchronous signout by voicemail increased efficiency, particularly among ED providers but decreased perceived quality of interaction between medical providers without obviously affecting patient safety.

Citation: Horwitz LI, Parwani V, Shah NR, et al. Evaluation of an asynchronous physician voicemail sign-out for emergency department admissions. Ann Emerg Med. 2009;54:368-378.

 

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Emergency Department “Boarding” Results in Undesirable Events

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Emergency Department “Boarding” Results in Undesirable Events

Clinical question: What is the frequency and nature of undesirable events experienced by patients who “board” in the ED?

Background: Hospital crowding results in patients spending extended amounts of time—also known as “boarding”—in the ED as they wait for an inpatient bed. Prior studies have shown that longer ED boarding times are associated with adverse outcomes. Few studies have examined the nature and frequency of undesirable events that patients experience while boarding.

Study design: Retrospective chart review.

Setting: Urban academic medical center.

Synopsis: In this pilot study, authors reviewed the charts of patients who were treated in the ED and subsequently admitted to the hospital on three different days during the study period (n=151). More than a quarter (27.8%) of patients experienced an undesirable event, such as missing a scheduled medication, while they were boarding. Older patients, those with comorbid illnesses, and those who endured prolonged boarding times (greater than six hours) were more likely to experience an undesirable event. In addition, 3.3% of patients experienced such adverse events as suboptimal blood pressure control, hypotension, hypoxia, or arrhythmia.

This study was performed at a single center and lacks a comparison group (i.e., nonboarded patients). It is intended to serve as an exploratory study for future analysis of adverse events in boarded patients.

Bottom line: Undesirable events are common among boarded patients, although it is unknown whether they are more common than in nonboarded patients.

Citation: Liu SW, Thomas SH, Gordon JA, Hamedani AG, Weissman JS. A pilot study examining undesirable events among emergency-department boarded patients awaiting inpatient beds. Ann Emerg Med. 2009;54(3):381-385.

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Clinical question: What is the frequency and nature of undesirable events experienced by patients who “board” in the ED?

Background: Hospital crowding results in patients spending extended amounts of time—also known as “boarding”—in the ED as they wait for an inpatient bed. Prior studies have shown that longer ED boarding times are associated with adverse outcomes. Few studies have examined the nature and frequency of undesirable events that patients experience while boarding.

Study design: Retrospective chart review.

Setting: Urban academic medical center.

Synopsis: In this pilot study, authors reviewed the charts of patients who were treated in the ED and subsequently admitted to the hospital on three different days during the study period (n=151). More than a quarter (27.8%) of patients experienced an undesirable event, such as missing a scheduled medication, while they were boarding. Older patients, those with comorbid illnesses, and those who endured prolonged boarding times (greater than six hours) were more likely to experience an undesirable event. In addition, 3.3% of patients experienced such adverse events as suboptimal blood pressure control, hypotension, hypoxia, or arrhythmia.

This study was performed at a single center and lacks a comparison group (i.e., nonboarded patients). It is intended to serve as an exploratory study for future analysis of adverse events in boarded patients.

Bottom line: Undesirable events are common among boarded patients, although it is unknown whether they are more common than in nonboarded patients.

Citation: Liu SW, Thomas SH, Gordon JA, Hamedani AG, Weissman JS. A pilot study examining undesirable events among emergency-department boarded patients awaiting inpatient beds. Ann Emerg Med. 2009;54(3):381-385.

Clinical question: What is the frequency and nature of undesirable events experienced by patients who “board” in the ED?

Background: Hospital crowding results in patients spending extended amounts of time—also known as “boarding”—in the ED as they wait for an inpatient bed. Prior studies have shown that longer ED boarding times are associated with adverse outcomes. Few studies have examined the nature and frequency of undesirable events that patients experience while boarding.

Study design: Retrospective chart review.

Setting: Urban academic medical center.

Synopsis: In this pilot study, authors reviewed the charts of patients who were treated in the ED and subsequently admitted to the hospital on three different days during the study period (n=151). More than a quarter (27.8%) of patients experienced an undesirable event, such as missing a scheduled medication, while they were boarding. Older patients, those with comorbid illnesses, and those who endured prolonged boarding times (greater than six hours) were more likely to experience an undesirable event. In addition, 3.3% of patients experienced such adverse events as suboptimal blood pressure control, hypotension, hypoxia, or arrhythmia.

This study was performed at a single center and lacks a comparison group (i.e., nonboarded patients). It is intended to serve as an exploratory study for future analysis of adverse events in boarded patients.

Bottom line: Undesirable events are common among boarded patients, although it is unknown whether they are more common than in nonboarded patients.

Citation: Liu SW, Thomas SH, Gordon JA, Hamedani AG, Weissman JS. A pilot study examining undesirable events among emergency-department boarded patients awaiting inpatient beds. Ann Emerg Med. 2009;54(3):381-385.

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Decreased ICU Duty Hours Does Not Affect Patient Mortality

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Decreased ICU Duty Hours Does Not Affect Patient Mortality

Clinical question: Does the reduction in work hours for residents affect mortality in medical and surgical ICUs?

Background: A reduction in work hours for residents was enforced in July 2003. Several prior studies using administrative or claims data did not show an association of the reduced work hours for residents with mortality in teaching hospitals when compared with nonteaching hospitals.

Study design: Observational retrospective registry cohort.

Setting: Twelve academic, 12 community, and 16 nonteaching hospitals in the U.S.

Synopsis: Data from 230,151 patients were extracted as post-hoc analysis from a voluntary clinical registry that uses a well-validated severity-of-illness scoring system. The exposure was defined as date of admission to ICU within two years before and after the reform. Hospitals were categorized as academic, community with residents, or nonteaching. Sophisticated statistical analyses were performed, including interaction terms for teaching status and time. To test the effect the reduced work hours had on mortality, the mortality trends of academic hospitals and community hospitals with residents were compared with the baseline trend of nonteaching hospitals. After risk adjustments, all hospitals had improved in-hospital and ICU mortality after the reform. None of the statistical improvements were significantly different.

Study limitations include the selection bias, as only highly motivated hospitals participating in the registry were included, and misclassification bias, as not all hospitals implemented the reform at the same time. Nevertheless, this study supports the consistent literature on the topic and adds a more robust assessment of severity of illness.

Bottom line: The restriction on resident duty hours does not appear to affect patient mortality.

Citation: Prasad M, Iwashyna TJ, Christie JD, et al. Effect of work-hours regulations on intensive care unit mortality in United States teaching hospitals. Crit Care Med. 2009;37(9):2564-2569.

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Clinical question: Does the reduction in work hours for residents affect mortality in medical and surgical ICUs?

Background: A reduction in work hours for residents was enforced in July 2003. Several prior studies using administrative or claims data did not show an association of the reduced work hours for residents with mortality in teaching hospitals when compared with nonteaching hospitals.

Study design: Observational retrospective registry cohort.

Setting: Twelve academic, 12 community, and 16 nonteaching hospitals in the U.S.

Synopsis: Data from 230,151 patients were extracted as post-hoc analysis from a voluntary clinical registry that uses a well-validated severity-of-illness scoring system. The exposure was defined as date of admission to ICU within two years before and after the reform. Hospitals were categorized as academic, community with residents, or nonteaching. Sophisticated statistical analyses were performed, including interaction terms for teaching status and time. To test the effect the reduced work hours had on mortality, the mortality trends of academic hospitals and community hospitals with residents were compared with the baseline trend of nonteaching hospitals. After risk adjustments, all hospitals had improved in-hospital and ICU mortality after the reform. None of the statistical improvements were significantly different.

Study limitations include the selection bias, as only highly motivated hospitals participating in the registry were included, and misclassification bias, as not all hospitals implemented the reform at the same time. Nevertheless, this study supports the consistent literature on the topic and adds a more robust assessment of severity of illness.

Bottom line: The restriction on resident duty hours does not appear to affect patient mortality.

Citation: Prasad M, Iwashyna TJ, Christie JD, et al. Effect of work-hours regulations on intensive care unit mortality in United States teaching hospitals. Crit Care Med. 2009;37(9):2564-2569.

Clinical question: Does the reduction in work hours for residents affect mortality in medical and surgical ICUs?

Background: A reduction in work hours for residents was enforced in July 2003. Several prior studies using administrative or claims data did not show an association of the reduced work hours for residents with mortality in teaching hospitals when compared with nonteaching hospitals.

Study design: Observational retrospective registry cohort.

Setting: Twelve academic, 12 community, and 16 nonteaching hospitals in the U.S.

Synopsis: Data from 230,151 patients were extracted as post-hoc analysis from a voluntary clinical registry that uses a well-validated severity-of-illness scoring system. The exposure was defined as date of admission to ICU within two years before and after the reform. Hospitals were categorized as academic, community with residents, or nonteaching. Sophisticated statistical analyses were performed, including interaction terms for teaching status and time. To test the effect the reduced work hours had on mortality, the mortality trends of academic hospitals and community hospitals with residents were compared with the baseline trend of nonteaching hospitals. After risk adjustments, all hospitals had improved in-hospital and ICU mortality after the reform. None of the statistical improvements were significantly different.

Study limitations include the selection bias, as only highly motivated hospitals participating in the registry were included, and misclassification bias, as not all hospitals implemented the reform at the same time. Nevertheless, this study supports the consistent literature on the topic and adds a more robust assessment of severity of illness.

Bottom line: The restriction on resident duty hours does not appear to affect patient mortality.

Citation: Prasad M, Iwashyna TJ, Christie JD, et al. Effect of work-hours regulations on intensive care unit mortality in United States teaching hospitals. Crit Care Med. 2009;37(9):2564-2569.

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Bigger Than His Bite

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Bigger than his bite

A 58‐year‐old male presented to a local community hospital emergency department with fever and altered mental status. Earlier in the day he had complained of chills, swollen tongue, numbness and tingling in his extremities with associated burning pain, and generalized weakness. En route to the emergency department, he was extremely agitated and moving uncontrollably. On arrival, he was noted to be in respiratory distress and was intubated for hypoxic respiratory failure. He was subsequently transferred to an academic medical center, and in transit was noted to have sustained supraventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 160 beats per minute.

Although the differential for altered mental status is broad, associated fever limits the main diagnostic considerations to infectious, toxic, and some inflammatory disorders. Confusion and fever are most concerning for a central nervous system infection, either meningitis or encephalitis. Sepsis from a broader range of infectious etiologies may also present with these symptoms. His respiratory failure could represent acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) due to sepsis, aspiration, or a manifestation of a multisystem inflammatory disease.

He did not have any significant past medical or surgical history. Three days before his initial presentation, the patient was bitten on the left hand and forearm while breaking up a dogfight. The dogs that bit him belonged to his son, but were unvaccinated. He did not seek medical attention and it was unclear how he treated his wounds at home.

Dogs may serve as vectors for a number of zoonoses. Species of both Pasteurella and Capnocytophaga may cause sepsis and rarely meningitis as a consequence of dog bites. The incubation period of 3 days, though brief, does not exclude either infection. Rabies encephalitis is also possible, particularly given the dogs' unvaccinated status. However, the typical incubation period for rabies is on the order of months, and a 3‐day interval from inoculation to symptoms would be highly unusual. Although other explanations for his symptoms are more likely, he should still be considered for vaccination and rabies immune globulin. The dogs should be observed for clinical manifestations of rabies. Despite the patient's history of dog bite, a broad differential diagnosis must be maintained.

The patient lived in Michigan and worked in a chemical factory driving equipment without any hazardous exposures. He did not have any allergies. He drank 6 beers per day; he did not smoke cigarettes and had no history of illicit drug use. He was single and had 4 adult children.

His history of heavy alcohol consumption raises several additional possibilities. Delirium tremens, alcohol withdrawal seizures, or hepatic encephalopathy as a consequence of alcoholic cirrhosis are both potential contributors to his presentation. Furthermore, the physiologic signs of alcohol withdrawal are similar to many critical illnesses, which may present a diagnostic challenge. The patient's history of employment at a chemical factory is intriguing, though the details of any potential occupational exposures are unknown. Carbon monoxide poisoning can present with altered mental status and agitation, whereas anticholinergic toxicity can present with fever, tachycardia, and altered mental status; however, there is no obvious source of exposure to either.

On physical examination, the patient was intubated with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 11 without sedation; serial examinations revealed a fluctuating level of consciousness. His temperature was 38.1C, heart rate was 158 beats per minute, and blood pressure was 93/68 mm Hg. Mechanical ventilation was provided with assist control mode, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, tidal volume 466 mL, and positive end expiratory pressure of 20 cm of water. His oxygen saturation was 81% on 100% oxygen. Examination of his neck exhibited a large left neck hematoma from the unsuccessful placement of an external jugular intravenous catheter. Pupils were 4 mm in diameter and minimally reactive. There was no scleral icterus. Cardiac exam revealed tachycardia and regular rhythm without murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Lung exam was significant for bilateral rhonchi and minimal tracheal secretions. Extremity exam revealed 0.25 to 1.5 cm in diameter puncture bite marks with abrasions on his left third and fourth upper extremity digits as well as on his left forearm. Skin exam was diffusely cool with a mottled appearance. Neurologic exam revealed absent deep tendon reflexes throughout and apparent flaccid paralysis of all 4 extremities. Examination of the abdomen, lymph nodes, mouth, and throat were unremarkable.

