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fagges
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faiged
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faiges
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felched
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felchered
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felchingly
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fellateing
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fellatioing
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feltched
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feltches
feltching
feltchly
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feomed
feomer
feomes
feoming
feomly
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fisteder
fistedes
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fisting
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fistyer
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fistying
fistyly
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floozyed
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floozyes
floozying
floozyly
floozys
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foaded
foader
foades
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foadly
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fondleer
fondlees
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foobarly
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freexed
freexer
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freexly
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frigga
friggaed
friggaer
friggaes
friggaing
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frigger
frigges
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friggly
friggs
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fubared
fubarer
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fubarly
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fuckedly
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fuckered
fuckerer
fuckeres
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Laryngopharyngeal reflux: More questions than answers

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Laryngopharyngeal reflux: More questions than answers

The scenario is common: a patient complains of chronic hoarseness, cough, throat-clearing, sore throat, dysphagia, or a lump in the throat and undergoes laryngoscopy. If this test rules out cancer, the patient is given a diagnosis of laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR), ie, a form of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in which the stomach contents get all the way up into the pharynx and down into the larynx. A proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is often prescribed, usually twice daily for 2 months.1–6

Unfortunately, the diagnosis and treatment of LPR remain controversial in the absence of solid evidence from randomized, placebo-controlled trials. The signs and symptoms (Table 1) are not specific, and even though the diagnosis of LPR is considered if edema, erythema, ventricular obliteration, pseudosulcus, or postcricoid hyperplasia is documented on laryngoscopy,4 interpretation of the laryngoscopic features is subjective.

In this article, we review the current understanding of the pathophysiology of LPR and evaluate current diagnostic tests and treatment regimens for patients with suspected LPR.

THE PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OF LPR IS POORLY UNDERSTOOD

Transient relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter

In a study in 10 healthy volunteers, Dent et al7 found that the pressure in the lower esophageal sphincter varies considerably over a 12-hour period. Episodes of reflux were not related to low basal (resting) pressure. Rather, 70% to 100% of reflux episodes occurred during random episodes of transient, complete, and inappropriate relaxation of the sphincter that lasted about 5 to 30 seconds. The mechanism of this relaxation is not known but is thought to be related to activation of the vagus nerve, possibly as a consequence of gastric distention.8

Gastric, not duodenal products seem to cause the damage

In a study in dogs, Adhami et al9 evaluated the possible role of gastric juices (acid and pepsin) vs duodenal juices (bile acids and trypsin) in laryngeal tissue damage. After taking baseline biopsy samples of the larynx, the investigators applied a variety of gastric and duodenal enzymes at varying pH levels (pH 1–7) to the larynxes. After 9 to 12 applications, they took another biopsy and assessed the changes visually and histologically.

At low (ie, acidic) pH levels, pepsin and conjugated bile acids were the most injurious, causing erythema and histologic evidence of inflammation. The authors concluded that gastric and not duodenal substances cause laryngeal injury and that acid-suppressive therapy “should eliminate the injurious potential” of acid reflux.9

The larynx is more sensitive than the esophagus

Monitoring of esophageal pH has shown that healthy people can tolerate as many as 50 episodes a day of acid reflux (pH < 4) in the esophagus. However, Koufman10 found that as few as three episodes of laryngeal reflux per week can cause severe laryngeal inflammation and injury.

Does pepsin deplete buffers, worsening acid damage?

Johnston et al11 took biopsies from a control group of healthy volunteers and from patients diagnosed with LPR. They detected pepsin in the samples from eight of the nine patients with LPR but in none of the controls. Furthermore, the tissue from patients with LPR had low levels of carbonic anhydrase III. The authors hypothesized that pepsin depletes the laryngopharynx of carbonic anhydrase III, and that therefore these tissues cannot produce enough bicarbonate to buffer the gastric acid. Less bicarbonate would mean greater acidity, so the pepsin would remain active and would be more likely to cause cellular damage.11

However, this contention is controversial. What is universally agreed upon is that reflux of gastric or gastroduodenal contents is most likely causing injury, most likely through direct exposure, although indirect effects through vagal mechanisms cannot be ruled out.

CURRENT DIAGNOSTIC TESTS FOR LPR HAVE SHORTCOMINGS

The diagnosis of LPR has become more common over the last few years,4 and by some estimates up to 10% of patients presenting to ear-nose-throat physicians have complaints related to GERD.12 However, current diagnostic tests for reflux and LPR have many shortcomings and can lead to misdiagnosis of this disease (Table 2).

A careful history is important. Many patients report they have sore throat, hoarseness, cough, dysphasia, or chronic throat-clearing.13 Factors that may predispose a patient to esophageal reflux should be discussed, eg:

  • Tobacco use
  • Diet (eg, soda, spicy foods, fatty foods)
  • Alcohol use
  • Certain drugs (calcium channel blockers, nitrates, steroids).

Up to 50% of patients presenting with extraesophageal symptoms may not have classic reflux symptoms such as heartburn and regur-gitation.14 However, the existence of “silent reflux” is currently controversial.

 

 

Laryngoscopy is nonspecific and subjective

Because the key symptoms of LPR are nonspecific, many patients who present to an otolaryngologist undergo laryngoscopy, mainly to rule out malignancy. Once cancer is ruled out, many patients are given a diagnosis of LPR.

Figure 1.
Laryngoscopic findings often imputed to LPR (Figure 1) include erythema, edema, ventricular obliteration, postcricoid hyperplasia, and pseudosulcus.4 Of these, edema was the finding most often used to diagnose LPR in one analysis.15 However, Milstein et al16 discovered at least one sign of laryngeal tissue irritation in 80% to 90% of patients tested who did not have a history of an ear-nose-throat complaint or a diagnosis of GERD.

Furthermore, Branski et al17 performed transoral rigid laryngoscopy with videorecording in 100 consecutive patients presenting with a chief complaint of dysphonia. Five board-certified otolaryngologists individually viewed each recording, scored the degree of erythema and edema, and assessed the likelihood that LPR played a role in dysphonia and the severity of the LPR findings. The physicians’ ratings showed considerable interobserver variability. In other words, this study showed that laryngeal findings are often nonspecific and that the laryngoscopic diagnosis of LPR tends to be subjective.17

The Reflux Finding Score. Concerned by the lack of consistency in the diagnosis of LPR, Belafsky et al18 created a scoring system for documenting the physical findings and severity of disease on a standardized scale. Their Reflux Finding Score is based on eight laryngoscopic findings: subglottic edema, ventricular edema, erythema, vocal cord edema, diffuse laryngeal edema, hypertrophy of the posterior commissure, granuloma or granulation tissue, and thick endolaryngeal mucus. The total score can range from 0 (best) to 26 (worst).

In 40 patients with LPR confirmed by pH monitoring, the mean score was 11.5, compared with 5.2 in 40 age-matched controls. The authors calculated they could be 95% certain that a person with a score higher than 7 has LPR.18

However, this diagnostic method has not been validated in a large-scale randomized trial and so has yet to be incorporated into routine otolaryngology practice.

Ambulatory pH monitoring is not so golden for diagnosing LPR

Although pH monitoring was once the gold standard for diagnosing reflux, it has since been shown to be unreliable in patients who have laryngeal symptoms.4

How high or low in the esophagus the probe is placed is clearly critical for useful results. 4 But the test is subject to variability: different physicians place the probe in different locations, and the probe may shift. Another problem is that reflux may occur during untested periods.19

A pH of less than 4 in the esophagus had originally been shown to have high sensitivity and specificity,20 but Reichel and Issing21 suggested using a pH of less than 5 as the cutoff, which would identify more patients as having LPR. Further trials are needed to more precisely determine the pH threshold for the diagnosis of LPR.

Enthusiasm is waning for pharyngeal pH monitoring

In LPR, it was initially thought that pH monitoring in the pharynx was more accurate than in the distal or proximal esophagus.

Shaker et al22 monitored the pH in the pharynx, proximal esophagus, and distal esophagus in four groups: 14 patients who had both laryngeal signs and symptoms, 12 patients who had laryngeal symptoms only, 16 patients who had GERD but no laryngeal symptoms, and 12 healthy volunteers. They found that pharyngeal reflux was more frequent and in greater quantity in patients with laryngeal signs and symptoms than in the other groups. This study suggested that pharyngeal pH monitoring may be useful in diagnosing LPR in patients who have laryngeal signs and symptoms.

However, hypopharyngeal pH monitoring has several problems. One issue is that, even in this trial, 2 of 12 healthy volunteers had episodes of pharyngeal reflux.22 In other studies, the rate of false-positive results ranged from 7% to 17%.23,24 Additionally, in 12 previous studies, only 54% of 1,217 patients with suspected LPR had esophageal acid exposure, regardless of where the pH probe was placed.25

More importantly, another study found that patients with pharyngeal reflux documented by pH monitoring were no more likely to respond to acid-suppressive therapy than patients with no documented reflux.26 These findings dampen the enthusiasm for pharyngeal pH monitoring in LPR.

Impedance monitoring on therapy may be useful in refractory cases

Esophageal impedance monitoring, a newer test, uses a catheter that measures electrical resistance (impedance) between different points along the esophagus. Thus, it can detect the reflux of acid and nonacid liquid or gaseous material.

Pritchett et al27 performed esophageal impedance and pH monitoring in 39 patients who were on twice-daily PPI therapy and then evaluated the same patients with wireless pH monitoring while they were off therapy. The most prevalent complaint in the study group was cough (56%), followed by heartburn (18%) and sore throat (10%).

Of the 39 patients, 25 (64%) had normal results on impedance/pH monitoring while on therapy, ruling out reflux. On pH monitoring off therapy, 28 (72%) of the 39 patients had abnormal results; this group included 13 (93%) of the 14 patients who had abnormal results on impedance/pH monitoring while on therapy. The authors recommended on-therapy testing with impedance monitoring in patients with refractory reflux, since it provides more useful clinical information.27 If the results of impedance/pH monitoring are negative in these patients, a diagnosis other than reflux should be considered.

 

 

EMPIRIC PPI TREATMENT HAS SHOWN DISAPPOINTING RESULTS

Because laryngoscopy and pH monitoring are not very sensitive or specific for LPR, experts recommend empiric therapy with a PPI twice daily. However, the results have been disappointing when PPIs were compared with placebo in clinical trials.

In a randomized controlled trial,28 we found that patients who had complaints of chronic throat-clearing, cough, globus, sore throat, and hoarseness had a similar response to twice-daily esomeprazole (Nexium) compared with placebo: their primary symptom had resolved by 16 weeks in 14.7% of the esomeprazole group vs 16.0% of the placebo group (P = .799). Similarly, the final findings on laryngoscopy such as edema, erythema, and surface irregularity were not significantly different between groups.

From Qadeer MA, et al. Proton pump inhibitor therapy for suspected GERD-related chronic laryngitis: a meta analysis of randomized controlled trials. Am J Gastroenterol 2006; 101:2646–2654. Used with permission from Nature Publishing Group.
Figure 2. Forest plot depicting the risk ratio and 95% confidence intervals of individual studies assessing the efficacy of proton pump inhibitors in reflux laryngitis, and the pooled risk ratio by the random effects method.
In addition, a meta-analysis29 of randomized controlled trials of PPIs for suspected GERD-related chronic laryngitis also had disappointing results (Figure 2). In this study, Qadeer et al analyzed eight trials30–37 with a total of 344 patients (195 on a PPI, 149 on placebo). In five of the trials,30–34 PPI therapy was superior to placebo in terms of the proportion of patients who had more than a 50% reduction in self-reported laryngeal symptoms, although the difference was statistically significant in only one of them.33 In the other three studies, more patients responded to placebo than to a PPI.35–37 When data from all eight trials were pooled, there was no significant difference between a PPI and placebo (risk ratio 1.28, confidence interval 0.94– 1.74). The absolute rate of response to PPIs was 50%, vs 41% for placebo.29

Adding a histamine-2 receptor antagonist is not recommended

Adding a histamine-2 receptor antagonist to PPI therapy has also been considered as a treatment for LPR.

Fackler et al38 studied 16 GERD patients and 18 healthy volunteers to determine if adding ranitidine (Pepcid) to the PPI omeprazole (Prilosec) could improve GERD symptoms. Patients underwent baseline manometry and then gastroesophageal pH monitoring before starting the drugs. They first received omeprazole 20 mg twice daily alone for 2 weeks, and then added ranitidine 300 mg at bedtime. A pH test was done again after the first day of treatment with ranitidine, at the end of 1 week of combination therapy, and after 4 weeks of combination therapy. The combination reduced nocturnal acid breakthrough on day 1; however, due to tolerance to ranitidine, no significant difference in acid suppression was seen after 1 week of therapy. Therefore, this combination is not recommended.

Surgery is not recommended either

Some experts have argued for surgical fundoplication in patients whose symptoms persist despite drug therapy.

Swoger et al39 treated 72 patients who had symptoms consistent with LPR with a PPI for 4 months; 25 patients in this group had less than a 50% improvement despite maximal drug therapy. Ten of these patients underwent surgical fundoplication, and 15 remained on drug therapy alone. At 1 year of follow-up, only one surgical patient (10%) reported improvement in laryngeal symptoms.

In view of this report and prior studies of surgical fundoplication,40 surgery is not recommended for patients whose symptoms do not respond to aggressive PPI therapy.

IF A PPI FAILS, LOOK FOR OTHER CAUSES OF SYMPTOMS

Although gastroesophageal reflux and laryngeal signs and symptoms have been associated with one another, this relation may have been overstated, leading to the overdiagnosis of LPR.

The diagnosis of LPR is difficult, as laryngoscopy has high interrater variability and as the results of pH monitoring do not dependably predict who will respond to treatment.

Because PPI therapy is easy and appears to be safe, patients with extraesophageal symptoms thought to be related to reflux should undergo a trial of twice-daily PPI therapy for at least 2 months. If the patient responds to therapy, then tapering to once-daily therapy initially and then to minimal acid suppression to control symptoms would be prudent.

In patients who show no improvement, other causes of symptoms should be explored. Diseases that can mimic LPR include postnasal drip, allergies, sinus inflammation, and various pulmonary diseases. These patients should also be advised to adopt lifestyle modifications—eg, to stop smoking, lose weight, and decrease activities that cause stress on the voice. Surgery is not likely to provide any benefit in this situation. The patient should be tapered off the PPI to make sure no rebound acid reflux occurs.

References
  1. Nebel OT, Fornes MF, Castell DO. Symptomatic gastroesophageal reflux: incidence and precipitating factors. Am J Dig Dis 1976; 21:953956.
  2. Kahrilas PJ, Shaheen NJ, Vaezi MF; American Gastroenterological Association Institute; Clinical Practice and Quality Management Committee. American Gastroenterological Association Institute technical review on the management of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroenterology 2008; 135:13921413.
  3. Jonaitis L, Pribuisiene R, Kupcinskas L, Uloza V. Laryngeal examination is superior to endoscopy in the diagnosis of the laryngopharyngeal form of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Scand J Gastroenterol 2006; 41:131137.
  4. Vaezi MF, Hicks DM, Abelson TI, Richter JE. Laryngeal signs and symptoms and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD): a critical assessment of cause and effect association. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2003; 1:333344.
  5. Jaspersen D, Kulig M, Labenz J, et al. Prevalence of extra-oesophageal manifestations in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease: an analysis based on the ProGERD study. Aliment Pharmacol Ther 2003; 17:15151520.
  6. Karkos PD, Benton J, Leong SC, et al. Trends in laryngopharyngeal reflux: a British ENT survey. Eur Arch Otorhinolaryngol 2007; 264:513517.
  7. Dent J, Dodds WJ, Friedman RH, et al. Mechanism of gastroesophageal reflux in recumbent asymptomatic human subjects. J Clin Invest 1980; 65:256267.
  8. Schreiber S, Garten D, Sudhoff H, et al. Pathophysiological mechanisms of extraesophageal reflux in otolaryngeal disorders. Eur Arch Otorhinolaryngol 2009; 266:1724.
  9. Adhami T, Goldblum JR, Richter JE, Vaezi MF. The role of gastric and duodenal agents in laryngeal injury: an experimental canine model. Am J Gastroenterol 2004; 99:20982106.
  10. Koufman JA. The otolaryngologic manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD): a clinical investigation of 225 patients using ambulatory 24-hour pH monitoring and an experimental investigation of the role of acid and pepsin in the development of laryngeal injury. Laryngoscope 1991; 101(4 pt 2 suppl 53):178.
  11. Johnston N, Knight J, Dettmar PW, Lively MO, Koufman J. Pepsin and carbonic anhydrase isoenzyme III as diagnostic markers for laryngopharyngeal reflux disease. Laryngoscope 2004; 114:21292134.
  12. Vaezi MF. Therapy insight: gastroesophageal reflux disease and laryngopharyngeal reflux. Nat Clin Pract Gastroenterol Hepatol 2005; 2:595603.
  13. Farrokhi F, Vaezi MF. Extra-esophageal manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux. Oral Dis 2007; 13:349359.
  14. Koufman JA. Laryngopharyngeal reflux is different from classic gastroesophageal reflux disease. Ear Nose Throat J 2002; 81( 9 suppl 2):79.
  15. Koufman JA, Amin MR, Panetti M. Prevalence of reflux in 113 consecutive patients with laryngeal and voice disorders. Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2000; 123:385388.
  16. Milstein CF, Charbel S, Hicks DM, Abelson TI, Richter JE, Vaezi MF. Prevalence of laryngeal irritation signs associated with reflux in asymptomatic volunteers: impact of endoscopic technique (rigid vs flexible scope). Laryngoscope 2005; 115;22562261.
  17. Branski RC, Bhattacharyya N, Shapiro J. The reliability of the assessment of endoscopic laryngeal findings associated with laryngopharyngeal reflux disease. Laryngoscope 2002; 112;10191024.
  18. Belafsky PC, Postma GN, Koufman JA. The validity and reliability of the reflux finding score (RFS). Laryngoscope 2001; 111:13131317.
  19. Gupta R, Sataloff RT. Laryngopharyngeal reflux: current concepts and questions. Curr Opin Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2009; 17:143148.
  20. Jamieson JR, Stein HJ, DeMeester TR, et al. Ambulatory 24-h esophageal pH monitoring: normal values, optimal thresholds, specificity, sensitivity, and reproducibility. Am J Gastroenterol 1992; 87:11021111.
  21. Reichel O, Issing WJ. Impact of different pH thresholds for 24-h dual probe pH monitoring in patients with suspected laryngopharyngeal reflux. J Laryngol Otol 2008; 122:485489.
  22. Shaker R, Milbrath M, Ren J, et al. Esophagopharyngeal distribution of refluxed gastric acid in patients with reflux laryngitis. Gastroenterology 1995; 109:15751582.
  23. Jacob P, Kahrilas PJ, Herzon G. Proximal esophageal pH-metry in patients with “reflux laryngitis.” Gastroenterology 1991; 100:305310.
  24. Eubanks TR, Omelanczuk PE, Maronian N, Hillel A, Pope CE, Pellegrini CA. Pharyngeal pH monitoring in 222 patients with suspected laryngeal reflux. J Gastrointest Surg 2001; 5:183190.
  25. Vaezi MF. Gastroesophageal reflux disease and the larynx. J Clin Gastroenterol 2003; 36:198203.
  26. Ulualp SO, Toohill RJ, Shaker R. Outcomes of acid suppressive therapy in patients with posterior laryngitis. Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2001; 124:1622.
  27. Pritchett JM, Aslam M, Slaughter JC, Ness RM, Garrett CG, Vaezi MF. Efficacy of esophageal impedance/pH monitoring in patients with refractory gastroesophageal reflux disease, on and off therapy. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2009; 7:743748.
  28. Vaezi MF, Richter JE, Stasney CR, et al. Treatment of chronic posterior laryngitis with esomeprazole. Laryngoscope 2006; 116;254260.
  29. Qadeer MA, Phillips CO, Lopez AR, et al. Proton pump inhibitor therapy for suspected GERD-related chronic laryngitis: a meta analysis of randomized controlled trials. Am J Gastroenterol 2006; 101:26462654.
  30. Eherer AJ, Habermann W, Hammer HF, et al. Effect of pantoprazole on the course of reflux-associated laryngitis: a placebo-controlled double-blind crossover study. Scand J Gastroenterol 2003; 38:462467.
  31. El-Serag HB, Lee P, Buchner A, et al. Lansoprazole treatment of patients with chronic idiopathic laryngitis: a placebo-controlled trial. Am J Gastroenterol 2001; 96:979983.
  32. Noordzij JP, Khidr A, Evans BA, et al. Evaluation of omeprazole in the treatment of reflux laryngitis: a prospective, placebo-controlled, randomized, double-blind study. Laryngoscope 2001; 111:21472151.
  33. Langevin S, Hanh N. GERD-induced ENT symptoms: a prospective placebo controlled study with omeprazole 40 mg a day. Gastroenterology 2001; 120:A-16.
  34. Havas T, Huang S, Levy M, et al. Posterior pharyngolaryngitis. Double blind randomized placebo-controlled trial of proton pump inhibitor therapy. Aust J Otolaryng 1999; 3:243246.
  35. Vaezi MF, Richter JE, Stasney CR, et al. Treatment of chronic posterior laryngitis with esomeprazole. Laryngoscope 2006; 116:254260.
  36. Wo JM, Koopman JI, Harrell SP, et al. Double-blind placebo-controlled trial with single-dose pantoprazole for laryngopharyngeal reflux. Am J Gastroenterol 2006; 101:19721978.
  37. Steward DL, Wilson KM, Kelly DH, et al. Proton pump inhibitor therapy for chronic laryngo-pharyngitis: a randomized placebo-control trial. Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2004; 131:342350.
  38. Fackler WK, Ours TM, Vaezi MF, Richter JE. Long term effect of H2RA therapy on nocturnal gastric acid breakthrough. Gastroenterology 2002; 122:625632.
  39. Swoger J, Ponsky J, Hicks DM, et al. Surgical fundoplication in laryngeal reflux unresponsive to aggressive acid suppression: a controlled study. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2006; 4:433441.
  40. So JB, Zeitels SM, Rattner DW. Outcome of atypical symptoms attributed to gastroesophageal reflux treated by laparoscopic fundoplication. Surgery 1998; 124:2832.
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David W. Barry, MD
Division of Medicine, Vanderbilt, University Medical Center, Nashville, TN