The shock associated with sepsis is typically distributive, with intense vasodilation that classically leads to warm extremities. His mottled, cool extremities raise concern for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which can be seen in patients with septic shock, particularly cases caused by meningococcal disease and Capnocytophaga infections. His neurologic examination is typical of lower motor neuron disease, although acute upper motor neuron lesions can also be associated with hyporeflexia. Rabies can manifest as flaccid paralysis, but this would classically predate the mental status changes. Rabies remains a consideration, albeit a less likely one. Zoonoses, particularly Capnocytophaga and Pasteurella, are possible; however, a thorough search for other infections leading to sepsis is still indicated. His lung findings suggest severe ARDS.

The white blood cell count was 5,900/mm3, with 91% neutrophils, 6.6% lymphocytes, and 0.5% monocytes. The hemoglobin level was 13.0 g/dL, and the platelet count was 12,000/mm3. The fibrinogen level was 89 mg/dL (normal range 200400 mg/dL), international normalized ratio and partial‐thromboplastin time were 4.6 (normal range 0.8 to 1.1) and greater than 120.0 seconds (normal range 2535 seconds), respectively. Lactate dehydrogenase level was 698 IU/L (normal 120240 IU/L), and haptoglobin was 54 mg/dL (normal 41165 mg/dL). Serum sodium was 136 mmol/L, potassium 4.6 mmol/L, chloride 101 mmol/L, bicarbonate 16 mmol/L, blood urea nitrogen 29 mg/dL, creatinine 2.28 mg/dL, glucose 123 mg/dL, calcium 7.0 mg/dL, magnesium 1.7 mg/dL, and phosphorus 7.2 mg/dL. Total protein was 4.3 g/dL (normal 6.08.3 g/dL), albumin 2.5 g/dL (normal 3.54.9 g/dL), total bilirubin 2.3 mg/dL (normal 0.21.2 mg/dL), aspartate aminotransferase 71 IU/L (normal 830 IU/L), alanine aminotransferase 29 IU/L (normal 735 IU/L), and alkaline phosphatase 107 IU/L (normal 30130 IU/L). The serum troponin‐I level was 0.76 ng/mL, creatine phosphokinase 397 ng/mL, and creatine kinase‐myocardial band 3.5 ng/mL. Initial arterial blood gas analysis revealed a pH of 7.00, pCO2 57 mm Hg, pO2 98 mm Hg, and a lactic acid of 6.5 mmol/L (normal 0.52.2 mmol/L).

The patient has a normal absolute white blood cell count in the setting of septic shock. He has a relative neutrophilia and a marked leukopenia, both of which can be seen in overwhelming infections. The patient's arterial blood gas analysis indicates he has a mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis. The normal physiologic response to metabolic acidosis is to increase minute ventilation and induce a compensatory respiratory alkalosis. His concomitant respiratory acidosis in the face of mechanical ventilation and presumed adequate minute ventilation suggests severely impaired alveolar gas exchange, most likely from ARDS. He has numerous other metabolic abnormalities, including acute kidney injury, DIC, and hemolytic anemia, all of which may be seen with severe bacterial infections or septic shock. Neisseria meningitidis and other gram‐negative infections would be of particular concern in this case. The combination of fever, altered mental status, thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, and renal failure could be consistent with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. However, the prolonged coagulation studies are much more consistent with DIC.

Intravenous antimicrobials were administered including ceftriaxone (initiated in the emergency department of the transferring hospital), ampicillin, vancomycin, piperacillin/tazobactam, clindamycin, metronidazole, doxycycline, and acyclovir. He received tetanus and rabies vaccines as well as tetanus and rabies immune globulin. The patient was given aggressive intravenous crystalloid fluids with minimal response in blood pressure. Intravenous norepinephrine was initiated to maintain a mean arterial pressure above 65 mm Hg. A plain chest radiograph (Figure 1) revealed perihilar airspace opacities. Head computed tomography without contrast revealed global cerebral volume loss greater than expected for the patient's age; no evidence of intracranial hemorrhage, mass effect, or edema; and proptosis of the eyes with adjacent preseptal soft tissue swelling without evidence of retrobulbar hemorrhage or vascular engorgement. Ultrasound of the left neck hematoma was negative for pulsatile mass. Electrocardiogram (ECG) revealed sinus tachycardia without evidence of ischemic changes. A bedside transthoracic echocardiogram showed hyperdynamic changes without evidence of hypokinesis but with inspiratory collapse of the inferior vena cava. Abdominal ultrasound was normal. Plain radiographs of the left hand (Figure 2) identified only mild soft tissue swelling over the dorsum of the hand. An ultrasound of the left hand and left forearm did not identify any abnormal fluid collection. A dialysis catheter was placed after the patient received platelets and fresh frozen plasma for initiation of continuous renal replacement therapy.

Figure 1
Plain radiograph of the chest on presentation that revealed perihilar airspace opacities, which likely represented moderate to severe pulmonary edema.
Figure 2
Plain radiograph of the left hand that demonstrated mild soft tissue swelling over the dorsum of the hand.

Given this patient's fulminant presentation, he was appropriately started on a very broad anti‐infective regimen. Although fungal infections are less likely, his current antimicrobial regimen lacks antifungal coverage. His finding of proptosis raises concern for mucormycosis, although the time course and clinical presentation are somewhat atypical. Because of the severity of his presentation, initiation of amphotericin B could be considered if he fails to quickly respond to the current regimen. There is no known effective treatment for rabies. Thus, if his presentation is due to rabies encephalitis, rabies vaccine and immunoglobulin will not be effective at treating active rabies infection. However, given his exposure history and the dogs' unvaccinated status, postexposure prophylaxis was appropriate to prevent future development of rabies. The inspiratory collapse and hyperdynamic ventricular response seen on his bedside echocardiogram is consistent with decreased effective circulating volume from sepsis or severe hypovolemia rather than acute heart failure.

Less than 36 hours after admission (60 hours after his symptoms began), the patient's oxygenation status had not improved. He developed diffuse cutaneous purpura with hemorrhagic bullae. Liver, renal, and cardiac function markers were all markedly abnormal. All cultures from the transferring hospital, collected before antibiotics were initiated, were negative to date. However, Gram stain of blood cultures performed at the academic medical center revealed possible gram‐negative rods. The patient remained unresponsive without sedation. ECG revealed evidence of inferior and anterolateral ischemia. The patient's family was informed of his persistently deteriorating condition and elected to pursue comfort measures. Two hours later the patient expired. The family agreed to an autopsy.

This patient succumbed to overwhelming sepsis and multiorgan failure. Although the etiologic pathogen is not immediately clear, several clues point to a likely unifying diagnosis. First, he has a history of a recent dog bite with minimal local evidence of infection. Second, he presented with fulminant sepsis with DIC, hemolytic anemia, and diffuse mottling that progressed to purpura fulminans. Third, a possible gram‐negative rod was isolated on blood Gram stain. Fourth, he has a history of heavy alcohol use. For these reasons, Capnocytophaga canimorsus is the most likely underlying etiology. C canimorsus is a fastidious gram‐negative coccobacillus that is an uncommon cause of fulminant sepsis in patients with dog bites. It is difficult to isolate due to culture growth requirements, which may explain the negative blood cultures in this case. Patients with alcoholism are predisposed to fulminant sepsis from C canimorsus, which often presents with hepatic and renal failure. The myocardial ischemia may be secondary to the metabolic and thrombotic complications of sepsis.

On autopsy, there was purpura fulminans involving over 90% of the total body surface area as well as skin slippage and loose bullae of greater than 75% of the total body surface area. There was infarction of the kidneys, liver, spleen, and adrenal glands as well as focal contraction bands of necrosis of the myocardium. The lungs showed diffuse alveolar damage. There was hemorrhage, edema, and necrosis seen in sections taken from the puncture wounds. Following the patient's death, it was reported by the transferring institution that C canimorsus was identified from 2 of 2 antemortem blood cultures, and pan‐sensitive Acinetobacter lwoffii in 1 of 2 blood cultures, though no sensitivities were performed on the C canimorsus isolate. In addition, antemortem cultures obtained at the academic medical center identified Capnocytophaga species in 1 of 2 peripheral blood culture specimens; sensitivities were not performed. Autopsy determined the cause of death in this patient to be septic complications of dog bite.

COMMENTARY

Dog bites are frequent, with over 12,000 occurring daily in the United States; of these, approximately 20% require medical attention.[1] Although most patients rapidly recover with conservative management, even initially benign‐appearing injuries can lead to long‐term morbidity or death. The hands are most often affected and are associated with more frequent need for both antibiotics and surgical intervention.[2, 3] The severity of injury does not correlate with subsequent infections.[3]

Management of dog bite injuries includes careful wound management. All patients with moderate to severe injury should be assessed within 48 hours by physical examination and radiography to assess the degree of injury and any associated nerve, tendon, joint, or bone damage. If there is concern for rabies based on history or vaccination status of the animal, prompt irrigation and debridement is crucial. Antimicrobial prophylaxis, typically with amoxicillinclavulanate, should be given to high‐risk patients, such as those with cirrhosis, asplenia, or other immunosuppressing conditions.[4] Most infections are caused by Pasteurella and Bacteroides, whereas Capnocytophaga may cause severe disease, particularly in patients with immunosuppression or excessive alcohol intake.[5] This patient was at increased risk of infection due to his late presentation following the initial bite and consequent delayed wound care, injury to the hand, and his history of alcoholism.[4]

Several members of the genus Capnocytophaga have been found in the oral cavities of both humans and canines. C canimorsus, found only in canine or feline oral cavities, is the only member of the genus known to cause human disease.[6] It is a fastidious gram‐negative rod requiring an environment enriched with carbon dioxide, making it notoriously difficult to isolate. Cultures typically do not show growth for 5 to 7 days; thus, it is not surprising all cultures were initially negative in this case.[4, 7] C canimorsus is a well‐described cause of sepsis related to dog bites, with some cases bearing similarity to fulminant meningococcal disease.[8] Severe illness typically occurs in immunosuppressed patients, particularly those with asplenia or cirrhosis.[9, 10] The pathophysiology of fulminant C canimorsus infections is not well described. It has been suggested that certain strains may produce a toxin that inhibits macrophages and inactivates tumor necrosis factor in humans, although this is not yet widely accepted.[11] Treatment of C canimorsus involves early administration of effective antimicrobials, supportive care, and standard management of the bite injury. C canimorsus is susceptible to several classes of antibiotics; ‐lactams, such as penicillin derivatives and cephalosporins, and potentiated sulphonamides, such as trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, typically have the best in vitro activity.[12] As illustrated in this case, even with prompt, effective antibiotic administration, C canimorsus infection can progress to DIC, multisystem organ failure, and death.[9]

A lwoffii was also identified, but was almost certainly a contaminant. It is a gram‐negative bacillus that is widely distributed throughout the environment. Commonly found on human skin and within the human oropharynx, it rarely causes human disease. Clinical manifestations of infection with A lwoffii are typically mild, and include superficial skin and soft tissue infection, urinary tract infection, and rarely bacteremia. Because of the severe presentation in this case and the compelling alternative explanation of C canimorsus, A lwoffii was almost certainly a contaminant.

Rabies was an intriguing possibility in this case given the unvaccinated status of the dogs and the patient's prominent neurologic findings. Clinicians must consider the possibility of rabies in any patient with a bite injury from an unvaccinated dog. However, rabies remains extremely rare in the developed world as a result of the overwhelming success of animal vaccination and postexposure prophylaxis. Furthermore, rabies typically has an incubation period of several months. If rabies had caused this patient's presentation, rabies immunoglobulin would have been ineffective. Nevertheless, rabies prophylaxis with rabies immunoglobulin and vaccination is appropriate to prevent subsequent disease unless rabies infection can be definitively excluded.[13]

This patient presented with septic shock, DIC, and multisystem organ failure after a dog bite. The discussant quickly recognized the propensity of Capnocytophaga to cause this constellation of findings in alcoholic patients after dog bites. This patient did not have cirrhosis or asplenia, both of which are known risk factors for C canimorsus infection; however, the fulminant presentation made C canimorsus a necessary consideration. Ultimately, the dramatic nature of the patient's presentation combined with his history of heavy alcohol intake led the discussant to the correct diagnosis of septic shock secondary to C canimorsus infection complicating a benign‐appearing dog bite. Clinicians caring for patients who present with sepsis after a recent dog bite should consider C canimorsus, remembering that on occasion, a dog's bark may not be bigger than his bite.

TEACHING POINTS

  1. The initial management of moderate or severe dog‐bite injuries includes careful wound assessment and radiography to exclude any associated bone, nerve, joint, or tendon injury.
  2. Immunosuppressed patients with dog bites, including those with cirrhosis or asplenia, should receive amoxicillin/clavulanate prophylaxis.
  3. C canimorsus is a fastidious gram‐negative bacillus that may cause fulminant sepsis after dog bites. It is associated with DIC, purpura fulminans, and multisystem organ failure.
  4. ‐lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin derivatives or cephalosporins, or sulphonamides, are the treatment of choice for C canimorsus.