Michael F. Vaezi, MD, PhD, MS(Epi)*
Director, Center for Swallowing and Esophageal, Disorders; Clinical Director, Division of Gastroenterology; Professor of Medicine, Vanderbilt University Medical, Center, Nashville, TN

Address: Michael F. Vaezi, MD, PhD, MS(Epi), Center for Swallowing and Esophageal Disorders, Vanderbilt University Medical Center, C2104-MCN, Nashville, TN 37232-5280; e-mail [email protected]

Dr. Vaezi has disclosed receiving funding for research from Takeda and AstraZeneca.

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David W. Barry, MD
Division of Medicine, Vanderbilt, University Medical Center, Nashville, TN

Michael F. Vaezi, MD, PhD, MS(Epi)*
Director, Center for Swallowing and Esophageal, Disorders; Clinical Director, Division of Gastroenterology; Professor of Medicine, Vanderbilt University Medical, Center, Nashville, TN

Address: Michael F. Vaezi, MD, PhD, MS(Epi), Center for Swallowing and Esophageal Disorders, Vanderbilt University Medical Center, C2104-MCN, Nashville, TN 37232-5280; e-mail [email protected]

Dr. Vaezi has disclosed receiving funding for research from Takeda and AstraZeneca.

Author and Disclosure Information

David W. Barry, MD
Division of Medicine, Vanderbilt, University Medical Center, Nashville, TN

Michael F. Vaezi, MD, PhD, MS(Epi)*
Director, Center for Swallowing and Esophageal, Disorders; Clinical Director, Division of Gastroenterology; Professor of Medicine, Vanderbilt University Medical, Center, Nashville, TN

Address: Michael F. Vaezi, MD, PhD, MS(Epi), Center for Swallowing and Esophageal Disorders, Vanderbilt University Medical Center, C2104-MCN, Nashville, TN 37232-5280; e-mail [email protected]

Dr. Vaezi has disclosed receiving funding for research from Takeda and AstraZeneca.

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The scenario is common: a patient complains of chronic hoarseness, cough, throat-clearing, sore throat, dysphagia, or a lump in the throat and undergoes laryngoscopy. If this test rules out cancer, the patient is given a diagnosis of laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR), ie, a form of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in which the stomach contents get all the way up into the pharynx and down into the larynx. A proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is often prescribed, usually twice daily for 2 months.1–6

Unfortunately, the diagnosis and treatment of LPR remain controversial in the absence of solid evidence from randomized, placebo-controlled trials. The signs and symptoms (Table 1) are not specific, and even though the diagnosis of LPR is considered if edema, erythema, ventricular obliteration, pseudosulcus, or postcricoid hyperplasia is documented on laryngoscopy,4 interpretation of the laryngoscopic features is subjective.

In this article, we review the current understanding of the pathophysiology of LPR and evaluate current diagnostic tests and treatment regimens for patients with suspected LPR.

THE PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OF LPR IS POORLY UNDERSTOOD

Transient relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter

In a study in 10 healthy volunteers, Dent et al7 found that the pressure in the lower esophageal sphincter varies considerably over a 12-hour period. Episodes of reflux were not related to low basal (resting) pressure. Rather, 70% to 100% of reflux episodes occurred during random episodes of transient, complete, and inappropriate relaxation of the sphincter that lasted about 5 to 30 seconds. The mechanism of this relaxation is not known but is thought to be related to activation of the vagus nerve, possibly as a consequence of gastric distention.8

Gastric, not duodenal products seem to cause the damage

In a study in dogs, Adhami et al9 evaluated the possible role of gastric juices (acid and pepsin) vs duodenal juices (bile acids and trypsin) in laryngeal tissue damage. After taking baseline biopsy samples of the larynx, the investigators applied a variety of gastric and duodenal enzymes at varying pH levels (pH 1–7) to the larynxes. After 9 to 12 applications, they took another biopsy and assessed the changes visually and histologically.

At low (ie, acidic) pH levels, pepsin and conjugated bile acids were the most injurious, causing erythema and histologic evidence of inflammation. The authors concluded that gastric and not duodenal substances cause laryngeal injury and that acid-suppressive therapy “should eliminate the injurious potential” of acid reflux.9

The larynx is more sensitive than the esophagus

Monitoring of esophageal pH has shown that healthy people can tolerate as many as 50 episodes a day of acid reflux (pH < 4) in the esophagus. However, Koufman10 found that as few as three episodes of laryngeal reflux per week can cause severe laryngeal inflammation and injury.

Does pepsin deplete buffers, worsening acid damage?

Johnston et al11 took biopsies from a control group of healthy volunteers and from patients diagnosed with LPR. They detected pepsin in the samples from eight of the nine patients with LPR but in none of the controls. Furthermore, the tissue from patients with LPR had low levels of carbonic anhydrase III. The authors hypothesized that pepsin depletes the laryngopharynx of carbonic anhydrase III, and that therefore these tissues cannot produce enough bicarbonate to buffer the gastric acid. Less bicarbonate would mean greater acidity, so the pepsin would remain active and would be more likely to cause cellular damage.11

However, this contention is controversial. What is universally agreed upon is that reflux of gastric or gastroduodenal contents is most likely causing injury, most likely through direct exposure, although indirect effects through vagal mechanisms cannot be ruled out.

CURRENT DIAGNOSTIC TESTS FOR LPR HAVE SHORTCOMINGS

The diagnosis of LPR has become more common over the last few years,4 and by some estimates up to 10% of patients presenting to ear-nose-throat physicians have complaints related to GERD.12 However, current diagnostic tests for reflux and LPR have many shortcomings and can lead to misdiagnosis of this disease (Table 2).

A careful history is important. Many patients report they have sore throat, hoarseness, cough, dysphasia, or chronic throat-clearing.13 Factors that may predispose a patient to esophageal reflux should be discussed, eg:

  • Tobacco use
  • Diet (eg, soda, spicy foods, fatty foods)
  • Alcohol use
  • Certain drugs (calcium channel blockers, nitrates, steroids).

Up to 50% of patients presenting with extraesophageal symptoms may not have classic reflux symptoms such as heartburn and regur-gitation.14 However, the existence of “silent reflux” is currently controversial.

 

 

Laryngoscopy is nonspecific and subjective

Because the key symptoms of LPR are nonspecific, many patients who present to an otolaryngologist undergo laryngoscopy, mainly to rule out malignancy. Once cancer is ruled out, many patients are given a diagnosis of LPR.

Figure 1.
Laryngoscopic findings often imputed to LPR (Figure 1) include erythema, edema, ventricular obliteration, postcricoid hyperplasia, and pseudosulcus.4 Of these, edema was the finding most often used to diagnose LPR in one analysis.15 However, Milstein et al16 discovered at least one sign of laryngeal tissue irritation in 80% to 90% of patients tested who did not have a history of an ear-nose-throat complaint or a diagnosis of GERD.

Furthermore, Branski et al17 performed transoral rigid laryngoscopy with videorecording in 100 consecutive patients presenting with a chief complaint of dysphonia. Five board-certified otolaryngologists individually viewed each recording, scored the degree of erythema and edema, and assessed the likelihood that LPR played a role in dysphonia and the severity of the LPR findings. The physicians’ ratings showed considerable interobserver variability. In other words, this study showed that laryngeal findings are often nonspecific and that the laryngoscopic diagnosis of LPR tends to be subjective.17

The Reflux Finding Score. Concerned by the lack of consistency in the diagnosis of LPR, Belafsky et al18 created a scoring system for documenting the physical findings and severity of disease on a standardized scale. Their Reflux Finding Score is based on eight laryngoscopic findings: subglottic edema, ventricular edema, erythema, vocal cord edema, diffuse laryngeal edema, hypertrophy of the posterior commissure, granuloma or granulation tissue, and thick endolaryngeal mucus. The total score can range from 0 (best) to 26 (worst).

In 40 patients with LPR confirmed by pH monitoring, the mean score was 11.5, compared with 5.2 in 40 age-matched controls. The authors calculated they could be 95% certain that a person with a score higher than 7 has LPR.18

However, this diagnostic method has not been validated in a large-scale randomized trial and so has yet to be incorporated into routine otolaryngology practice.

Ambulatory pH monitoring is not so golden for diagnosing LPR

Although pH monitoring was once the gold standard for diagnosing reflux, it has since been shown to be unreliable in patients who have laryngeal symptoms.4

How high or low in the esophagus the probe is placed is clearly critical for useful results. 4 But the test is subject to variability: different physicians place the probe in different locations, and the probe may shift. Another problem is that reflux may occur during untested periods.19

A pH of less than 4 in the esophagus had originally been shown to have high sensitivity and specificity,20 but Reichel and Issing21 suggested using a pH of less than 5 as the cutoff, which would identify more patients as having LPR. Further trials are needed to more precisely determine the pH threshold for the diagnosis of LPR.

Enthusiasm is waning for pharyngeal pH monitoring

In LPR, it was initially thought that pH monitoring in the pharynx was more accurate than in the distal or proximal esophagus.

Shaker et al22 monitored the pH in the pharynx, proximal esophagus, and distal esophagus in four groups: 14 patients who had both laryngeal signs and symptoms, 12 patients who had laryngeal symptoms only, 16 patients who had GERD but no laryngeal symptoms, and 12 healthy volunteers. They found that pharyngeal reflux was more frequent and in greater quantity in patients with laryngeal signs and symptoms than in the other groups. This study suggested that pharyngeal pH monitoring may be useful in diagnosing LPR in patients who have laryngeal signs and symptoms.