Disclosure

Nothing to report.

Files
References
  1. Gilchrist J, Sacks JJ, White D, Kresnow MJ. Dog bites: still a problem? Injury Prev. 2008;14(5):296301.
  2. Pfortmueller CA, Efeoglou A, Furrer H, Exadaktylos AK. Dog bite injuries: primary and secondary emergency department presentations—a retrospective cohort study. ScientificWorldJournal. 2013;2013:393176.
  3. Akingba AG, Robinson EA, Jester AL, et al. Management of vascular trauma from dog bites. J Vascular Surg. 2013;58(5):13461352.
  4. Morgan M, Palmer J. Dog bites. BMJ. 2007;334(7590):413417.
  5. Hermann CK, Hansen PB, Bangsborg JM, Pers C. Bacterial infections as complications of dog bites [in Danish]. Ugeskrift Laeger. 1998;160(34):48604863.
  6. Oehler RL, Velez AP, Mizrachi M, Lamarche J, Gompf S. Bite‐related and septic syndromes caused by cats and dogs. Lancet Infect Dis. 2009;9(7):439447.
  7. Talan DA, Citron DM, Abrahamian FM, Moran GJ, Goldstein EJ. Bacteriologic analysis of infected dog and cat bites. Emergency Medicine Animal Bite Infection Study Group. N Engl J Med. 1999;340(2):8592.
  8. Janda JM, Graves MH, Lindquist D, Probert WS. Diagnosing Capnocytophaga canimorsus infections. Emerg Infect Dis. 2006;12(2):340342.
  9. Pers C, Gahrn‐Hansen B, Frederiksen W. Capnocytophaga canimorsus septicemia in Denmark, 1982–1995: review of 39 cases. Clinical Infect Dis. 1996;23(1):7175.
  10. Szabo G. Consequences of alcohol consumption on host defence. Alcohol Alcohol. 1999;34(6):830841.
  11. Dam AP, Weert A, Harmanus C, Hovius KE, Claas EC, Reubsaet FA. Molecular characterization of Capnocytophaga canimorsus and other canine Capnocytophaga spp. and assessment by PCR of their frequencies in dogs. J Clin Microbiol. 2009;47(10):32183225.
  12. Meyers B, Schoeman JP, Goddard A, Picard J. The bacteriology and antimicrobial susceptibility of infected and non‐infected dog bite wounds: fifty cases. Vet Microbiol. 2008;127(3‐4):360368.
  13. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Human rabies—Alabama, Tennessee, and Texas, 1994. Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report; 1995. Available at: http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/00036736.htm. Accessed March 1, 2014.
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A 58‐year‐old male presented to a local community hospital emergency department with fever and altered mental status. Earlier in the day he had complained of chills, swollen tongue, numbness and tingling in his extremities with associated burning pain, and generalized weakness. En route to the emergency department, he was extremely agitated and moving uncontrollably. On arrival, he was noted to be in respiratory distress and was intubated for hypoxic respiratory failure. He was subsequently transferred to an academic medical center, and in transit was noted to have sustained supraventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 160 beats per minute.

Although the differential for altered mental status is broad, associated fever limits the main diagnostic considerations to infectious, toxic, and some inflammatory disorders. Confusion and fever are most concerning for a central nervous system infection, either meningitis or encephalitis. Sepsis from a broader range of infectious etiologies may also present with these symptoms. His respiratory failure could represent acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) due to sepsis, aspiration, or a manifestation of a multisystem inflammatory disease.

He did not have any significant past medical or surgical history. Three days before his initial presentation, the patient was bitten on the left hand and forearm while breaking up a dogfight. The dogs that bit him belonged to his son, but were unvaccinated. He did not seek medical attention and it was unclear how he treated his wounds at home.

Dogs may serve as vectors for a number of zoonoses. Species of both Pasteurella and Capnocytophaga may cause sepsis and rarely meningitis as a consequence of dog bites. The incubation period of 3 days, though brief, does not exclude either infection. Rabies encephalitis is also possible, particularly given the dogs' unvaccinated status. However, the typical incubation period for rabies is on the order of months, and a 3‐day interval from inoculation to symptoms would be highly unusual. Although other explanations for his symptoms are more likely, he should still be considered for vaccination and rabies immune globulin. The dogs should be observed for clinical manifestations of rabies. Despite the patient's history of dog bite, a broad differential diagnosis must be maintained.

The patient lived in Michigan and worked in a chemical factory driving equipment without any hazardous exposures. He did not have any allergies. He drank 6 beers per day; he did not smoke cigarettes and had no history of illicit drug use. He was single and had 4 adult children.

His history of heavy alcohol consumption raises several additional possibilities. Delirium tremens, alcohol withdrawal seizures, or hepatic encephalopathy as a consequence of alcoholic cirrhosis are both potential contributors to his presentation. Furthermore, the physiologic signs of alcohol withdrawal are similar to many critical illnesses, which may present a diagnostic challenge. The patient's history of employment at a chemical factory is intriguing, though the details of any potential occupational exposures are unknown. Carbon monoxide poisoning can present with altered mental status and agitation, whereas anticholinergic toxicity can present with fever, tachycardia, and altered mental status; however, there is no obvious source of exposure to either.

On physical examination, the patient was intubated with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 11 without sedation; serial examinations revealed a fluctuating level of consciousness. His temperature was 38.1C, heart rate was 158 beats per minute, and blood pressure was 93/68 mm Hg. Mechanical ventilation was provided with assist control mode, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, tidal volume 466 mL, and positive end expiratory pressure of 20 cm of water. His oxygen saturation was 81% on 100% oxygen. Examination of his neck exhibited a large left neck hematoma from the unsuccessful placement of an external jugular intravenous catheter. Pupils were 4 mm in diameter and minimally reactive. There was no scleral icterus. Cardiac exam revealed tachycardia and regular rhythm without murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Lung exam was significant for bilateral rhonchi and minimal tracheal secretions. Extremity exam revealed 0.25 to 1.5 cm in diameter puncture bite marks with abrasions on his left third and fourth upper extremity digits as well as on his left forearm. Skin exam was diffusely cool with a mottled appearance. Neurologic exam revealed absent deep tendon reflexes throughout and apparent flaccid paralysis of all 4 extremities. Examination of the abdomen, lymph nodes, mouth, and throat were unremarkable.

The shock associated with sepsis is typically distributive, with intense vasodilation that classically leads to warm extremities. His mottled, cool extremities raise concern for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which can be seen in patients with septic shock, particularly cases caused by meningococcal disease and Capnocytophaga infections. His neurologic examination is typical of lower motor neuron disease, although acute upper motor neuron lesions can also be associated with hyporeflexia. Rabies can manifest as flaccid paralysis, but this would classically predate the mental status changes. Rabies remains a consideration, albeit a less likely one. Zoonoses, particularly Capnocytophaga and Pasteurella, are possible; however, a thorough search for other infections leading to sepsis is still indicated. His lung findings suggest severe ARDS.

The white blood cell count was 5,900/mm3, with 91% neutrophils, 6.6% lymphocytes, and 0.5% monocytes. The hemoglobin level was 13.0 g/dL, and the platelet count was 12,000/mm3. The fibrinogen level was 89 mg/dL (normal range 200400 mg/dL), international normalized ratio and partial‐thromboplastin time were 4.6 (normal range 0.8 to 1.1) and greater than 120.0 seconds (normal range 2535 seconds), respectively. Lactate dehydrogenase level was 698 IU/L (normal 120240 IU/L), and haptoglobin was 54 mg/dL (normal 41165 mg/dL). Serum sodium was 136 mmol/L, potassium 4.6 mmol/L, chloride 101 mmol/L, bicarbonate 16 mmol/L, blood urea nitrogen 29 mg/dL, creatinine 2.28 mg/dL, glucose 123 mg/dL, calcium 7.0 mg/dL, magnesium 1.7 mg/dL, and phosphorus 7.2 mg/dL. Total protein was 4.3 g/dL (normal 6.08.3 g/dL), albumin 2.5 g/dL (normal 3.54.9 g/dL), total bilirubin 2.3 mg/dL (normal 0.21.2 mg/dL), aspartate aminotransferase 71 IU/L (normal 830 IU/L), alanine aminotransferase 29 IU/L (normal 735 IU/L), and alkaline phosphatase 107 IU/L (normal 30130 IU/L). The serum troponin‐I level was 0.76 ng/mL, creatine phosphokinase 397 ng/mL, and creatine kinase‐myocardial band 3.5 ng/mL. Initial arterial blood gas analysis revealed a pH of 7.00, pCO2 57 mm Hg, pO2 98 mm Hg, and a lactic acid of 6.5 mmol/L (normal 0.52.2 mmol/L).

The patient has a normal absolute white blood cell count in the setting of septic shock. He has a relative neutrophilia and a marked leukopenia, both of which can be seen in overwhelming infections. The patient's arterial blood gas analysis indicates he has a mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis. The normal physiologic response to metabolic acidosis is to increase minute ventilation and induce a compensatory respiratory alkalosis. His concomitant respiratory acidosis in the face of mechanical ventilation and presumed adequate minute ventilation suggests severely impaired alveolar gas exchange, most likely from ARDS. He has numerous other metabolic abnormalities, including acute kidney injury, DIC, and hemolytic anemia, all of which may be seen with severe bacterial infections or septic shock. Neisseria meningitidis and other gram‐negative infections would be of particular concern in this case. The combination of fever, altered mental status, thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, and renal failure could be consistent with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. However, the prolonged coagulation studies are much more consistent with DIC.

Intravenous antimicrobials were administered including ceftriaxone (initiated in the emergency department of the transferring hospital), ampicillin, vancomycin, piperacillin/tazobactam, clindamycin, metronidazole, doxycycline, and acyclovir. He received tetanus and rabies vaccines as well as tetanus and rabies immune globulin. The patient was given aggressive intravenous crystalloid fluids with minimal response in blood pressure. Intravenous norepinephrine was initiated to maintain a mean arterial pressure above 65 mm Hg. A plain chest radiograph (Figure 1) revealed perihilar airspace opacities. Head computed tomography without contrast revealed global cerebral volume loss greater than expected for the patient's age; no evidence of intracranial hemorrhage, mass effect, or edema; and proptosis of the eyes with adjacent preseptal soft tissue swelling without evidence of retrobulbar hemorrhage or vascular engorgement. Ultrasound of the left neck hematoma was negative for pulsatile mass. Electrocardiogram (ECG) revealed sinus tachycardia without evidence of ischemic changes. A bedside transthoracic echocardiogram showed hyperdynamic changes without evidence of hypokinesis but with inspiratory collapse of the inferior vena cava. Abdominal ultrasound was normal. Plain radiographs of the left hand (Figure 2) identified only mild soft tissue swelling over the dorsum of the hand. An ultrasound of the left hand and left forearm did not identify any abnormal fluid collection. A dialysis catheter was placed after the patient received platelets and fresh frozen plasma for initiation of continuous renal replacement therapy.

Figure 1
Plain radiograph of the chest on presentation that revealed perihilar airspace opacities, which likely represented moderate to severe pulmonary edema.
Figure 2
Plain radiograph of the left hand that demonstrated mild soft tissue swelling over the dorsum of the hand.

Given this patient's fulminant presentation, he was appropriately started on a very broad anti‐infective regimen. Although fungal infections are less likely, his current antimicrobial regimen lacks antifungal coverage. His finding of proptosis raises concern for mucormycosis, although the time course and clinical presentation are somewhat atypical. Because of the severity of his presentation, initiation of amphotericin B could be considered if he fails to quickly respond to the current regimen. There is no known effective treatment for rabies. Thus, if his presentation is due to rabies encephalitis, rabies vaccine and immunoglobulin will not be effective at treating active rabies infection. However, given his exposure history and the dogs' unvaccinated status, postexposure prophylaxis was appropriate to prevent future development of rabies. The inspiratory collapse and hyperdynamic ventricular response seen on his bedside echocardiogram is consistent with decreased effective circulating volume from sepsis or severe hypovolemia rather than acute heart failure.

Less than 36 hours after admission (60 hours after his symptoms began), the patient's oxygenation status had not improved. He developed diffuse cutaneous purpura with hemorrhagic bullae. Liver, renal, and cardiac function markers were all markedly abnormal. All cultures from the transferring hospital, collected before antibiotics were initiated, were negative to date. However, Gram stain of blood cultures performed at the academic medical center revealed possible gram‐negative rods. The patient remained unresponsive without sedation. ECG revealed evidence of inferior and anterolateral ischemia. The patient's family was informed of his persistently deteriorating condition and elected to pursue comfort measures. Two hours later the patient expired. The family agreed to an autopsy.