However, hypopharyngeal pH monitoring has several problems. One issue is that, even in this trial, 2 of 12 healthy volunteers had episodes of pharyngeal reflux.22 In other studies, the rate of false-positive results ranged from 7% to 17%.23,24 Additionally, in 12 previous studies, only 54% of 1,217 patients with suspected LPR had esophageal acid exposure, regardless of where the pH probe was placed.25

More importantly, another study found that patients with pharyngeal reflux documented by pH monitoring were no more likely to respond to acid-suppressive therapy than patients with no documented reflux.26 These findings dampen the enthusiasm for pharyngeal pH monitoring in LPR.

Impedance monitoring on therapy may be useful in refractory cases

Esophageal impedance monitoring, a newer test, uses a catheter that measures electrical resistance (impedance) between different points along the esophagus. Thus, it can detect the reflux of acid and nonacid liquid or gaseous material.

Pritchett et al27 performed esophageal impedance and pH monitoring in 39 patients who were on twice-daily PPI therapy and then evaluated the same patients with wireless pH monitoring while they were off therapy. The most prevalent complaint in the study group was cough (56%), followed by heartburn (18%) and sore throat (10%).

Of the 39 patients, 25 (64%) had normal results on impedance/pH monitoring while on therapy, ruling out reflux. On pH monitoring off therapy, 28 (72%) of the 39 patients had abnormal results; this group included 13 (93%) of the 14 patients who had abnormal results on impedance/pH monitoring while on therapy. The authors recommended on-therapy testing with impedance monitoring in patients with refractory reflux, since it provides more useful clinical information.27 If the results of impedance/pH monitoring are negative in these patients, a diagnosis other than reflux should be considered.

 

 

EMPIRIC PPI TREATMENT HAS SHOWN DISAPPOINTING RESULTS

Because laryngoscopy and pH monitoring are not very sensitive or specific for LPR, experts recommend empiric therapy with a PPI twice daily. However, the results have been disappointing when PPIs were compared with placebo in clinical trials.

In a randomized controlled trial,28 we found that patients who had complaints of chronic throat-clearing, cough, globus, sore throat, and hoarseness had a similar response to twice-daily esomeprazole (Nexium) compared with placebo: their primary symptom had resolved by 16 weeks in 14.7% of the esomeprazole group vs 16.0% of the placebo group (P = .799). Similarly, the final findings on laryngoscopy such as edema, erythema, and surface irregularity were not significantly different between groups.

From Qadeer MA, et al. Proton pump inhibitor therapy for suspected GERD-related chronic laryngitis: a meta analysis of randomized controlled trials. Am J Gastroenterol 2006; 101:2646–2654. Used with permission from Nature Publishing Group.
Figure 2. Forest plot depicting the risk ratio and 95% confidence intervals of individual studies assessing the efficacy of proton pump inhibitors in reflux laryngitis, and the pooled risk ratio by the random effects method.
In addition, a meta-analysis29 of randomized controlled trials of PPIs for suspected GERD-related chronic laryngitis also had disappointing results (Figure 2). In this study, Qadeer et al analyzed eight trials30–37 with a total of 344 patients (195 on a PPI, 149 on placebo). In five of the trials,30–34 PPI therapy was superior to placebo in terms of the proportion of patients who had more than a 50% reduction in self-reported laryngeal symptoms, although the difference was statistically significant in only one of them.33 In the other three studies, more patients responded to placebo than to a PPI.35–37 When data from all eight trials were pooled, there was no significant difference between a PPI and placebo (risk ratio 1.28, confidence interval 0.94– 1.74). The absolute rate of response to PPIs was 50%, vs 41% for placebo.29

Adding a histamine-2 receptor antagonist is not recommended

Adding a histamine-2 receptor antagonist to PPI therapy has also been considered as a treatment for LPR.

Fackler et al38 studied 16 GERD patients and 18 healthy volunteers to determine if adding ranitidine (Pepcid) to the PPI omeprazole (Prilosec) could improve GERD symptoms. Patients underwent baseline manometry and then gastroesophageal pH monitoring before starting the drugs. They first received omeprazole 20 mg twice daily alone for 2 weeks, and then added ranitidine 300 mg at bedtime. A pH test was done again after the first day of treatment with ranitidine, at the end of 1 week of combination therapy, and after 4 weeks of combination therapy. The combination reduced nocturnal acid breakthrough on day 1; however, due to tolerance to ranitidine, no significant difference in acid suppression was seen after 1 week of therapy. Therefore, this combination is not recommended.

Surgery is not recommended either

Some experts have argued for surgical fundoplication in patients whose symptoms persist despite drug therapy.

Swoger et al39 treated 72 patients who had symptoms consistent with LPR with a PPI for 4 months; 25 patients in this group had less than a 50% improvement despite maximal drug therapy. Ten of these patients underwent surgical fundoplication, and 15 remained on drug therapy alone. At 1 year of follow-up, only one surgical patient (10%) reported improvement in laryngeal symptoms.

In view of this report and prior studies of surgical fundoplication,40 surgery is not recommended for patients whose symptoms do not respond to aggressive PPI therapy.

IF A PPI FAILS, LOOK FOR OTHER CAUSES OF SYMPTOMS

Although gastroesophageal reflux and laryngeal signs and symptoms have been associated with one another, this relation may have been overstated, leading to the overdiagnosis of LPR.

The diagnosis of LPR is difficult, as laryngoscopy has high interrater variability and as the results of pH monitoring do not dependably predict who will respond to treatment.

Because PPI therapy is easy and appears to be safe, patients with extraesophageal symptoms thought to be related to reflux should undergo a trial of twice-daily PPI therapy for at least 2 months. If the patient responds to therapy, then tapering to once-daily therapy initially and then to minimal acid suppression to control symptoms would be prudent.

In patients who show no improvement, other causes of symptoms should be explored. Diseases that can mimic LPR include postnasal drip, allergies, sinus inflammation, and various pulmonary diseases. These patients should also be advised to adopt lifestyle modifications—eg, to stop smoking, lose weight, and decrease activities that cause stress on the voice. Surgery is not likely to provide any benefit in this situation. The patient should be tapered off the PPI to make sure no rebound acid reflux occurs.

The scenario is common: a patient complains of chronic hoarseness, cough, throat-clearing, sore throat, dysphagia, or a lump in the throat and undergoes laryngoscopy. If this test rules out cancer, the patient is given a diagnosis of laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR), ie, a form of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in which the stomach contents get all the way up into the pharynx and down into the larynx. A proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is often prescribed, usually twice daily for 2 months.1–6

Unfortunately, the diagnosis and treatment of LPR remain controversial in the absence of solid evidence from randomized, placebo-controlled trials. The signs and symptoms (Table 1) are not specific, and even though the diagnosis of LPR is considered if edema, erythema, ventricular obliteration, pseudosulcus, or postcricoid hyperplasia is documented on laryngoscopy,4 interpretation of the laryngoscopic features is subjective.

In this article, we review the current understanding of the pathophysiology of LPR and evaluate current diagnostic tests and treatment regimens for patients with suspected LPR.

THE PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OF LPR IS POORLY UNDERSTOOD

Transient relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter

In a study in 10 healthy volunteers, Dent et al7 found that the pressure in the lower esophageal sphincter varies considerably over a 12-hour period. Episodes of reflux were not related to low basal (resting) pressure. Rather, 70% to 100% of reflux episodes occurred during random episodes of transient, complete, and inappropriate relaxation of the sphincter that lasted about 5 to 30 seconds. The mechanism of this relaxation is not known but is thought to be related to activation of the vagus nerve, possibly as a consequence of gastric distention.8

Gastric, not duodenal products seem to cause the damage

In a study in dogs, Adhami et al9 evaluated the possible role of gastric juices (acid and pepsin) vs duodenal juices (bile acids and trypsin) in laryngeal tissue damage. After taking baseline biopsy samples of the larynx, the investigators applied a variety of gastric and duodenal enzymes at varying pH levels (pH 1–7) to the larynxes. After 9 to 12 applications, they took another biopsy and assessed the changes visually and histologically.

At low (ie, acidic) pH levels, pepsin and conjugated bile acids were the most injurious, causing erythema and histologic evidence of inflammation. The authors concluded that gastric and not duodenal substances cause laryngeal injury and that acid-suppressive therapy “should eliminate the injurious potential” of acid reflux.9

The larynx is more sensitive than the esophagus

Monitoring of esophageal pH has shown that healthy people can tolerate as many as 50 episodes a day of acid reflux (pH < 4) in the esophagus. However, Koufman10 found that as few as three episodes of laryngeal reflux per week can cause severe laryngeal inflammation and injury.

Does pepsin deplete buffers, worsening acid damage?

Johnston et al11 took biopsies from a control group of healthy volunteers and from patients diagnosed with LPR. They detected pepsin in the samples from eight of the nine patients with LPR but in none of the controls. Furthermore, the tissue from patients with LPR had low levels of carbonic anhydrase III. The authors hypothesized that pepsin depletes the laryngopharynx of carbonic anhydrase III, and that therefore these tissues cannot produce enough bicarbonate to buffer the gastric acid. Less bicarbonate would mean greater acidity, so the pepsin would remain active and would be more likely to cause cellular damage.11

However, this contention is controversial. What is universally agreed upon is that reflux of gastric or gastroduodenal contents is most likely causing injury, most likely through direct exposure, although indirect effects through vagal mechanisms cannot be ruled out.

CURRENT DIAGNOSTIC TESTS FOR LPR HAVE SHORTCOMINGS

The diagnosis of LPR has become more common over the last few years,4 and by some estimates up to 10% of patients presenting to ear-nose-throat physicians have complaints related to GERD.12 However, current diagnostic tests for reflux and LPR have many shortcomings and can lead to misdiagnosis of this disease (Table 2).

A careful history is important. Many patients report they have sore throat, hoarseness, cough, dysphasia, or chronic throat-clearing.13 Factors that may predispose a patient to esophageal reflux should be discussed, eg:

  • Tobacco use
  • Diet (eg, soda, spicy foods, fatty foods)
  • Alcohol use
  • Certain drugs (calcium channel blockers, nitrates, steroids).

Up to 50% of patients presenting with extraesophageal symptoms may not have classic reflux symptoms such as heartburn and regur-gitation.14 However, the existence of “silent reflux” is currently controversial.

 

 

Laryngoscopy is nonspecific and subjective

Because the key symptoms of LPR are nonspecific, many patients who present to an otolaryngologist undergo laryngoscopy, mainly to rule out malignancy. Once cancer is ruled out, many patients are given a diagnosis of LPR.

Figure 1.
Laryngoscopic findings often imputed to LPR (Figure 1) include erythema, edema, ventricular obliteration, postcricoid hyperplasia, and pseudosulcus.4 Of these, edema was the finding most often used to diagnose LPR in one analysis.15 However, Milstein et al16 discovered at least one sign of laryngeal tissue irritation in 80% to 90% of patients tested who did not have a history of an ear-nose-throat complaint or a diagnosis of GERD.

Furthermore, Branski et al17 performed transoral rigid laryngoscopy with videorecording in 100 consecutive patients presenting with a chief complaint of dysphonia. Five board-certified otolaryngologists individually viewed each recording, scored the degree of erythema and edema, and assessed the likelihood that LPR played a role in dysphonia and the severity of the LPR findings. The physicians’ ratings showed considerable interobserver variability. In other words, this study showed that laryngeal findings are often nonspecific and that the laryngoscopic diagnosis of LPR tends to be subjective.17

The Reflux Finding Score. Concerned by the lack of consistency in the diagnosis of LPR, Belafsky et al18 created a scoring system for documenting the physical findings and severity of disease on a standardized scale. Their Reflux Finding Score is based on eight laryngoscopic findings: subglottic edema, ventricular edema, erythema, vocal cord edema, diffuse laryngeal edema, hypertrophy of the posterior commissure, granuloma or granulation tissue, and thick endolaryngeal mucus. The total score can range from 0 (best) to 26 (worst).

In 40 patients with LPR confirmed by pH monitoring, the mean score was 11.5, compared with 5.2 in 40 age-matched controls. The authors calculated they could be 95% certain that a person with a score higher than 7 has LPR.18

However, this diagnostic method has not been validated in a large-scale randomized trial and so has yet to be incorporated into routine otolaryngology practice.

Ambulatory pH monitoring is not so golden for diagnosing LPR

Although pH monitoring was once the gold standard for diagnosing reflux, it has since been shown to be unreliable in patients who have laryngeal symptoms.4

How high or low in the esophagus the probe is placed is clearly critical for useful results. 4 But the test is subject to variability: different physicians place the probe in different locations, and the probe may shift. Another problem is that reflux may occur during untested periods.19

A pH of less than 4 in the esophagus had originally been shown to have high sensitivity and specificity,20 but Reichel and Issing21 suggested using a pH of less than 5 as the cutoff, which would identify more patients as having LPR. Further trials are needed to more precisely determine the pH threshold for the diagnosis of LPR.

Enthusiasm is waning for pharyngeal pH monitoring

In LPR, it was initially thought that pH monitoring in the pharynx was more accurate than in the distal or proximal esophagus.

Shaker et al22 monitored the pH in the pharynx, proximal esophagus, and distal esophagus in four groups: 14 patients who had both laryngeal signs and symptoms, 12 patients who had laryngeal symptoms only, 16 patients who had GERD but no laryngeal symptoms, and 12 healthy volunteers. They found that pharyngeal reflux was more frequent and in greater quantity in patients with laryngeal signs and symptoms than in the other groups. This study suggested that pharyngeal pH monitoring may be useful in diagnosing LPR in patients who have laryngeal signs and symptoms.

However, hypopharyngeal pH monitoring has several problems. One issue is that, even in this trial, 2 of 12 healthy volunteers had episodes of pharyngeal reflux.22 In other studies, the rate of false-positive results ranged from 7% to 17%.23,24 Additionally, in 12 previous studies, only 54% of 1,217 patients with suspected LPR had esophageal acid exposure, regardless of where the pH probe was placed.25

More importantly, another study found that patients with pharyngeal reflux documented by pH monitoring were no more likely to respond to acid-suppressive therapy than patients with no documented reflux.26 These findings dampen the enthusiasm for pharyngeal pH monitoring in LPR.

Impedance monitoring on therapy may be useful in refractory cases

Esophageal impedance monitoring, a newer test, uses a catheter that measures electrical resistance (impedance) between different points along the esophagus. Thus, it can detect the reflux of acid and nonacid liquid or gaseous material.

Pritchett et al27 performed esophageal impedance and pH monitoring in 39 patients who were on twice-daily PPI therapy and then evaluated the same patients with wireless pH monitoring while they were off therapy. The most prevalent complaint in the study group was cough (56%), followed by heartburn (18%) and sore throat (10%).

Of the 39 patients, 25 (64%) had normal results on impedance/pH monitoring while on therapy, ruling out reflux. On pH monitoring off therapy, 28 (72%) of the 39 patients had abnormal results; this group included 13 (93%) of the 14 patients who had abnormal results on impedance/pH monitoring while on therapy. The authors recommended on-therapy testing with impedance monitoring in patients with refractory reflux, since it provides more useful clinical information.27 If the results of impedance/pH monitoring are negative in these patients, a diagnosis other than reflux should be considered.

 

 

EMPIRIC PPI TREATMENT HAS SHOWN DISAPPOINTING RESULTS

Because laryngoscopy and pH monitoring are not very sensitive or specific for LPR, experts recommend empiric therapy with a PPI twice daily. However, the results have been disappointing when PPIs were compared with placebo in clinical trials.

In a randomized controlled trial,28 we found that patients who had complaints of chronic throat-clearing, cough, globus, sore throat, and hoarseness had a similar response to twice-daily esomeprazole (Nexium) compared with placebo: their primary symptom had resolved by 16 weeks in 14.7% of the esomeprazole group vs 16.0% of the placebo group (P = .799). Similarly, the final findings on laryngoscopy such as edema, erythema, and surface irregularity were not significantly different between groups.

From Qadeer MA, et al. Proton pump inhibitor therapy for suspected GERD-related chronic laryngitis: a meta analysis of randomized controlled trials. Am J Gastroenterol 2006; 101:2646–2654. Used with permission from Nature Publishing Group.
Figure 2. Forest plot depicting the risk ratio and 95% confidence intervals of individual studies assessing the efficacy of proton pump inhibitors in reflux laryngitis, and the pooled risk ratio by the random effects method.
In addition, a meta-analysis29 of randomized controlled trials of PPIs for suspected GERD-related chronic laryngitis also had disappointing results (Figure 2). In this study, Qadeer et al analyzed eight trials30–37 with a total of 344 patients (195 on a PPI, 149 on placebo). In five of the trials,30–34 PPI therapy was superior to placebo in terms of the proportion of patients who had more than a 50% reduction in self-reported laryngeal symptoms, although the difference was statistically significant in only one of them.33 In the other three studies, more patients responded to placebo than to a PPI.35–37 When data from all eight trials were pooled, there was no significant difference between a PPI and placebo (risk ratio 1.28, confidence interval 0.94– 1.74). The absolute rate of response to PPIs was 50%, vs 41% for placebo.29

Adding a histamine-2 receptor antagonist is not recommended

Adding a histamine-2 receptor antagonist to PPI therapy has also been considered as a treatment for LPR.

Fackler et al38 studied 16 GERD patients and 18 healthy volunteers to determine if adding ranitidine (Pepcid) to the PPI omeprazole (Prilosec) could improve GERD symptoms. Patients underwent baseline manometry and then gastroesophageal pH monitoring before starting the drugs. They first received omeprazole 20 mg twice daily alone for 2 weeks, and then added ranitidine 300 mg at bedtime. A pH test was done again after the first day of treatment with ranitidine, at the end of 1 week of combination therapy, and after 4 weeks of combination therapy. The combination reduced nocturnal acid breakthrough on day 1; however, due to tolerance to ranitidine, no significant difference in acid suppression was seen after 1 week of therapy. Therefore, this combination is not recommended.

Surgery is not recommended either

Some experts have argued for surgical fundoplication in patients whose symptoms persist despite drug therapy.

Swoger et al39 treated 72 patients who had symptoms consistent with LPR with a PPI for 4 months; 25 patients in this group had less than a 50% improvement despite maximal drug therapy. Ten of these patients underwent surgical fundoplication, and 15 remained on drug therapy alone. At 1 year of follow-up, only one surgical patient (10%) reported improvement in laryngeal symptoms.

In view of this report and prior studies of surgical fundoplication,40 surgery is not recommended for patients whose symptoms do not respond to aggressive PPI therapy.

IF A PPI FAILS, LOOK FOR OTHER CAUSES OF SYMPTOMS

Although gastroesophageal reflux and laryngeal signs and symptoms have been associated with one another, this relation may have been overstated, leading to the overdiagnosis of LPR.

The diagnosis of LPR is difficult, as laryngoscopy has high interrater variability and as the results of pH monitoring do not dependably predict who will respond to treatment.

Because PPI therapy is easy and appears to be safe, patients with extraesophageal symptoms thought to be related to reflux should undergo a trial of twice-daily PPI therapy for at least 2 months. If the patient responds to therapy, then tapering to once-daily therapy initially and then to minimal acid suppression to control symptoms would be prudent.

In patients who show no improvement, other causes of symptoms should be explored. Diseases that can mimic LPR include postnasal drip, allergies, sinus inflammation, and various pulmonary diseases. These patients should also be advised to adopt lifestyle modifications—eg, to stop smoking, lose weight, and decrease activities that cause stress on the voice. Surgery is not likely to provide any benefit in this situation. The patient should be tapered off the PPI to make sure no rebound acid reflux occurs.