This patient succumbed to overwhelming sepsis and multiorgan failure. Although the etiologic pathogen is not immediately clear, several clues point to a likely unifying diagnosis. First, he has a history of a recent dog bite with minimal local evidence of infection. Second, he presented with fulminant sepsis with DIC, hemolytic anemia, and diffuse mottling that progressed to purpura fulminans. Third, a possible gram‐negative rod was isolated on blood Gram stain. Fourth, he has a history of heavy alcohol use. For these reasons, Capnocytophaga canimorsus is the most likely underlying etiology. C canimorsus is a fastidious gram‐negative coccobacillus that is an uncommon cause of fulminant sepsis in patients with dog bites. It is difficult to isolate due to culture growth requirements, which may explain the negative blood cultures in this case. Patients with alcoholism are predisposed to fulminant sepsis from C canimorsus, which often presents with hepatic and renal failure. The myocardial ischemia may be secondary to the metabolic and thrombotic complications of sepsis.

On autopsy, there was purpura fulminans involving over 90% of the total body surface area as well as skin slippage and loose bullae of greater than 75% of the total body surface area. There was infarction of the kidneys, liver, spleen, and adrenal glands as well as focal contraction bands of necrosis of the myocardium. The lungs showed diffuse alveolar damage. There was hemorrhage, edema, and necrosis seen in sections taken from the puncture wounds. Following the patient's death, it was reported by the transferring institution that C canimorsus was identified from 2 of 2 antemortem blood cultures, and pan‐sensitive Acinetobacter lwoffii in 1 of 2 blood cultures, though no sensitivities were performed on the C canimorsus isolate. In addition, antemortem cultures obtained at the academic medical center identified Capnocytophaga species in 1 of 2 peripheral blood culture specimens; sensitivities were not performed. Autopsy determined the cause of death in this patient to be septic complications of dog bite.

COMMENTARY

Dog bites are frequent, with over 12,000 occurring daily in the United States; of these, approximately 20% require medical attention.[1] Although most patients rapidly recover with conservative management, even initially benign‐appearing injuries can lead to long‐term morbidity or death. The hands are most often affected and are associated with more frequent need for both antibiotics and surgical intervention.[2, 3] The severity of injury does not correlate with subsequent infections.[3]

Management of dog bite injuries includes careful wound management. All patients with moderate to severe injury should be assessed within 48 hours by physical examination and radiography to assess the degree of injury and any associated nerve, tendon, joint, or bone damage. If there is concern for rabies based on history or vaccination status of the animal, prompt irrigation and debridement is crucial. Antimicrobial prophylaxis, typically with amoxicillinclavulanate, should be given to high‐risk patients, such as those with cirrhosis, asplenia, or other immunosuppressing conditions.[4] Most infections are caused by Pasteurella and Bacteroides, whereas Capnocytophaga may cause severe disease, particularly in patients with immunosuppression or excessive alcohol intake.[5] This patient was at increased risk of infection due to his late presentation following the initial bite and consequent delayed wound care, injury to the hand, and his history of alcoholism.[4]

Several members of the genus Capnocytophaga have been found in the oral cavities of both humans and canines. C canimorsus, found only in canine or feline oral cavities, is the only member of the genus known to cause human disease.[6] It is a fastidious gram‐negative rod requiring an environment enriched with carbon dioxide, making it notoriously difficult to isolate. Cultures typically do not show growth for 5 to 7 days; thus, it is not surprising all cultures were initially negative in this case.[4, 7] C canimorsus is a well‐described cause of sepsis related to dog bites, with some cases bearing similarity to fulminant meningococcal disease.[8] Severe illness typically occurs in immunosuppressed patients, particularly those with asplenia or cirrhosis.[9, 10] The pathophysiology of fulminant C canimorsus infections is not well described. It has been suggested that certain strains may produce a toxin that inhibits macrophages and inactivates tumor necrosis factor in humans, although this is not yet widely accepted.[11] Treatment of C canimorsus involves early administration of effective antimicrobials, supportive care, and standard management of the bite injury. C canimorsus is susceptible to several classes of antibiotics; ‐lactams, such as penicillin derivatives and cephalosporins, and potentiated sulphonamides, such as trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, typically have the best in vitro activity.[12] As illustrated in this case, even with prompt, effective antibiotic administration, C canimorsus infection can progress to DIC, multisystem organ failure, and death.[9]

A lwoffii was also identified, but was almost certainly a contaminant. It is a gram‐negative bacillus that is widely distributed throughout the environment. Commonly found on human skin and within the human oropharynx, it rarely causes human disease. Clinical manifestations of infection with A lwoffii are typically mild, and include superficial skin and soft tissue infection, urinary tract infection, and rarely bacteremia. Because of the severe presentation in this case and the compelling alternative explanation of C canimorsus, A lwoffii was almost certainly a contaminant.

Rabies was an intriguing possibility in this case given the unvaccinated status of the dogs and the patient's prominent neurologic findings. Clinicians must consider the possibility of rabies in any patient with a bite injury from an unvaccinated dog. However, rabies remains extremely rare in the developed world as a result of the overwhelming success of animal vaccination and postexposure prophylaxis. Furthermore, rabies typically has an incubation period of several months. If rabies had caused this patient's presentation, rabies immunoglobulin would have been ineffective. Nevertheless, rabies prophylaxis with rabies immunoglobulin and vaccination is appropriate to prevent subsequent disease unless rabies infection can be definitively excluded.[13]

This patient presented with septic shock, DIC, and multisystem organ failure after a dog bite. The discussant quickly recognized the propensity of Capnocytophaga to cause this constellation of findings in alcoholic patients after dog bites. This patient did not have cirrhosis or asplenia, both of which are known risk factors for C canimorsus infection; however, the fulminant presentation made C canimorsus a necessary consideration. Ultimately, the dramatic nature of the patient's presentation combined with his history of heavy alcohol intake led the discussant to the correct diagnosis of septic shock secondary to C canimorsus infection complicating a benign‐appearing dog bite. Clinicians caring for patients who present with sepsis after a recent dog bite should consider C canimorsus, remembering that on occasion, a dog's bark may not be bigger than his bite.

TEACHING POINTS

  1. The initial management of moderate or severe dog‐bite injuries includes careful wound assessment and radiography to exclude any associated bone, nerve, joint, or tendon injury.
  2. Immunosuppressed patients with dog bites, including those with cirrhosis or asplenia, should receive amoxicillin/clavulanate prophylaxis.
  3. C canimorsus is a fastidious gram‐negative bacillus that may cause fulminant sepsis after dog bites. It is associated with DIC, purpura fulminans, and multisystem organ failure.
  4. ‐lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin derivatives or cephalosporins, or sulphonamides, are the treatment of choice for C canimorsus.

Disclosure

Nothing to report.

A 58‐year‐old male presented to a local community hospital emergency department with fever and altered mental status. Earlier in the day he had complained of chills, swollen tongue, numbness and tingling in his extremities with associated burning pain, and generalized weakness. En route to the emergency department, he was extremely agitated and moving uncontrollably. On arrival, he was noted to be in respiratory distress and was intubated for hypoxic respiratory failure. He was subsequently transferred to an academic medical center, and in transit was noted to have sustained supraventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 160 beats per minute.

Although the differential for altered mental status is broad, associated fever limits the main diagnostic considerations to infectious, toxic, and some inflammatory disorders. Confusion and fever are most concerning for a central nervous system infection, either meningitis or encephalitis. Sepsis from a broader range of infectious etiologies may also present with these symptoms. His respiratory failure could represent acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) due to sepsis, aspiration, or a manifestation of a multisystem inflammatory disease.

He did not have any significant past medical or surgical history. Three days before his initial presentation, the patient was bitten on the left hand and forearm while breaking up a dogfight. The dogs that bit him belonged to his son, but were unvaccinated. He did not seek medical attention and it was unclear how he treated his wounds at home.

Dogs may serve as vectors for a number of zoonoses. Species of both Pasteurella and Capnocytophaga may cause sepsis and rarely meningitis as a consequence of dog bites. The incubation period of 3 days, though brief, does not exclude either infection. Rabies encephalitis is also possible, particularly given the dogs' unvaccinated status. However, the typical incubation period for rabies is on the order of months, and a 3‐day interval from inoculation to symptoms would be highly unusual. Although other explanations for his symptoms are more likely, he should still be considered for vaccination and rabies immune globulin. The dogs should be observed for clinical manifestations of rabies. Despite the patient's history of dog bite, a broad differential diagnosis must be maintained.

The patient lived in Michigan and worked in a chemical factory driving equipment without any hazardous exposures. He did not have any allergies. He drank 6 beers per day; he did not smoke cigarettes and had no history of illicit drug use. He was single and had 4 adult children.

His history of heavy alcohol consumption raises several additional possibilities. Delirium tremens, alcohol withdrawal seizures, or hepatic encephalopathy as a consequence of alcoholic cirrhosis are both potential contributors to his presentation. Furthermore, the physiologic signs of alcohol withdrawal are similar to many critical illnesses, which may present a diagnostic challenge. The patient's history of employment at a chemical factory is intriguing, though the details of any potential occupational exposures are unknown. Carbon monoxide poisoning can present with altered mental status and agitation, whereas anticholinergic toxicity can present with fever, tachycardia, and altered mental status; however, there is no obvious source of exposure to either.

On physical examination, the patient was intubated with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 11 without sedation; serial examinations revealed a fluctuating level of consciousness. His temperature was 38.1C, heart rate was 158 beats per minute, and blood pressure was 93/68 mm Hg. Mechanical ventilation was provided with assist control mode, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, tidal volume 466 mL, and positive end expiratory pressure of 20 cm of water. His oxygen saturation was 81% on 100% oxygen. Examination of his neck exhibited a large left neck hematoma from the unsuccessful placement of an external jugular intravenous catheter. Pupils were 4 mm in diameter and minimally reactive. There was no scleral icterus. Cardiac exam revealed tachycardia and regular rhythm without murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Lung exam was significant for bilateral rhonchi and minimal tracheal secretions. Extremity exam revealed 0.25 to 1.5 cm in diameter puncture bite marks with abrasions on his left third and fourth upper extremity digits as well as on his left forearm. Skin exam was diffusely cool with a mottled appearance. Neurologic exam revealed absent deep tendon reflexes throughout and apparent flaccid paralysis of all 4 extremities. Examination of the abdomen, lymph nodes, mouth, and throat were unremarkable.

The shock associated with sepsis is typically distributive, with intense vasodilation that classically leads to warm extremities. His mottled, cool extremities raise concern for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which can be seen in patients with septic shock, particularly cases caused by meningococcal disease and Capnocytophaga infections. His neurologic examination is typical of lower motor neuron disease, although acute upper motor neuron lesions can also be associated with hyporeflexia. Rabies can manifest as flaccid paralysis, but this would classically predate the mental status changes. Rabies remains a consideration, albeit a less likely one. Zoonoses, particularly Capnocytophaga and Pasteurella, are possible; however, a thorough search for other infections leading to sepsis is still indicated. His lung findings suggest severe ARDS.

The white blood cell count was 5,900/mm3, with 91% neutrophils, 6.6% lymphocytes, and 0.5% monocytes. The hemoglobin level was 13.0 g/dL, and the platelet count was 12,000/mm3. The fibrinogen level was 89 mg/dL (normal range 200400 mg/dL), international normalized ratio and partial‐thromboplastin time were 4.6 (normal range 0.8 to 1.1) and greater than 120.0 seconds (normal range 2535 seconds), respectively. Lactate dehydrogenase level was 698 IU/L (normal 120240 IU/L), and haptoglobin was 54 mg/dL (normal 41165 mg/dL). Serum sodium was 136 mmol/L, potassium 4.6 mmol/L, chloride 101 mmol/L, bicarbonate 16 mmol/L, blood urea nitrogen 29 mg/dL, creatinine 2.28 mg/dL, glucose 123 mg/dL, calcium 7.0 mg/dL, magnesium 1.7 mg/dL, and phosphorus 7.2 mg/dL. Total protein was 4.3 g/dL (normal 6.08.3 g/dL), albumin 2.5 g/dL (normal 3.54.9 g/dL), total bilirubin 2.3 mg/dL (normal 0.21.2 mg/dL), aspartate aminotransferase 71 IU/L (normal 830 IU/L), alanine aminotransferase 29 IU/L (normal 735 IU/L), and alkaline phosphatase 107 IU/L (normal 30130 IU/L). The serum troponin‐I level was 0.76 ng/mL, creatine phosphokinase 397 ng/mL, and creatine kinase‐myocardial band 3.5 ng/mL. Initial arterial blood gas analysis revealed a pH of 7.00, pCO2 57 mm Hg, pO2 98 mm Hg, and a lactic acid of 6.5 mmol/L (normal 0.52.2 mmol/L).

The patient has a normal absolute white blood cell count in the setting of septic shock. He has a relative neutrophilia and a marked leukopenia, both of which can be seen in overwhelming infections. The patient's arterial blood gas analysis indicates he has a mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis. The normal physiologic response to metabolic acidosis is to increase minute ventilation and induce a compensatory respiratory alkalosis. His concomitant respiratory acidosis in the face of mechanical ventilation and presumed adequate minute ventilation suggests severely impaired alveolar gas exchange, most likely from ARDS. He has numerous other metabolic abnormalities, including acute kidney injury, DIC, and hemolytic anemia, all of which may be seen with severe bacterial infections or septic shock. Neisseria meningitidis and other gram‐negative infections would be of particular concern in this case. The combination of fever, altered mental status, thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, and renal failure could be consistent with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. However, the prolonged coagulation studies are much more consistent with DIC.

Intravenous antimicrobials were administered including ceftriaxone (initiated in the emergency department of the transferring hospital), ampicillin, vancomycin, piperacillin/tazobactam, clindamycin, metronidazole, doxycycline, and acyclovir. He received tetanus and rabies vaccines as well as tetanus and rabies immune globulin. The patient was given aggressive intravenous crystalloid fluids with minimal response in blood pressure. Intravenous norepinephrine was initiated to maintain a mean arterial pressure above 65 mm Hg. A plain chest radiograph (Figure 1) revealed perihilar airspace opacities. Head computed tomography without contrast revealed global cerebral volume loss greater than expected for the patient's age; no evidence of intracranial hemorrhage, mass effect, or edema; and proptosis of the eyes with adjacent preseptal soft tissue swelling without evidence of retrobulbar hemorrhage or vascular engorgement. Ultrasound of the left neck hematoma was negative for pulsatile mass. Electrocardiogram (ECG) revealed sinus tachycardia without evidence of ischemic changes. A bedside transthoracic echocardiogram showed hyperdynamic changes without evidence of hypokinesis but with inspiratory collapse of the inferior vena cava. Abdominal ultrasound was normal. Plain radiographs of the left hand (Figure 2) identified only mild soft tissue swelling over the dorsum of the hand. An ultrasound of the left hand and left forearm did not identify any abnormal fluid collection. A dialysis catheter was placed after the patient received platelets and fresh frozen plasma for initiation of continuous renal replacement therapy.

Figure 1
Plain radiograph of the chest on presentation that revealed perihilar airspace opacities, which likely represented moderate to severe pulmonary edema.
Figure 2
Plain radiograph of the left hand that demonstrated mild soft tissue swelling over the dorsum of the hand.

Given this patient's fulminant presentation, he was appropriately started on a very broad anti‐infective regimen. Although fungal infections are less likely, his current antimicrobial regimen lacks antifungal coverage. His finding of proptosis raises concern for mucormycosis, although the time course and clinical presentation are somewhat atypical. Because of the severity of his presentation, initiation of amphotericin B could be considered if he fails to quickly respond to the current regimen. There is no known effective treatment for rabies. Thus, if his presentation is due to rabies encephalitis, rabies vaccine and immunoglobulin will not be effective at treating active rabies infection. However, given his exposure history and the dogs' unvaccinated status, postexposure prophylaxis was appropriate to prevent future development of rabies. The inspiratory collapse and hyperdynamic ventricular response seen on his bedside echocardiogram is consistent with decreased effective circulating volume from sepsis or severe hypovolemia rather than acute heart failure.

Less than 36 hours after admission (60 hours after his symptoms began), the patient's oxygenation status had not improved. He developed diffuse cutaneous purpura with hemorrhagic bullae. Liver, renal, and cardiac function markers were all markedly abnormal. All cultures from the transferring hospital, collected before antibiotics were initiated, were negative to date. However, Gram stain of blood cultures performed at the academic medical center revealed possible gram‐negative rods. The patient remained unresponsive without sedation. ECG revealed evidence of inferior and anterolateral ischemia. The patient's family was informed of his persistently deteriorating condition and elected to pursue comfort measures. Two hours later the patient expired. The family agreed to an autopsy.

This patient succumbed to overwhelming sepsis and multiorgan failure. Although the etiologic pathogen is not immediately clear, several clues point to a likely unifying diagnosis. First, he has a history of a recent dog bite with minimal local evidence of infection. Second, he presented with fulminant sepsis with DIC, hemolytic anemia, and diffuse mottling that progressed to purpura fulminans. Third, a possible gram‐negative rod was isolated on blood Gram stain. Fourth, he has a history of heavy alcohol use. For these reasons, Capnocytophaga canimorsus is the most likely underlying etiology. C canimorsus is a fastidious gram‐negative coccobacillus that is an uncommon cause of fulminant sepsis in patients with dog bites. It is difficult to isolate due to culture growth requirements, which may explain the negative blood cultures in this case. Patients with alcoholism are predisposed to fulminant sepsis from C canimorsus, which often presents with hepatic and renal failure. The myocardial ischemia may be secondary to the metabolic and thrombotic complications of sepsis.

On autopsy, there was purpura fulminans involving over 90% of the total body surface area as well as skin slippage and loose bullae of greater than 75% of the total body surface area. There was infarction of the kidneys, liver, spleen, and adrenal glands as well as focal contraction bands of necrosis of the myocardium. The lungs showed diffuse alveolar damage. There was hemorrhage, edema, and necrosis seen in sections taken from the puncture wounds. Following the patient's death, it was reported by the transferring institution that C canimorsus was identified from 2 of 2 antemortem blood cultures, and pan‐sensitive Acinetobacter lwoffii in 1 of 2 blood cultures, though no sensitivities were performed on the C canimorsus isolate. In addition, antemortem cultures obtained at the academic medical center identified Capnocytophaga species in 1 of 2 peripheral blood culture specimens; sensitivities were not performed. Autopsy determined the cause of death in this patient to be septic complications of dog bite.

COMMENTARY

Dog bites are frequent, with over 12,000 occurring daily in the United States; of these, approximately 20% require medical attention.[1] Although most patients rapidly recover with conservative management, even initially benign‐appearing injuries can lead to long‐term morbidity or death. The hands are most often affected and are associated with more frequent need for both antibiotics and surgical intervention.[2, 3] The severity of injury does not correlate with subsequent infections.[3]

Management of dog bite injuries includes careful wound management. All patients with moderate to severe injury should be assessed within 48 hours by physical examination and radiography to assess the degree of injury and any associated nerve, tendon, joint, or bone damage. If there is concern for rabies based on history or vaccination status of the animal, prompt irrigation and debridement is crucial. Antimicrobial prophylaxis, typically with amoxicillinclavulanate, should be given to high‐risk patients, such as those with cirrhosis, asplenia, or other immunosuppressing conditions.[4] Most infections are caused by Pasteurella and Bacteroides, whereas Capnocytophaga may cause severe disease, particularly in patients with immunosuppression or excessive alcohol intake.[5] This patient was at increased risk of infection due to his late presentation following the initial bite and consequent delayed wound care, injury to the hand, and his history of alcoholism.[4]

Several members of the genus Capnocytophaga have been found in the oral cavities of both humans and canines. C canimorsus, found only in canine or feline oral cavities, is the only member of the genus known to cause human disease.[6] It is a fastidious gram‐negative rod requiring an environment enriched with carbon dioxide, making it notoriously difficult to isolate. Cultures typically do not show growth for 5 to 7 days; thus, it is not surprising all cultures were initially negative in this case.[4, 7] C canimorsus is a well‐described cause of sepsis related to dog bites, with some cases bearing similarity to fulminant meningococcal disease.[8] Severe illness typically occurs in immunosuppressed patients, particularly those with asplenia or cirrhosis.[9, 10] The pathophysiology of fulminant C canimorsus infections is not well described. It has been suggested that certain strains may produce a toxin that inhibits macrophages and inactivates tumor necrosis factor in humans, although this is not yet widely accepted.[11] Treatment of C canimorsus involves early administration of effective antimicrobials, supportive care, and standard management of the bite injury. C canimorsus is susceptible to several classes of antibiotics; ‐lactams, such as penicillin derivatives and cephalosporins, and potentiated sulphonamides, such as trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, typically have the best in vitro activity.[12] As illustrated in this case, even with prompt, effective antibiotic administration, C canimorsus infection can progress to DIC, multisystem organ failure, and death.[9]

A lwoffii was also identified, but was almost certainly a contaminant. It is a gram‐negative bacillus that is widely distributed throughout the environment. Commonly found on human skin and within the human oropharynx, it rarely causes human disease. Clinical manifestations of infection with A lwoffii are typically mild, and include superficial skin and soft tissue infection, urinary tract infection, and rarely bacteremia. Because of the severe presentation in this case and the compelling alternative explanation of C canimorsus, A lwoffii was almost certainly a contaminant.

Rabies was an intriguing possibility in this case given the unvaccinated status of the dogs and the patient's prominent neurologic findings. Clinicians must consider the possibility of rabies in any patient with a bite injury from an unvaccinated dog. However, rabies remains extremely rare in the developed world as a result of the overwhelming success of animal vaccination and postexposure prophylaxis. Furthermore, rabies typically has an incubation period of several months. If rabies had caused this patient's presentation, rabies immunoglobulin would have been ineffective. Nevertheless, rabies prophylaxis with rabies immunoglobulin and vaccination is appropriate to prevent subsequent disease unless rabies infection can be definitively excluded.[13]

This patient presented with septic shock, DIC, and multisystem organ failure after a dog bite. The discussant quickly recognized the propensity of Capnocytophaga to cause this constellation of findings in alcoholic patients after dog bites. This patient did not have cirrhosis or asplenia, both of which are known risk factors for C canimorsus infection; however, the fulminant presentation made C canimorsus a necessary consideration. Ultimately, the dramatic nature of the patient's presentation combined with his history of heavy alcohol intake led the discussant to the correct diagnosis of septic shock secondary to C canimorsus infection complicating a benign‐appearing dog bite. Clinicians caring for patients who present with sepsis after a recent dog bite should consider C canimorsus, remembering that on occasion, a dog's bark may not be bigger than his bite.

TEACHING POINTS

  1. The initial management of moderate or severe dog‐bite injuries includes careful wound assessment and radiography to exclude any associated bone, nerve, joint, or tendon injury.
  2. Immunosuppressed patients with dog bites, including those with cirrhosis or asplenia, should receive amoxicillin/clavulanate prophylaxis.
  3. C canimorsus is a fastidious gram‐negative bacillus that may cause fulminant sepsis after dog bites. It is associated with DIC, purpura fulminans, and multisystem organ failure.
  4. ‐lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin derivatives or cephalosporins, or sulphonamides, are the treatment of choice for C canimorsus.

Disclosure

Nothing to report.

References
  1. Gilchrist J, Sacks JJ, White D, Kresnow MJ. Dog bites: still a problem? Injury Prev. 2008;14(5):296301.
  2. Pfortmueller CA, Efeoglou A, Furrer H, Exadaktylos AK. Dog bite injuries: primary and secondary emergency department presentations—a retrospective cohort study. ScientificWorldJournal. 2013;2013:393176.
  3. Akingba AG, Robinson EA, Jester AL, et al. Management of vascular trauma from dog bites. J Vascular Surg. 2013;58(5):13461352.
  4. Morgan M, Palmer J. Dog bites. BMJ. 2007;334(7590):413417.
  5. Hermann CK, Hansen PB, Bangsborg JM, Pers C. Bacterial infections as complications of dog bites [in Danish]. Ugeskrift Laeger. 1998;160(34):48604863.
  6. Oehler RL, Velez AP, Mizrachi M, Lamarche J, Gompf S. Bite‐related and septic syndromes caused by cats and dogs. Lancet Infect Dis. 2009;9(7):439447.
  7. Talan DA, Citron DM, Abrahamian FM, Moran GJ, Goldstein EJ. Bacteriologic analysis of infected dog and cat bites. Emergency Medicine Animal Bite Infection Study Group. N Engl J Med. 1999;340(2):8592.
  8. Janda JM, Graves MH, Lindquist D, Probert WS. Diagnosing Capnocytophaga canimorsus infections. Emerg Infect Dis. 2006;12(2):340342.
  9. Pers C, Gahrn‐Hansen B, Frederiksen W. Capnocytophaga canimorsus septicemia in Denmark, 1982–1995: review of 39 cases. Clinical Infect Dis. 1996;23(1):7175.
  10. Szabo G. Consequences of alcohol consumption on host defence. Alcohol Alcohol. 1999;34(6):830841.
  11. Dam AP, Weert A, Harmanus C, Hovius KE, Claas EC, Reubsaet FA. Molecular characterization of Capnocytophaga canimorsus and other canine Capnocytophaga spp. and assessment by PCR of their frequencies in dogs. J Clin Microbiol. 2009;47(10):32183225.
  12. Meyers B, Schoeman JP, Goddard A, Picard J. The bacteriology and antimicrobial susceptibility of infected and non‐infected dog bite wounds: fifty cases. Vet Microbiol. 2008;127(3‐4):360368.
  13. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Human rabies—Alabama, Tennessee, and Texas, 1994. Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report; 1995. Available at: http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/00036736.htm. Accessed March 1, 2014.
References
  1. Gilchrist J, Sacks JJ, White D, Kresnow MJ. Dog bites: still a problem? Injury Prev. 2008;14(5):296301.
  2. Pfortmueller CA, Efeoglou A, Furrer H, Exadaktylos AK. Dog bite injuries: primary and secondary emergency department presentations—a retrospective cohort study. ScientificWorldJournal. 2013;2013:393176.
  3. Akingba AG, Robinson EA, Jester AL, et al. Management of vascular trauma from dog bites. J Vascular Surg. 2013;58(5):13461352.
  4. Morgan M, Palmer J. Dog bites. BMJ. 2007;334(7590):413417.
  5. Hermann CK, Hansen PB, Bangsborg JM, Pers C. Bacterial infections as complications of dog bites [in Danish]. Ugeskrift Laeger. 1998;160(34):48604863.
  6. Oehler RL, Velez AP, Mizrachi M, Lamarche J, Gompf S. Bite‐related and septic syndromes caused by cats and dogs. Lancet Infect Dis. 2009;9(7):439447.
  7. Talan DA, Citron DM, Abrahamian FM, Moran GJ, Goldstein EJ. Bacteriologic analysis of infected dog and cat bites. Emergency Medicine Animal Bite Infection Study Group. N Engl J Med. 1999;340(2):8592.
  8. Janda JM, Graves MH, Lindquist D, Probert WS. Diagnosing Capnocytophaga canimorsus infections. Emerg Infect Dis. 2006;12(2):340342.
  9. Pers C, Gahrn‐Hansen B, Frederiksen W. Capnocytophaga canimorsus septicemia in Denmark, 1982–1995: review of 39 cases. Clinical Infect Dis. 1996;23(1):7175.
  10. Szabo G. Consequences of alcohol consumption on host defence. Alcohol Alcohol. 1999;34(6):830841.
  11. Dam AP, Weert A, Harmanus C, Hovius KE, Claas EC, Reubsaet FA. Molecular characterization of Capnocytophaga canimorsus and other canine Capnocytophaga spp. and assessment by PCR of their frequencies in dogs. J Clin Microbiol. 2009;47(10):32183225.
  12. Meyers B, Schoeman JP, Goddard A, Picard J. The bacteriology and antimicrobial susceptibility of infected and non‐infected dog bite wounds: fifty cases. Vet Microbiol. 2008;127(3‐4):360368.
  13. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Human rabies—Alabama, Tennessee, and Texas, 1994. Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report; 1995. Available at: http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/00036736.htm. Accessed March 1, 2014.
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Which Patients Should Receive Bridging Anticoagulation?