References
  1. Nebel OT, Fornes MF, Castell DO. Symptomatic gastroesophageal reflux: incidence and precipitating factors. Am J Dig Dis 1976; 21:953956.
  2. Kahrilas PJ, Shaheen NJ, Vaezi MF; American Gastroenterological Association Institute; Clinical Practice and Quality Management Committee. American Gastroenterological Association Institute technical review on the management of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroenterology 2008; 135:13921413.
  3. Jonaitis L, Pribuisiene R, Kupcinskas L, Uloza V. Laryngeal examination is superior to endoscopy in the diagnosis of the laryngopharyngeal form of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Scand J Gastroenterol 2006; 41:131137.
  4. Vaezi MF, Hicks DM, Abelson TI, Richter JE. Laryngeal signs and symptoms and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD): a critical assessment of cause and effect association. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2003; 1:333344.
  5. Jaspersen D, Kulig M, Labenz J, et al. Prevalence of extra-oesophageal manifestations in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease: an analysis based on the ProGERD study. Aliment Pharmacol Ther 2003; 17:15151520.
  6. Karkos PD, Benton J, Leong SC, et al. Trends in laryngopharyngeal reflux: a British ENT survey. Eur Arch Otorhinolaryngol 2007; 264:513517.
  7. Dent J, Dodds WJ, Friedman RH, et al. Mechanism of gastroesophageal reflux in recumbent asymptomatic human subjects. J Clin Invest 1980; 65:256267.
  8. Schreiber S, Garten D, Sudhoff H, et al. Pathophysiological mechanisms of extraesophageal reflux in otolaryngeal disorders. Eur Arch Otorhinolaryngol 2009; 266:1724.
  9. Adhami T, Goldblum JR, Richter JE, Vaezi MF. The role of gastric and duodenal agents in laryngeal injury: an experimental canine model. Am J Gastroenterol 2004; 99:20982106.
  10. Koufman JA. The otolaryngologic manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD): a clinical investigation of 225 patients using ambulatory 24-hour pH monitoring and an experimental investigation of the role of acid and pepsin in the development of laryngeal injury. Laryngoscope 1991; 101(4 pt 2 suppl 53):178.
  11. Johnston N, Knight J, Dettmar PW, Lively MO, Koufman J. Pepsin and carbonic anhydrase isoenzyme III as diagnostic markers for laryngopharyngeal reflux disease. Laryngoscope 2004; 114:21292134.
  12. Vaezi MF. Therapy insight: gastroesophageal reflux disease and laryngopharyngeal reflux. Nat Clin Pract Gastroenterol Hepatol 2005; 2:595603.
  13. Farrokhi F, Vaezi MF. Extra-esophageal manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux. Oral Dis 2007; 13:349359.
  14. Koufman JA. Laryngopharyngeal reflux is different from classic gastroesophageal reflux disease. Ear Nose Throat J 2002; 81( 9 suppl 2):79.
  15. Koufman JA, Amin MR, Panetti M. Prevalence of reflux in 113 consecutive patients with laryngeal and voice disorders. Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2000; 123:385388.
  16. Milstein CF, Charbel S, Hicks DM, Abelson TI, Richter JE, Vaezi MF. Prevalence of laryngeal irritation signs associated with reflux in asymptomatic volunteers: impact of endoscopic technique (rigid vs flexible scope). Laryngoscope 2005; 115;22562261.
  17. Branski RC, Bhattacharyya N, Shapiro J. The reliability of the assessment of endoscopic laryngeal findings associated with laryngopharyngeal reflux disease. Laryngoscope 2002; 112;10191024.
  18. Belafsky PC, Postma GN, Koufman JA. The validity and reliability of the reflux finding score (RFS). Laryngoscope 2001; 111:13131317.
  19. Gupta R, Sataloff RT. Laryngopharyngeal reflux: current concepts and questions. Curr Opin Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2009; 17:143148.
  20. Jamieson JR, Stein HJ, DeMeester TR, et al. Ambulatory 24-h esophageal pH monitoring: normal values, optimal thresholds, specificity, sensitivity, and reproducibility. Am J Gastroenterol 1992; 87:11021111.
  21. Reichel O, Issing WJ. Impact of different pH thresholds for 24-h dual probe pH monitoring in patients with suspected laryngopharyngeal reflux. J Laryngol Otol 2008; 122:485489.
  22. Shaker R, Milbrath M, Ren J, et al. Esophagopharyngeal distribution of refluxed gastric acid in patients with reflux laryngitis. Gastroenterology 1995; 109:15751582.
  23. Jacob P, Kahrilas PJ, Herzon G. Proximal esophageal pH-metry in patients with “reflux laryngitis.” Gastroenterology 1991; 100:305310.
  24. Eubanks TR, Omelanczuk PE, Maronian N, Hillel A, Pope CE, Pellegrini CA. Pharyngeal pH monitoring in 222 patients with suspected laryngeal reflux. J Gastrointest Surg 2001; 5:183190.
  25. Vaezi MF. Gastroesophageal reflux disease and the larynx. J Clin Gastroenterol 2003; 36:198203.
  26. Ulualp SO, Toohill RJ, Shaker R. Outcomes of acid suppressive therapy in patients with posterior laryngitis. Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2001; 124:1622.
  27. Pritchett JM, Aslam M, Slaughter JC, Ness RM, Garrett CG, Vaezi MF. Efficacy of esophageal impedance/pH monitoring in patients with refractory gastroesophageal reflux disease, on and off therapy. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2009; 7:743748.
  28. Vaezi MF, Richter JE, Stasney CR, et al. Treatment of chronic posterior laryngitis with esomeprazole. Laryngoscope 2006; 116;254260.
  29. Qadeer MA, Phillips CO, Lopez AR, et al. Proton pump inhibitor therapy for suspected GERD-related chronic laryngitis: a meta analysis of randomized controlled trials. Am J Gastroenterol 2006; 101:26462654.
  30. Eherer AJ, Habermann W, Hammer HF, et al. Effect of pantoprazole on the course of reflux-associated laryngitis: a placebo-controlled double-blind crossover study. Scand J Gastroenterol 2003; 38:462467.
  31. El-Serag HB, Lee P, Buchner A, et al. Lansoprazole treatment of patients with chronic idiopathic laryngitis: a placebo-controlled trial. Am J Gastroenterol 2001; 96:979983.
  32. Noordzij JP, Khidr A, Evans BA, et al. Evaluation of omeprazole in the treatment of reflux laryngitis: a prospective, placebo-controlled, randomized, double-blind study. Laryngoscope 2001; 111:21472151.
  33. Langevin S, Hanh N. GERD-induced ENT symptoms: a prospective placebo controlled study with omeprazole 40 mg a day. Gastroenterology 2001; 120:A-16.
  34. Havas T, Huang S, Levy M, et al. Posterior pharyngolaryngitis. Double blind randomized placebo-controlled trial of proton pump inhibitor therapy. Aust J Otolaryng 1999; 3:243246.
  35. Vaezi MF, Richter JE, Stasney CR, et al. Treatment of chronic posterior laryngitis with esomeprazole. Laryngoscope 2006; 116:254260.
  36. Wo JM, Koopman JI, Harrell SP, et al. Double-blind placebo-controlled trial with single-dose pantoprazole for laryngopharyngeal reflux. Am J Gastroenterol 2006; 101:19721978.
  37. Steward DL, Wilson KM, Kelly DH, et al. Proton pump inhibitor therapy for chronic laryngo-pharyngitis: a randomized placebo-control trial. Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2004; 131:342350.
  38. Fackler WK, Ours TM, Vaezi MF, Richter JE. Long term effect of H2RA therapy on nocturnal gastric acid breakthrough. Gastroenterology 2002; 122:625632.
  39. Swoger J, Ponsky J, Hicks DM, et al. Surgical fundoplication in laryngeal reflux unresponsive to aggressive acid suppression: a controlled study. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2006; 4:433441.
  40. So JB, Zeitels SM, Rattner DW. Outcome of atypical symptoms attributed to gastroesophageal reflux treated by laparoscopic fundoplication. Surgery 1998; 124:2832.
References
  1. Nebel OT, Fornes MF, Castell DO. Symptomatic gastroesophageal reflux: incidence and precipitating factors. Am J Dig Dis 1976; 21:953956.
  2. Kahrilas PJ, Shaheen NJ, Vaezi MF; American Gastroenterological Association Institute; Clinical Practice and Quality Management Committee. American Gastroenterological Association Institute technical review on the management of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroenterology 2008; 135:13921413.
  3. Jonaitis L, Pribuisiene R, Kupcinskas L, Uloza V. Laryngeal examination is superior to endoscopy in the diagnosis of the laryngopharyngeal form of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Scand J Gastroenterol 2006; 41:131137.
  4. Vaezi MF, Hicks DM, Abelson TI, Richter JE. Laryngeal signs and symptoms and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD): a critical assessment of cause and effect association. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2003; 1:333344.
  5. Jaspersen D, Kulig M, Labenz J, et al. Prevalence of extra-oesophageal manifestations in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease: an analysis based on the ProGERD study. Aliment Pharmacol Ther 2003; 17:15151520.
  6. Karkos PD, Benton J, Leong SC, et al. Trends in laryngopharyngeal reflux: a British ENT survey. Eur Arch Otorhinolaryngol 2007; 264:513517.
  7. Dent J, Dodds WJ, Friedman RH, et al. Mechanism of gastroesophageal reflux in recumbent asymptomatic human subjects. J Clin Invest 1980; 65:256267.
  8. Schreiber S, Garten D, Sudhoff H, et al. Pathophysiological mechanisms of extraesophageal reflux in otolaryngeal disorders. Eur Arch Otorhinolaryngol 2009; 266:1724.
  9. Adhami T, Goldblum JR, Richter JE, Vaezi MF. The role of gastric and duodenal agents in laryngeal injury: an experimental canine model. Am J Gastroenterol 2004; 99:20982106.
  10. Koufman JA. The otolaryngologic manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD): a clinical investigation of 225 patients using ambulatory 24-hour pH monitoring and an experimental investigation of the role of acid and pepsin in the development of laryngeal injury. Laryngoscope 1991; 101(4 pt 2 suppl 53):178.
  11. Johnston N, Knight J, Dettmar PW, Lively MO, Koufman J. Pepsin and carbonic anhydrase isoenzyme III as diagnostic markers for laryngopharyngeal reflux disease. Laryngoscope 2004; 114:21292134.
  12. Vaezi MF. Therapy insight: gastroesophageal reflux disease and laryngopharyngeal reflux. Nat Clin Pract Gastroenterol Hepatol 2005; 2:595603.
  13. Farrokhi F, Vaezi MF. Extra-esophageal manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux. Oral Dis 2007; 13:349359.
  14. Koufman JA. Laryngopharyngeal reflux is different from classic gastroesophageal reflux disease. Ear Nose Throat J 2002; 81( 9 suppl 2):79.
  15. Koufman JA, Amin MR, Panetti M. Prevalence of reflux in 113 consecutive patients with laryngeal and voice disorders. Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2000; 123:385388.
  16. Milstein CF, Charbel S, Hicks DM, Abelson TI, Richter JE, Vaezi MF. Prevalence of laryngeal irritation signs associated with reflux in asymptomatic volunteers: impact of endoscopic technique (rigid vs flexible scope). Laryngoscope 2005; 115;22562261.
  17. Branski RC, Bhattacharyya N, Shapiro J. The reliability of the assessment of endoscopic laryngeal findings associated with laryngopharyngeal reflux disease. Laryngoscope 2002; 112;10191024.
  18. Belafsky PC, Postma GN, Koufman JA. The validity and reliability of the reflux finding score (RFS). Laryngoscope 2001; 111:13131317.
  19. Gupta R, Sataloff RT. Laryngopharyngeal reflux: current concepts and questions. Curr Opin Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2009; 17:143148.
  20. Jamieson JR, Stein HJ, DeMeester TR, et al. Ambulatory 24-h esophageal pH monitoring: normal values, optimal thresholds, specificity, sensitivity, and reproducibility. Am J Gastroenterol 1992; 87:11021111.
  21. Reichel O, Issing WJ. Impact of different pH thresholds for 24-h dual probe pH monitoring in patients with suspected laryngopharyngeal reflux. J Laryngol Otol 2008; 122:485489.
  22. Shaker R, Milbrath M, Ren J, et al. Esophagopharyngeal distribution of refluxed gastric acid in patients with reflux laryngitis. Gastroenterology 1995; 109:15751582.
  23. Jacob P, Kahrilas PJ, Herzon G. Proximal esophageal pH-metry in patients with “reflux laryngitis.” Gastroenterology 1991; 100:305310.
  24. Eubanks TR, Omelanczuk PE, Maronian N, Hillel A, Pope CE, Pellegrini CA. Pharyngeal pH monitoring in 222 patients with suspected laryngeal reflux. J Gastrointest Surg 2001; 5:183190.
  25. Vaezi MF. Gastroesophageal reflux disease and the larynx. J Clin Gastroenterol 2003; 36:198203.
  26. Ulualp SO, Toohill RJ, Shaker R. Outcomes of acid suppressive therapy in patients with posterior laryngitis. Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2001; 124:1622.
  27. Pritchett JM, Aslam M, Slaughter JC, Ness RM, Garrett CG, Vaezi MF. Efficacy of esophageal impedance/pH monitoring in patients with refractory gastroesophageal reflux disease, on and off therapy. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2009; 7:743748.
  28. Vaezi MF, Richter JE, Stasney CR, et al. Treatment of chronic posterior laryngitis with esomeprazole. Laryngoscope 2006; 116;254260.
  29. Qadeer MA, Phillips CO, Lopez AR, et al. Proton pump inhibitor therapy for suspected GERD-related chronic laryngitis: a meta analysis of randomized controlled trials. Am J Gastroenterol 2006; 101:26462654.
  30. Eherer AJ, Habermann W, Hammer HF, et al. Effect of pantoprazole on the course of reflux-associated laryngitis: a placebo-controlled double-blind crossover study. Scand J Gastroenterol 2003; 38:462467.
  31. El-Serag HB, Lee P, Buchner A, et al. Lansoprazole treatment of patients with chronic idiopathic laryngitis: a placebo-controlled trial. Am J Gastroenterol 2001; 96:979983.
  32. Noordzij JP, Khidr A, Evans BA, et al. Evaluation of omeprazole in the treatment of reflux laryngitis: a prospective, placebo-controlled, randomized, double-blind study. Laryngoscope 2001; 111:21472151.
  33. Langevin S, Hanh N. GERD-induced ENT symptoms: a prospective placebo controlled study with omeprazole 40 mg a day. Gastroenterology 2001; 120:A-16.
  34. Havas T, Huang S, Levy M, et al. Posterior pharyngolaryngitis. Double blind randomized placebo-controlled trial of proton pump inhibitor therapy. Aust J Otolaryng 1999; 3:243246.
  35. Vaezi MF, Richter JE, Stasney CR, et al. Treatment of chronic posterior laryngitis with esomeprazole. Laryngoscope 2006; 116:254260.
  36. Wo JM, Koopman JI, Harrell SP, et al. Double-blind placebo-controlled trial with single-dose pantoprazole for laryngopharyngeal reflux. Am J Gastroenterol 2006; 101:19721978.
  37. Steward DL, Wilson KM, Kelly DH, et al. Proton pump inhibitor therapy for chronic laryngo-pharyngitis: a randomized placebo-control trial. Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2004; 131:342350.
  38. Fackler WK, Ours TM, Vaezi MF, Richter JE. Long term effect of H2RA therapy on nocturnal gastric acid breakthrough. Gastroenterology 2002; 122:625632.
  39. Swoger J, Ponsky J, Hicks DM, et al. Surgical fundoplication in laryngeal reflux unresponsive to aggressive acid suppression: a controlled study. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2006; 4:433441.
  40. So JB, Zeitels SM, Rattner DW. Outcome of atypical symptoms attributed to gastroesophageal reflux treated by laparoscopic fundoplication. Surgery 1998; 124:2832.
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KEY POINTS