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Which Patients Should Receive Bridging Anticoagulation?

Fondaparinux (trade name Arixtra), an anticoagulant drug used for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (chemically related to low molecular weight heparins).

Case

A 77-year-old woman with a history of stroke five months prior, bileaflet aortic valve prosthesis, hypertension, and insulin-dependent diabetes is admitted for laparoscopy with lysis of adhesions. The patient stopped her warfarin 10 days prior to admission and initiated enoxaparin five days later. When should the enoxaparin be discontinued?

Intra-operatively, the surgeon converted the case to an open laparotomy for a bowel resection with re-anastomosis; post-operatively, when should the hospitalist reinitiate warfarin and enoxaparin?

Background

Many patients receive chronic oral anticoagulant therapy to minimize their long-term risk of thromboembolic disease. Hospitalists and outpatient providers often care for such patients who need to undergo a medical procedure or operation. The risk of bleeding associated with the medical procedure necessitates an interruption in the patient’s chronic oral anticoagulant therapy. In this scenario, providers are faced with several therapeutic decisions:

  • How soon before the procedure should patients stop taking oral anticoagulant?
  • During the period of time when the patient is not taking chronic oral anticoagulant, should the patient receive parenteral bridging anticoagulant therapy?
  • After the procedure, when should patients restart chronic oral anticoagulant therapy?

‘Bridge’ anticoagulant therapy is the administration of a short-acting parenteral anticoagulant during the peri-operative period, when the patient is not taking chronic oral anticoagulant.1 The intent of bridge anticoagulant therapy is to minimize both the risk of thromboembolic events and the risk of bleeding during the peri-operative period. Bridging anticoagulant therapy is appropriate for some but not all patients undergoing medical procedures.

The Data

When to discontinue warfarin? Warfarin, the most commonly prescribed oral anticoagulant, achieves its therapeutic effects by antagonizing the actions of endogenous vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors. The decision on when to stop warfarin prior to surgery is dependent on the regeneration time of coagulation factors following the discontinuation of warfarin therapy. Although warfarin’s half-life is typically 36-42 hours, its therapeutic effects typically last up to five days in healthy subjects and often longer in elderly patients.2

Current guidelines recommend the discontinuation of warfarin at least five days prior to surgery (Grade 1C recommendation).3 Despite this recommendation, approximately 7% of patients will still have an international normalized ratio (INR) >1.5 after not taking warfarin for five days.4 For this reason, the guidelines recommend that all patients have their INR checked on the day of surgery. For those patients with an INR of 1.5 to 1.9 on the day prior to surgery, there is evidence to show that administration of 1 mg of vitamin K will lower the INR to 1.4 in greater than 90% of cases.5

Assessment of peri-procedural thrombotic risk. Knowledge of a patient’s past medical history is critical in helping providers stratify the patient’s peri-procedural thrombotic risk. According to the 2012 American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) guidelines, a history of atrial fibrillation (Afib), mechanical heart valve(s), and previous VTE are independent risk factors for peri-procedural thrombotic events.3 Hospitalists may risk-stratify their patients based on the anticipated annualized rate of thrombosis or embolization: <5%, 5%-10%, or >15% for the respective low, medium, and high-risk groups.6

Patients with Afib history. For these patients, the CHADS2 score helps to stratify the risk of peri-procedural thrombosis. Low risk is defined as a CHADS2 score of zero to two, assuming that the two points were not scored for transient ischemic attack (TIA) or cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Any patient with a TIA or CVA within the previous three months is automatically considered high risk. Medium risk is a score of three or four.

 

 

In addition to the aforementioned TIA or CVA within the prior three months, high-risk patients also include those with a CHADS2 score of five or six or any patient with a history of rheumatic heart disease.3 Patients with CHADS2 scores less than five but with a TIA or CVA greater than three months in the past are high risk.7

Presence of mechanical heart valve(s). For patients with a mechanical heart valve, knowledge of the valve type and location is essential to assist hospitalists in stratifying the risk of peri-procedural thrombosis. The current ACCP guidelines consider patients with bileaflet aortic valve prostheses without additional risk factors for stroke or atrial fibrillation to be low risk.3

The guidelines define the following characteristics as medium risk for patients: the presence of a bileaflet valve with additional risk factors for stroke such as atrial fibrillation, age greater than 75, prior CVA (more than six months prior), hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or congestive heart failure.

Patients at high risk include those with aortic valve prosthesis with a caged-ball or tilting disc, patients with mitral valve prosthesis, and those with a mechanical valve with CVA or TIA during the prior six months.7

Hospitalists should identify high-risk patients as those with VTE that has occurred within three months or those with severe thrombophilias such as Protein C or S deficiency, antithrombin III deficiency, or antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.

History of previous VTE. For these patients, the duration of time that has passed since their last VTE event is an important factor in helping to stratify their risk for peri-procedural thrombosis. Hospitalists should consider patients low risk if they had VTE more than one year prior to the procedure.

Medium-risk patients are those with VTE events in the preceding three to twelve months, those with recurrent VTE, those with active cancer who have received cancer therapy within six months, or patients with non-severe thrombophilias (e.g. heterogenous factor V Leiden or prothrombin gene mutation).

Hospitalists should identify high-risk patients as those with VTE that has occurred within three months or those with severe thrombophilias such as Protein C or S deficiency, antithrombin III deficiency, or antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.

Assessment of procedure-related thrombotic risk. The type of anticipated procedure itself conveys peri-procedural thrombotic risk. For example, heart valve replacement, carotid endarterectomy, or other major vascular surgeries automatically stratify patients in the high-risk category, regardless of underlying medication condition.

Assessment of bleeding risk. Hospitalists must identify any preexisting bleeding risk factors (i.e., hemophilias or thrombocytopenia) in addition to the post-procedural bleeding risks. Risk factors for increased post-procedural bleeding include: major surgery with extensive tissue injury, procedures involving highly vascularized organs, removal of large colonic polyps, urological procedures, placement of implantable cardioverter-defibrillator/pacemakers, and procedures at sites where minor bleeding would be clinically devastating, such as the brain or spine.3

Thus, communication with the proceduralist or surgeon regarding the anticipated bleeding risk is vital.

Should the patient receive bridging anticoagulation? Patients considered high risk for peri-procedural thrombosis should receive peri-procedural bridging anticoagulation therapy, while those considered low risk should not. For patients with a moderate peri-procedural risk of thrombosis, hospitalists should base the decision on individual and anticipated pre-surgical/procedural thrombotic risks.

Recent evidence suggests that bridging anticoagulation should be avoided in patients undergoing procedures with high bleeding risk who are not at high thromboembolic risk.8

Selection and pre-operative discontinuation of bridging medication. Current ACCP guidelines only support the use of unfractionated heparin (UFH) or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) as bridging anticoagulants.3 Evidence supports the use of either intravenous UFH (goal aPTT 1.5 to two times control aPTT) or enoxaparin (1 mg/kg BID or 1.5 mg/kg once daily).9 UFH is preferred over LMWH in patients with chronic kidney disease stage IV or V due to a more predictable pharmacokinetic profile.

 

 

Clinicians should initiate a bridge when a patient’s INR falls to less than 2.0 and discontinue the UFH bridge four to six hours prior to the procedure.10 The recent update to the guidelines now states that LMWH should be discontinued 24, instead of 12, hours prior to the procedure.3

When to restart UHF or LMWH bridge post-procedure. The type of procedure being performed dictates when bridging anticoagulation should resume. In patients who have undergone surgeries that involve high bleeding risk, LMWH should not be administered until 48-72 hours post-surgery (Grade 2C evidence).3 For those patients undergoing surgeries with low bleeding risk, bridging should be resumed approximately 24 hours after the procedure.

Of note, enoxaparin administered in one single daily dose, as compared to divided doses, is associated with a greater risk of post-operative bleeding. UFH bridging should resume post-operatively without a bolus dose at 24 hours in low-risk bleeding cases or 48-72 hours in high-risk bleeding cases (Grade 2C evidence).3

On occasion, unanticipated adjustments to surgical cases—or complications—change the previously determined post-operative bleeding risk. In these instances, the hospitalist and surgeon/proceduralist should review the case and reassess the bleeding risk prior to employing bridging anticoagulation protocols.

When to restart long-term vitamin K antagonists (VKA) post-procedure. In most instances, regardless of pre-operative bleeding risk stratification, the resumption of VKA may occur once post-operative hemostasis has been achieved and the patient has been instructed to resume eating by the proceduralist or surgeon. This most often occurs on the calendar day following surgery, because it takes approximately five days for an INR to achieve therapeutic levels.

Back to the Case

The patient’s history of prosthetic valve with stroke within the preceding six months stratified her to a high thrombotic risk category. Given the high risk of thrombosis, the decision was made to bridge with LMWH. The hospitalist discontinued LMWH 24 hours prior to surgery, and INR was checked on the morning of the procedure.

Although the patient underwent the operation without significant bleeding, the adjustment from an exploratory laparoscopy to an open laparotomy increased her post-operative bleeding risk from medium to high. Therefore, bridging anticoagulation with LMWH was resumed no sooner than 48 hours after the operation. Her warfarin was restarted on the day following surgery, once she resumed her diet.

Bottom Line

Hospitalists must understand both the pre- and post-procedure thrombotic risks, as well as the pre- and post-procedural bleeding risks, when determining the selection and logistics of initiation and cessation of antithrombotic bridging for inpatients.


Drs. McCormick, Carbo, and Li are hospitalists at Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center in Boston. Dr. Kerbel is a hospitalist at the University of California Los Angeles.

Key Points

  • The CHADS2 score, the presence of heart valve type and location, and the duration of time since previous VTE events help guide our understanding of the peri-procedural thrombotic risk in patients with atrial fibrillation, mechanical heart valves, and prior VTE. The type of procedure and the presence of inherited or acquired bleeding diatheses guides our understanding of the bleeding risk.
  • Patients at high risk for thrombotic events should receive bridging anticoagulation, while patients at low risk do not require bridging anticoagulation. There is insufficient evidence to guide the use of bridging anticoagulation in patients with medium risk for thrombotic events. Hospitalists will need to use their own best judgment in these patients.
  • The bleeding risk associated with medical procedures or surgery dictates when to resume bridging anticoagulation. Communication with the proceduralist or surgeon is essential.

References

  1. BRIDGE Study Investigators. Bridging anticoagulation: is it needed when warfarin is interrupted around the time of a surgery or procedure? Circulation. 2012;125(12):e496-498.
  2. Ansell J, Hirsh J, Hylek E, Jacobson A, Crowther M, Palareti G. Pharmacology and management of the vitamin K antagonists: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines (8th Edition). Chest. 2008;133(6 Suppl):160S-198S.
  3. Douketis JD, Spyropoulos AC, Spencer FA, et al. Perioperative management of antithrombotic therapy: Antithrombotic Therapy and Prevention of Thrombosis, 9th ed: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines. Chest. 2012;141(2 Suppl):e326S-350S.
  4. Kovacs MJ, Kearon C, Rodger M, et al. Single-arm study of bridging therapy with low-molecular-weight heparin for patients at risk of arterial embolism who require temporary interruption of warfarin. Circulation. 2004;110(12):1658-1663.
  5. Woods K, Douketis JD, Kathirgamanathan K, Yi Q, Crowther MA. Low-dose oral vitamin K to normalize the international normalized ratio prior to surgery in patients who require temporary interruption of warfarin. J Thromb Thrombolysis. 2007;24(2):93-97.
  6. Ortel TL. Perioperative management of patients on chronic antithrombotic therapy. Blood. 2012;120(24):4699-4705.
  7. Kaatz S, Douketis JD, Zhou H, Gage BF, White RH. Risk of stroke after surgery in patients with and without chronic atrial fibrillation. J Thromb Haemost. 2010;8(5):884-890.
  8. Siegal D, Yudin J, Kaatz S, Douketis JD, Lim W, Spyropoulos AC. Periprocedural heparin bridging in patients receiving vitamin K antagonists: systematic review and meta-analysis of bleeding and thromboembolic rates. Circulation. 2012;126(13):1630-1639.
  9. Lee AY, Levine MN, Baker RI, et al. Low-molecular-weight heparin versus a coumarin for the prevention of recurrent venous thromboembolism in patients with cancer. N Engl J Med. 2003;349(2):146-153.
  10. Hirsh J, Raschke R. Heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin: the Seventh ACCP Conference on Antithrombotic and Thrombolytic Therapy. Chest. 2004;126(3 Suppl):188S-203S.
 

 

Issue
The Hospitalist - 2014(09)
Publications
Sections

Fondaparinux (trade name Arixtra), an anticoagulant drug used for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (chemically related to low molecular weight heparins).

Case

A 77-year-old woman with a history of stroke five months prior, bileaflet aortic valve prosthesis, hypertension, and insulin-dependent diabetes is admitted for laparoscopy with lysis of adhesions. The patient stopped her warfarin 10 days prior to admission and initiated enoxaparin five days later. When should the enoxaparin be discontinued?

Intra-operatively, the surgeon converted the case to an open laparotomy for a bowel resection with re-anastomosis; post-operatively, when should the hospitalist reinitiate warfarin and enoxaparin?

Background

Many patients receive chronic oral anticoagulant therapy to minimize their long-term risk of thromboembolic disease. Hospitalists and outpatient providers often care for such patients who need to undergo a medical procedure or operation. The risk of bleeding associated with the medical procedure necessitates an interruption in the patient’s chronic oral anticoagulant therapy. In this scenario, providers are faced with several therapeutic decisions:

  • How soon before the procedure should patients stop taking oral anticoagulant?
  • During the period of time when the patient is not taking chronic oral anticoagulant, should the patient receive parenteral bridging anticoagulant therapy?
  • After the procedure, when should patients restart chronic oral anticoagulant therapy?

‘Bridge’ anticoagulant therapy is the administration of a short-acting parenteral anticoagulant during the peri-operative period, when the patient is not taking chronic oral anticoagulant.1 The intent of bridge anticoagulant therapy is to minimize both the risk of thromboembolic events and the risk of bleeding during the peri-operative period. Bridging anticoagulant therapy is appropriate for some but not all patients undergoing medical procedures.

The Data

When to discontinue warfarin? Warfarin, the most commonly prescribed oral anticoagulant, achieves its therapeutic effects by antagonizing the actions of endogenous vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors. The decision on when to stop warfarin prior to surgery is dependent on the regeneration time of coagulation factors following the discontinuation of warfarin therapy. Although warfarin’s half-life is typically 36-42 hours, its therapeutic effects typically last up to five days in healthy subjects and often longer in elderly patients.2

Current guidelines recommend the discontinuation of warfarin at least five days prior to surgery (Grade 1C recommendation).3 Despite this recommendation, approximately 7% of patients will still have an international normalized ratio (INR) >1.5 after not taking warfarin for five days.4 For this reason, the guidelines recommend that all patients have their INR checked on the day of surgery. For those patients with an INR of 1.5 to 1.9 on the day prior to surgery, there is evidence to show that administration of 1 mg of vitamin K will lower the INR to 1.4 in greater than 90% of cases.5

Assessment of peri-procedural thrombotic risk. Knowledge of a patient’s past medical history is critical in helping providers stratify the patient’s peri-procedural thrombotic risk. According to the 2012 American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) guidelines, a history of atrial fibrillation (Afib), mechanical heart valve(s), and previous VTE are independent risk factors for peri-procedural thrombotic events.3 Hospitalists may risk-stratify their patients based on the anticipated annualized rate of thrombosis or embolization: <5%, 5%-10%, or >15% for the respective low, medium, and high-risk groups.6

Patients with Afib history. For these patients, the CHADS2 score helps to stratify the risk of peri-procedural thrombosis. Low risk is defined as a CHADS2 score of zero to two, assuming that the two points were not scored for transient ischemic attack (TIA) or cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Any patient with a TIA or CVA within the previous three months is automatically considered high risk. Medium risk is a score of three or four.

 

 

In addition to the aforementioned TIA or CVA within the prior three months, high-risk patients also include those with a CHADS2 score of five or six or any patient with a history of rheumatic heart disease.3 Patients with CHADS2 scores less than five but with a TIA or CVA greater than three months in the past are high risk.7

Presence of mechanical heart valve(s). For patients with a mechanical heart valve, knowledge of the valve type and location is essential to assist hospitalists in stratifying the risk of peri-procedural thrombosis. The current ACCP guidelines consider patients with bileaflet aortic valve prostheses without additional risk factors for stroke or atrial fibrillation to be low risk.3

The guidelines define the following characteristics as medium risk for patients: the presence of a bileaflet valve with additional risk factors for stroke such as atrial fibrillation, age greater than 75, prior CVA (more than six months prior), hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or congestive heart failure.

Patients at high risk include those with aortic valve prosthesis with a caged-ball or tilting disc, patients with mitral valve prosthesis, and those with a mechanical valve with CVA or TIA during the prior six months.7

Hospitalists should identify high-risk patients as those with VTE that has occurred within three months or those with severe thrombophilias such as Protein C or S deficiency, antithrombin III deficiency, or antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.

History of previous VTE. For these patients, the duration of time that has passed since their last VTE event is an important factor in helping to stratify their risk for peri-procedural thrombosis. Hospitalists should consider patients low risk if they had VTE more than one year prior to the procedure.

Medium-risk patients are those with VTE events in the preceding three to twelve months, those with recurrent VTE, those with active cancer who have received cancer therapy within six months, or patients with non-severe thrombophilias (e.g. heterogenous factor V Leiden or prothrombin gene mutation).

Hospitalists should identify high-risk patients as those with VTE that has occurred within three months or those with severe thrombophilias such as Protein C or S deficiency, antithrombin III deficiency, or antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.

Assessment of procedure-related thrombotic risk. The type of anticipated procedure itself conveys peri-procedural thrombotic risk. For example, heart valve replacement, carotid endarterectomy, or other major vascular surgeries automatically stratify patients in the high-risk category, regardless of underlying medication condition.

Assessment of bleeding risk. Hospitalists must identify any preexisting bleeding risk factors (i.e., hemophilias or thrombocytopenia) in addition to the post-procedural bleeding risks. Risk factors for increased post-procedural bleeding include: major surgery with extensive tissue injury, procedures involving highly vascularized organs, removal of large colonic polyps, urological procedures, placement of implantable cardioverter-defibrillator/pacemakers, and procedures at sites where minor bleeding would be clinically devastating, such as the brain or spine.3

Thus, communication with the proceduralist or surgeon regarding the anticipated bleeding risk is vital.

Should the patient receive bridging anticoagulation? Patients considered high risk for peri-procedural thrombosis should receive peri-procedural bridging anticoagulation therapy, while those considered low risk should not. For patients with a moderate peri-procedural risk of thrombosis, hospitalists should base the decision on individual and anticipated pre-surgical/procedural thrombotic risks.

Recent evidence suggests that bridging anticoagulation should be avoided in patients undergoing procedures with high bleeding risk who are not at high thromboembolic risk.8

Selection and pre-operative discontinuation of bridging medication. Current ACCP guidelines only support the use of unfractionated heparin (UFH) or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) as bridging anticoagulants.3 Evidence supports the use of either intravenous UFH (goal aPTT 1.5 to two times control aPTT) or enoxaparin (1 mg/kg BID or 1.5 mg/kg once daily).9 UFH is preferred over LMWH in patients with chronic kidney disease stage IV or V due to a more predictable pharmacokinetic profile.

 

 

Clinicians should initiate a bridge when a patient’s INR falls to less than 2.0 and discontinue the UFH bridge four to six hours prior to the procedure.10 The recent update to the guidelines now states that LMWH should be discontinued 24, instead of 12, hours prior to the procedure.3

When to restart UHF or LMWH bridge post-procedure. The type of procedure being performed dictates when bridging anticoagulation should resume. In patients who have undergone surgeries that involve high bleeding risk, LMWH should not be administered until 48-72 hours post-surgery (Grade 2C evidence).3 For those patients undergoing surgeries with low bleeding risk, bridging should be resumed approximately 24 hours after the procedure.

Of note, enoxaparin administered in one single daily dose, as compared to divided doses, is associated with a greater risk of post-operative bleeding. UFH bridging should resume post-operatively without a bolus dose at 24 hours in low-risk bleeding cases or 48-72 hours in high-risk bleeding cases (Grade 2C evidence).3

On occasion, unanticipated adjustments to surgical cases—or complications—change the previously determined post-operative bleeding risk. In these instances, the hospitalist and surgeon/proceduralist should review the case and reassess the bleeding risk prior to employing bridging anticoagulation protocols.

When to restart long-term vitamin K antagonists (VKA) post-procedure. In most instances, regardless of pre-operative bleeding risk stratification, the resumption of VKA may occur once post-operative hemostasis has been achieved and the patient has been instructed to resume eating by the proceduralist or surgeon. This most often occurs on the calendar day following surgery, because it takes approximately five days for an INR to achieve therapeutic levels.

Back to the Case

The patient’s history of prosthetic valve with stroke within the preceding six months stratified her to a high thrombotic risk category. Given the high risk of thrombosis, the decision was made to bridge with LMWH. The hospitalist discontinued LMWH 24 hours prior to surgery, and INR was checked on the morning of the procedure.

Although the patient underwent the operation without significant bleeding, the adjustment from an exploratory laparoscopy to an open laparotomy increased her post-operative bleeding risk from medium to high. Therefore, bridging anticoagulation with LMWH was resumed no sooner than 48 hours after the operation. Her warfarin was restarted on the day following surgery, once she resumed her diet.

Bottom Line

Hospitalists must understand both the pre- and post-procedure thrombotic risks, as well as the pre- and post-procedural bleeding risks, when determining the selection and logistics of initiation and cessation of antithrombotic bridging for inpatients.


Drs. McCormick, Carbo, and Li are hospitalists at Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center in Boston. Dr. Kerbel is a hospitalist at the University of California Los Angeles.

Key Points

  • The CHADS2 score, the presence of heart valve type and location, and the duration of time since previous VTE events help guide our understanding of the peri-procedural thrombotic risk in patients with atrial fibrillation, mechanical heart valves, and prior VTE. The type of procedure and the presence of inherited or acquired bleeding diatheses guides our understanding of the bleeding risk.
  • Patients at high risk for thrombotic events should receive bridging anticoagulation, while patients at low risk do not require bridging anticoagulation. There is insufficient evidence to guide the use of bridging anticoagulation in patients with medium risk for thrombotic events. Hospitalists will need to use their own best judgment in these patients.
  • The bleeding risk associated with medical procedures or surgery dictates when to resume bridging anticoagulation. Communication with the proceduralist or surgeon is essential.

References

  1. BRIDGE Study Investigators. Bridging anticoagulation: is it needed when warfarin is interrupted around the time of a surgery or procedure? Circulation. 2012;125(12):e496-498.
  2. Ansell J, Hirsh J, Hylek E, Jacobson A, Crowther M, Palareti G. Pharmacology and management of the vitamin K antagonists: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines (8th Edition). Chest. 2008;133(6 Suppl):160S-198S.
  3. Douketis JD, Spyropoulos AC, Spencer FA, et al. Perioperative management of antithrombotic therapy: Antithrombotic Therapy and Prevention of Thrombosis, 9th ed: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines. Chest. 2012;141(2 Suppl):e326S-350S.
  4. Kovacs MJ, Kearon C, Rodger M, et al. Single-arm study of bridging therapy with low-molecular-weight heparin for patients at risk of arterial embolism who require temporary interruption of warfarin. Circulation. 2004;110(12):1658-1663.
  5. Woods K, Douketis JD, Kathirgamanathan K, Yi Q, Crowther MA. Low-dose oral vitamin K to normalize the international normalized ratio prior to surgery in patients who require temporary interruption of warfarin. J Thromb Thrombolysis. 2007;24(2):93-97.
  6. Ortel TL. Perioperative management of patients on chronic antithrombotic therapy. Blood. 2012;120(24):4699-4705.
  7. Kaatz S, Douketis JD, Zhou H, Gage BF, White RH. Risk of stroke after surgery in patients with and without chronic atrial fibrillation. J Thromb Haemost. 2010;8(5):884-890.
  8. Siegal D, Yudin J, Kaatz S, Douketis JD, Lim W, Spyropoulos AC. Periprocedural heparin bridging in patients receiving vitamin K antagonists: systematic review and meta-analysis of bleeding and thromboembolic rates. Circulation. 2012;126(13):1630-1639.
  9. Lee AY, Levine MN, Baker RI, et al. Low-molecular-weight heparin versus a coumarin for the prevention of recurrent venous thromboembolism in patients with cancer. N Engl J Med. 2003;349(2):146-153.
  10. Hirsh J, Raschke R. Heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin: the Seventh ACCP Conference on Antithrombotic and Thrombolytic Therapy. Chest. 2004;126(3 Suppl):188S-203S.
 