  • Laryngoscopy has high interrater variability, and results of pH monitoring do not reliably predict who will respond to treatment.
  • A proton pump inhibitor twice daily for 2 months is currently recommended for patients with laryngeal signs and symptoms. If the condition responds to therapy, tapering to once-daily therapy and then to minimal acid-suppression to control symptoms is prudent.
  • Patients whose symptoms do not respond to a proton pump inhibitor are unlikely to benefit from surgery. Other diagnoses should be entertained, while the drug is tapered to prevent rebound acid reflux.
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Making the most of currently available bowel preparations for colonoscopy

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Making the most of currently available bowel preparations for colonoscopy

Figure 1. Adequate bowel preparation is essential before colonoscopy. The preparation is excellent in the top two images, allowing optimal visualization of a polyp in the top right image (arrow). In contrast, the bottom two images show inadequate bowel preparation, with semisolid or solid debris that obscures the complete view of the mucosa in spite of extensive flushing and suction.
During colonoscopy, the physician needs to inspect the entire mucosal surface. This can be done only if the bowel has been adequately prepared—ie, cleaned out (Figure 1). Inadequate bowel preparation reduces the quality of colonoscopy, raises the procedural risks, and increases the chance that polyps will go undetected.1–3 Furthermore, poor bowel preparation substantially increases costs by prolonging the procedure time and increasing the chance of an aborted examination, necessitating another procedure at an interval sooner than called for in the standard guidelines.3,4

Adequate bowel preparation depends on the right choice of bowel-cleansing agent. But with a myriad of products available, the right choice can be confusing to make.

This review discusses the currently recommended methods for bowel preparation before colonoscopy and suggests ways to solve common problems.

EARLY DETECTION IS KEY

Colorectal cancer is the third most common cancer in the United States and the second most common cause of cancer deaths. It largely can be prevented by detecting and removing adenomatous polyps, and survival rates are significantly better when it is diagnosed while still localized.5 Early detection, through widely applied screening programs that include colonoscopy, is thought to be playing a key role in the recent decline of colorectal cancer rates in developed countries.6

THREE TYPES OF AGENTS

Bowel preparation agents, for the most part, can be classified into one of three categories:

  • Polyethylene glycol solutions, which work as high-volume gut lavage solutions
  • Osmotic agents, such as sodium phosphate, magnesium citrate, lactulose, and mannitol, which draw extracellular fluid across the bowel wall and into the lumen
  • Stimulants (castor oil, senna, sodium picosulfte, and bisacodyl), which work by increasing smooth muscle activity within the wall of the colon.

POLYETHYLENE GLYCOL SOLUTIONS

Bowel preparation in the past consisted of dietary restriction, stimulant laxatives, and enemas. 7,8 However, these were time-consuming (taking 48–72 hours), harsh, and not very effective for adequate visualization during colonoscopy.

In 1980, Davis et al9 developed an osmotically balanced, high-molecular weight, nonabsorbable polymer given in a dilute electrolyte solution. The osmotic effect of the polymer keeps the electrolyte solution in the colon. Since little fluid is exchanged across the colonic membrane, the potential for systemic electrolyte disturbance is limited.

Since then, these solutions have become some of the preferred bowel cleansing agents worldwide.7,8 They work as an oral lavage and hence need to be taken in high volume (typically 4 L) for bowel cleansing.

Advantages and disadvantages of polyethylene glycol solutions

Polyethylene glycol solutions are more effective and better tolerated than regimens of diet combined with cathartic agents, or high-volume balanced electrolyte solutions, or mannitol-based solutions.7 Since they are osmotically balanced and do not induce substantial shifts in fluid and electrolytes, they are safe for patients who have electrolyte imbalances, advanced liver disease, poorly compensated congestive heart failure, or renal failure.

These preparations are, however, contraindicated in patients who have allergies to polyethylene glycol compounds, gastric outlet obstruction, high-grade small-bowel obstruction, significant colonic obstruction, perforation, diverticulitis, or hemodynamic instability. In addition, they are classified by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as pregnancy category C and have been associated (albeit rarely) with Mallory-Weiss tear, toxic colitis, pulmonary aspiration, hypothermia, cardiac arrhythmias, pancreatitis, and inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion.10,11

The main disadvantages of these solutions are the large volume of fluid (4 L) that patients must drink and their unpalatable taste, which is due to sodium sulfate. The large volume of ingestion is the main reason for nausea, bloating, cramping, and vomiting with these products, which affect patient compliance and the ultimate success of colonoscopy.

Commercially available polyethylene glycol solutions

Many polyethylene glycol preparations are available today. They can be divided into those that are full-volume solutions (typically 4 L, flavored or unflavored, with sulfate or sulfate-free) and low-volume solutions (typically 2 L) (Table 1).

Standard full-volume solutions (Colyte, GoLYTELY) have been widely studied and have the most evidence of safety and effectiveness. They are also inexpensive, and most insurance companies pay for them. However, about 5% to 15% of patients do not complete the preparation, because of poor palatability, large volume, or both.7

Sulfate-free and flavored solutions. To make polyethylene glycol solutions more tolerable, sulfate-free solutions have been developed. These are less salty, more palatable, and comparable to standard solutions in terms of effective colonic cleansing.12 Sulfate-free polyethylene glycol solutions commercially available in the United States are NuLytely (flavors: cherry, lemon-lime, orange, pineapple) and TriLyte (flavors: cherry, citrus-berry, lemon-lime, orange, pineapple).

Low-volume solutions have been developed in an attempt to increase acceptability and reduce volume-related adverse effects such as bloating. For example, HalfLytely (flavor: lemon-lime) consists of 2 L of polyethylene glycol solution packaged with two bisacodyl tablets. Stimulant laxatives such as bisacodyl and magnesium citrate effectively debulk the colon of solid stool and allow a lower volume of solution to be used.13,14

Also commercially available is a preparation that contains ascorbic acid (MoviPrep). Ascorbic acid acts as a flavoring and as a cathartic, also permitting a lower volume of fluid to be used.

Studies that compared full-volume and low-volume regimens (the latter including ascorbic acid, magnesium citrate, or bisacodyl) found the low-volume regimens to be as effective and more tolerable.14–18

Combining over-the-counter polyethylene glycol 3350 laxative powder (MiraLAX) and Gatorade or Crystal Light (or another clear liquid of choice) has also been shown to improve the taste and tolerability of the preparation. Although beneficial and commonly used in certain regions of the United States, this combination is not approved for bowel preparation and its use is considered off-label.