 

Fondaparinux (trade name Arixtra), an anticoagulant drug used for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (chemically related to low molecular weight heparins).

Case

A 77-year-old woman with a history of stroke five months prior, bileaflet aortic valve prosthesis, hypertension, and insulin-dependent diabetes is admitted for laparoscopy with lysis of adhesions. The patient stopped her warfarin 10 days prior to admission and initiated enoxaparin five days later. When should the enoxaparin be discontinued?

Intra-operatively, the surgeon converted the case to an open laparotomy for a bowel resection with re-anastomosis; post-operatively, when should the hospitalist reinitiate warfarin and enoxaparin?

Background

Many patients receive chronic oral anticoagulant therapy to minimize their long-term risk of thromboembolic disease. Hospitalists and outpatient providers often care for such patients who need to undergo a medical procedure or operation. The risk of bleeding associated with the medical procedure necessitates an interruption in the patient’s chronic oral anticoagulant therapy. In this scenario, providers are faced with several therapeutic decisions:

  • How soon before the procedure should patients stop taking oral anticoagulant?
  • During the period of time when the patient is not taking chronic oral anticoagulant, should the patient receive parenteral bridging anticoagulant therapy?
  • After the procedure, when should patients restart chronic oral anticoagulant therapy?

‘Bridge’ anticoagulant therapy is the administration of a short-acting parenteral anticoagulant during the peri-operative period, when the patient is not taking chronic oral anticoagulant.1 The intent of bridge anticoagulant therapy is to minimize both the risk of thromboembolic events and the risk of bleeding during the peri-operative period. Bridging anticoagulant therapy is appropriate for some but not all patients undergoing medical procedures.

The Data

When to discontinue warfarin? Warfarin, the most commonly prescribed oral anticoagulant, achieves its therapeutic effects by antagonizing the actions of endogenous vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors. The decision on when to stop warfarin prior to surgery is dependent on the regeneration time of coagulation factors following the discontinuation of warfarin therapy. Although warfarin’s half-life is typically 36-42 hours, its therapeutic effects typically last up to five days in healthy subjects and often longer in elderly patients.2

Current guidelines recommend the discontinuation of warfarin at least five days prior to surgery (Grade 1C recommendation).3 Despite this recommendation, approximately 7% of patients will still have an international normalized ratio (INR) >1.5 after not taking warfarin for five days.4 For this reason, the guidelines recommend that all patients have their INR checked on the day of surgery. For those patients with an INR of 1.5 to 1.9 on the day prior to surgery, there is evidence to show that administration of 1 mg of vitamin K will lower the INR to 1.4 in greater than 90% of cases.5

Assessment of peri-procedural thrombotic risk. Knowledge of a patient’s past medical history is critical in helping providers stratify the patient’s peri-procedural thrombotic risk. According to the 2012 American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) guidelines, a history of atrial fibrillation (Afib), mechanical heart valve(s), and previous VTE are independent risk factors for peri-procedural thrombotic events.3 Hospitalists may risk-stratify their patients based on the anticipated annualized rate of thrombosis or embolization: <5%, 5%-10%, or >15% for the respective low, medium, and high-risk groups.6

Patients with Afib history. For these patients, the CHADS2 score helps to stratify the risk of peri-procedural thrombosis. Low risk is defined as a CHADS2 score of zero to two, assuming that the two points were not scored for transient ischemic attack (TIA) or cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Any patient with a TIA or CVA within the previous three months is automatically considered high risk. Medium risk is a score of three or four.

 

 

In addition to the aforementioned TIA or CVA within the prior three months, high-risk patients also include those with a CHADS2 score of five or six or any patient with a history of rheumatic heart disease.3 Patients with CHADS2 scores less than five but with a TIA or CVA greater than three months in the past are high risk.7

Presence of mechanical heart valve(s). For patients with a mechanical heart valve, knowledge of the valve type and location is essential to assist hospitalists in stratifying the risk of peri-procedural thrombosis. The current ACCP guidelines consider patients with bileaflet aortic valve prostheses without additional risk factors for stroke or atrial fibrillation to be low risk.3

The guidelines define the following characteristics as medium risk for patients: the presence of a bileaflet valve with additional risk factors for stroke such as atrial fibrillation, age greater than 75, prior CVA (more than six months prior), hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or congestive heart failure.

Patients at high risk include those with aortic valve prosthesis with a caged-ball or tilting disc, patients with mitral valve prosthesis, and those with a mechanical valve with CVA or TIA during the prior six months.7

Hospitalists should identify high-risk patients as those with VTE that has occurred within three months or those with severe thrombophilias such as Protein C or S deficiency, antithrombin III deficiency, or antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.

History of previous VTE. For these patients, the duration of time that has passed since their last VTE event is an important factor in helping to stratify their risk for peri-procedural thrombosis. Hospitalists should consider patients low risk if they had VTE more than one year prior to the procedure.

Medium-risk patients are those with VTE events in the preceding three to twelve months, those with recurrent VTE, those with active cancer who have received cancer therapy within six months, or patients with non-severe thrombophilias (e.g. heterogenous factor V Leiden or prothrombin gene mutation).

Hospitalists should identify high-risk patients as those with VTE that has occurred within three months or those with severe thrombophilias such as Protein C or S deficiency, antithrombin III deficiency, or antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.

Assessment of procedure-related thrombotic risk. The type of anticipated procedure itself conveys peri-procedural thrombotic risk. For example, heart valve replacement, carotid endarterectomy, or other major vascular surgeries automatically stratify patients in the high-risk category, regardless of underlying medication condition.

Assessment of bleeding risk. Hospitalists must identify any preexisting bleeding risk factors (i.e., hemophilias or thrombocytopenia) in addition to the post-procedural bleeding risks. Risk factors for increased post-procedural bleeding include: major surgery with extensive tissue injury, procedures involving highly vascularized organs, removal of large colonic polyps, urological procedures, placement of implantable cardioverter-defibrillator/pacemakers, and procedures at sites where minor bleeding would be clinically devastating, such as the brain or spine.3

Thus, communication with the proceduralist or surgeon regarding the anticipated bleeding risk is vital.

Should the patient receive bridging anticoagulation? Patients considered high risk for peri-procedural thrombosis should receive peri-procedural bridging anticoagulation therapy, while those considered low risk should not. For patients with a moderate peri-procedural risk of thrombosis, hospitalists should base the decision on individual and anticipated pre-surgical/procedural thrombotic risks.

Recent evidence suggests that bridging anticoagulation should be avoided in patients undergoing procedures with high bleeding risk who are not at high thromboembolic risk.8

Selection and pre-operative discontinuation of bridging medication. Current ACCP guidelines only support the use of unfractionated heparin (UFH) or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) as bridging anticoagulants.3 Evidence supports the use of either intravenous UFH (goal aPTT 1.5 to two times control aPTT) or enoxaparin (1 mg/kg BID or 1.5 mg/kg once daily).9 UFH is preferred over LMWH in patients with chronic kidney disease stage IV or V due to a more predictable pharmacokinetic profile.

 

 

Clinicians should initiate a bridge when a patient’s INR falls to less than 2.0 and discontinue the UFH bridge four to six hours prior to the procedure.10 The recent update to the guidelines now states that LMWH should be discontinued 24, instead of 12, hours prior to the procedure.3

When to restart UHF or LMWH bridge post-procedure. The type of procedure being performed dictates when bridging anticoagulation should resume. In patients who have undergone surgeries that involve high bleeding risk, LMWH should not be administered until 48-72 hours post-surgery (Grade 2C evidence).3 For those patients undergoing surgeries with low bleeding risk, bridging should be resumed approximately 24 hours after the procedure.

Of note, enoxaparin administered in one single daily dose, as compared to divided doses, is associated with a greater risk of post-operative bleeding. UFH bridging should resume post-operatively without a bolus dose at 24 hours in low-risk bleeding cases or 48-72 hours in high-risk bleeding cases (Grade 2C evidence).3

On occasion, unanticipated adjustments to surgical cases—or complications—change the previously determined post-operative bleeding risk. In these instances, the hospitalist and surgeon/proceduralist should review the case and reassess the bleeding risk prior to employing bridging anticoagulation protocols.

When to restart long-term vitamin K antagonists (VKA) post-procedure. In most instances, regardless of pre-operative bleeding risk stratification, the resumption of VKA may occur once post-operative hemostasis has been achieved and the patient has been instructed to resume eating by the proceduralist or surgeon. This most often occurs on the calendar day following surgery, because it takes approximately five days for an INR to achieve therapeutic levels.

Back to the Case

The patient’s history of prosthetic valve with stroke within the preceding six months stratified her to a high thrombotic risk category. Given the high risk of thrombosis, the decision was made to bridge with LMWH. The hospitalist discontinued LMWH 24 hours prior to surgery, and INR was checked on the morning of the procedure.

Although the patient underwent the operation without significant bleeding, the adjustment from an exploratory laparoscopy to an open laparotomy increased her post-operative bleeding risk from medium to high. Therefore, bridging anticoagulation with LMWH was resumed no sooner than 48 hours after the operation. Her warfarin was restarted on the day following surgery, once she resumed her diet.

Bottom Line

Hospitalists must understand both the pre- and post-procedure thrombotic risks, as well as the pre- and post-procedural bleeding risks, when determining the selection and logistics of initiation and cessation of antithrombotic bridging for inpatients.


Drs. McCormick, Carbo, and Li are hospitalists at Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center in Boston. Dr. Kerbel is a hospitalist at the University of California Los Angeles.

Key Points

  • The CHADS2 score, the presence of heart valve type and location, and the duration of time since previous VTE events help guide our understanding of the peri-procedural thrombotic risk in patients with atrial fibrillation, mechanical heart valves, and prior VTE. The type of procedure and the presence of inherited or acquired bleeding diatheses guides our understanding of the bleeding risk.
  • Patients at high risk for thrombotic events should receive bridging anticoagulation, while patients at low risk do not require bridging anticoagulation. There is insufficient evidence to guide the use of bridging anticoagulation in patients with medium risk for thrombotic events. Hospitalists will need to use their own best judgment in these patients.
  • The bleeding risk associated with medical procedures or surgery dictates when to resume bridging anticoagulation. Communication with the proceduralist or surgeon is essential.

References

  1. BRIDGE Study Investigators. Bridging anticoagulation: is it needed when warfarin is interrupted around the time of a surgery or procedure? Circulation. 2012;125(12):e496-498.
  2. Ansell J, Hirsh J, Hylek E, Jacobson A, Crowther M, Palareti G. Pharmacology and management of the vitamin K antagonists: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines (8th Edition). Chest. 2008;133(6 Suppl):160S-198S.
  3. Douketis JD, Spyropoulos AC, Spencer FA, et al. Perioperative management of antithrombotic therapy: Antithrombotic Therapy and Prevention of Thrombosis, 9th ed: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines. Chest. 2012;141(2 Suppl):e326S-350S.
  4. Kovacs MJ, Kearon C, Rodger M, et al. Single-arm study of bridging therapy with low-molecular-weight heparin for patients at risk of arterial embolism who require temporary interruption of warfarin. Circulation. 2004;110(12):1658-1663.
  5. Woods K, Douketis JD, Kathirgamanathan K, Yi Q, Crowther MA. Low-dose oral vitamin K to normalize the international normalized ratio prior to surgery in patients who require temporary interruption of warfarin. J Thromb Thrombolysis. 2007;24(2):93-97.
  6. Ortel TL. Perioperative management of patients on chronic antithrombotic therapy. Blood. 2012;120(24):4699-4705.
  7. Kaatz S, Douketis JD, Zhou H, Gage BF, White RH. Risk of stroke after surgery in patients with and without chronic atrial fibrillation. J Thromb Haemost. 2010;8(5):884-890.
  8. Siegal D, Yudin J, Kaatz S, Douketis JD, Lim W, Spyropoulos AC. Periprocedural heparin bridging in patients receiving vitamin K antagonists: systematic review and meta-analysis of bleeding and thromboembolic rates. Circulation. 2012;126(13):1630-1639.
  9. Lee AY, Levine MN, Baker RI, et al. Low-molecular-weight heparin versus a coumarin for the prevention of recurrent venous thromboembolism in patients with cancer. N Engl J Med. 2003;349(2):146-153.
  10. Hirsh J, Raschke R. Heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin: the Seventh ACCP Conference on Antithrombotic and Thrombolytic Therapy. Chest. 2004;126(3 Suppl):188S-203S.
 

 

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