 

 

Increasing patient adherence to polyethylene glycol solutions

One way to increase tolerability and patient adherence is to split the dose so that the patient takes half the laxative prescription (polyethylene glycol or otherwise) the night before colonoscopy and the other half in the morning, usually about 4 to 5 hours before the scheduled time of the procedure.18,19

Split dosing not only improves patient acceptability, but also cleans the colon better.4 Traditional dosing, ie, drinking the entire volume of solution the night before, leaves a long interval between the end of the preparation process and the start of the procedure. Thick intestinal secretions empty out of the small intestine during that interval and obscure the cecum and ascending colon. With split dosing, the second dose is completed a few hours before the procedure, cleaning out the remaining intestinal secretions and obviating this problem.

Other measures that can make polyethylene glycol solutions more tolerable are:

  • Chilling the solution
  • Adding lemon slices or sugar-free flavor enhancers (such as Crystal Light) or lemon juice
  • Giving the solution by nasogastric tube (at a rate of 1.2–1.8 L per hour) in patients with swallowing dysfunction or altered mental status
  • Adding metoclopramide (Reglan) 5 to 10 mg orally to prevent or treat nausea
  • Adding magnesium citrate (1 bottle, about 300 mL) in patients without renal insufficiency, or bisacodyl (two to four tablets of 5 mg each), so that the volume can be less15,16
  • Stopping further ingestion of solution once the stool is watery and clear on the morning of the procedure (for patients who can clearly understand and follow bowel preparation instructions).17

SODIUM PHOSPHATE SOLUTIONS

Sodium phosphate is an osmotic laxative that draws water into the bowel lumen to promote colonic cleansing. Retention of water in the lumen of the colon stimulates peristalsis and bowel movements.

Advantages and disadvantages of sodium phosphate solutions

Sodium phosphate is widely used worldwide and has been found to be a very acceptable and effective bowel cleansing agent. A recent systematic review of 25 studies18 found that sodium phosphate was superior to polyethylene glycol in 14 studies, that there was no significant difference in 10 studies, and that only one study found polyethylene glycol to be better tolerated than sodium phosphate.18 Similarly, a meta-analysis19 found sodium phosphate to be more effective than polyethylene glycol in bowel cleansing (odds ratio 0.75; P = .0004); more easily completed by patients (odds ratio 0.16; P < .00001); and comparable in terms of adverse events (odds ratio 0.98; P = .81).19 However, most of the clinical trials excluded patients who had renal failure, ascites, or serious heart disease—the groups most at risk of significant adverse effects from sodium phosphate use. The main reasons sodium phosphate was better tolerated were better flavor and smaller volume (1.5–2 L compared with 4 L for polyethylene glycol).20–22

The main disadvantage of sodium phosphate is its potential to cause large fluid and electrolyte shifts. Its use has been associated with a variety of electrolyte abnormalities, including hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, increased plasma osmolality, hyponatremia, and, conversely, hypernatremia.7,8,23 Asymptomatic hyperphosphatemia alone can be seen in as many as 40% of healthy patients completing sodium phosphate preparations. It may be significant in patients with renal failure and can lead to acute phosphate nephropathy.

Rare adverse events such as nephrocalcinosis with acute renal failure also have been reported, especially in patients taking angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.23

The significant volume contraction and consequent dehydration seen in some patients using sodium phosphate may be decreased by encouraging patients to drink fluids liberally, especially before the day of the procedure and after the procedure.7

Recently, renal failure due to hyperphosphatemia (acute phosphate nephropathy) has been reported even in patients with normal kidney function.24 Because of the risk of inappropriate use or overdose associated with over-the counter sodium phosphate, the FDA recommended on December 11, 2008, that sodium phosphate products be available only by prescription when they are used for bowel cleansing.25 The C.B. Fleet Company voluntarily recalled its oral sodium phosphate products sold over the counter (Fleet Phospho-Soda and Fleet EZ-PREP). In addition, the FDA required a black box warning on the prescription oral sodium phosphate products Visicol and OsmoPrep, alerting consumers to the risk of acute phosphate nephropathy.25 According to the FDA, health professionals should use caution when prescribing Visicol or OsmoPrep for patients who may be at higher risk of kidney injury, such as:

  • Patients over 55 years of age
  • Patients who are dehydrated or who have kidney disease, acute colitis, or delayed bowel emptying
  • Patients taking certain drugs that affect kidney function, such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.16

Commercially available sodium phosphate products

Sodium phosphate products can still be prescribed, but they are no longer available over the counter in the United States. Patients should be screened to make sure they can safely take these products, and the doses should not exceed the maximum recommended.

Figure 2.
Currently, the only two sodium phosphate preparations available in the United States are in tablet form (Visicol and OsmoPrep). Oral sodium phosphate solution is no longer available. The recommended dose is 20 tablets on the evening before the procedure and 12 tablets (OsmoPrep) to 20 tablets (Visicol) 3 to 5 hours before the procedure, given with clear liquids or ginger ale. Adverse effects are reduced with the tablet formulation; however, the large number of tablets required is the major drawback, reducing patient acceptability.

Figure 2 shows a simplified algorithm for selecting the optimal bowel preparation agent for an individual patient.

 

 

OTHER BOWEL PREPARATION AGENTS AND ADJUNCTS

Magnesium citrate

Like sodium phosphate, magnesium citrate is a hyperosmotic agent that promotes bowel cleansing by increasing intraluminal fluid volume. Since magnesium is eliminated solely by the kidney, it should be used with extreme caution in patients with renal insufficiency or renal failure.

Adding magnesium citrate as an adjunct to polyethylene glycol has been shown to reduce the amount of polyethylene glycol solution required (2 L) for the same result.17

For patients who cannot tolerate polyethylene glycol, a reasonable alternative is magnesium citrate (1 bottle, around 300 mL) the evening before the procedure plus either bisacodyl tablets at the same time as the magnesium citrate or rectal pulsed irrigation immediately before the procedure.7

Saline laxatives that include sodium picosulfate and magnesium citrate in combination are available primarily in the United Kingdom for bowel preparation for colonoscopy. Sodium picosulfate acts locally in the colon as a stimulant laxative and by increasing the force of laxatives, whereas magnesium citrate acts as an osmotic laxative by retaining fluids in the colon to clear the colon and rectum of fecal contents. The combination has been found to have similar efficacy and tolerability as sodium phosphate but is not currently available in the United States.26

Enemas

Enemas are sufficient for flexible sigmoidoscopy, but when used alone they do not clean out the proximal colon enough for adequate visualization during colonoscopy. They are best used as adjuncts to other bowel preparation agents when patients present with poor distal colon preparation for colonoscopy.7,27 Enemas are also useful in washing out the distal segment of bowel in patients with a proximal stoma. The common types of enemas used are tap water, sodium biphosphate (Fleet), and mineral oil.

Tap water enemas distend the rectum and mimic the natural distention by the stool to allow the rectum to empty itself. Tap water (1 L) has fewer adverse effects than sodium biphosphate or mineral oil but is less effective.

Sodium biphosphate (Fleet) enemas draw fluid into the bowel by osmotic action, prompting contraction. One or two bottles are commonly used for bowel cleansing before sigmoidoscopy. However, as with oral sodium phosphate, sodium biphosphate enemas should be avoided in the elderly and in those with renal failure because of the risk of hyperphosphatemia and subsequent hypocalcemia.

In a head-to-head comparison,28 sodium biphosphate enema was found to provide significantly better bowel preparation than the sodium picosulfate-magnesium citrate combination (currently not available in the United States) for flexible sigmoidoscopy, being judged adequate or better in 93% of procedures as opposed to 74%.28

Oil-based enemas such as cottonseed oil plus docusate (Colace) and diatrizoate sodium (Hypaque) are powerful lubricant laxatives that work by slowing the absorption of water from the bowel, so that the stool is softer. However, they have a number of adverse effects, such as severe allergic reactions (including angioedema and anaphylaxis), muscle cramps, and sporadic seepage that can soil the patient's undergarments for up to 24 hours. Also, their safety in children less than 2 years of age and in pregnant and breastfeeding mothers is not established.

Oil-based enemas are usually reserved for short-term use in refractory constipation, especially to soften feces that has become hardened within the rectum (as in fecal impaction).27

Adjuncts

Diet. Dietary modifications alone, such as a clear liquid diet, are inadequate for colonoscopy, but they may be beneficial as adjuncts to other cleansing methods by decreasing the formation of solid residue. Clear liquids also help maintain adequate hydration during bowel preparation and are recommended with all bowel preparation regimens.

Hyperosmolar or stimulant laxatives. Bisacodyl (two to four tablets of 5 mg each), magnesium citrate (one bottle, about 300 mL), and low-dose senna (36 mg, about four 8.6-mg Sennakot tablets) have been used as adjuncts to low-volume polyethylene glycol solution, achieving results similar to those with full-volume polyethylene glycol. Depending on the type of study to be done, these agents are taken within 2 to 6 hours of starting the polyethylene glycol solution.

In contrast, the routine use of nonabsorbable carbohydrates such as mannitol and lactulose is not favored for bowel preparation, since the hydrogen gas produced by bacterial fermentation of the nonabsorbed carbohydrates increases the risk of explosion during electrosurgical procedures.29

Antiemetic agents. Metoclopramide (5–10 mg), a dopamine antagonist gastroprokinetic that sensitizes tissues to the action of acetylcholine, is commonly used to prevent nausea or vomiting associated with bowel preparation agents.7,30

Antifoaming agent. Simethicone (three tablets of 80 mg each, total dose 240 mg), an anti-flatulent, anti-gas agent, is prescribed by many gastroenterologists in an attempt to reduce bubbles during colonoscopy and improve visibility. It works by reducing the surface tension of air bubbles and causing small bubbles to coalesce into larger ones that pass more easily with belching or flatulence.

Nasogastric or orogastric tubes have been used to instill colonic preparations, especially for inpatients unable to drink polyethylene glycol solutions or for patients who are unresponsive or mechanically ventilated. This method can also be useful for rapid bowel cleansing (within 2 to 3 hours) for patients with lower gastrointestinal bleeding. However, routine use of a nasogastric tube solely for bowel preparation is discouraged as it can lead to severe complications, such as aspiration and trauma during insertion.7

 

 

OTHER CONSIDERATIONS

Patient education

The importance of patient education for successful bowel preparation cannot be overemphasized. Patients need to be informed about why they need to undergo colonoscopy, the importance of bowel preparation, the side effects of agents used, and the exact preparation instructions. An interactive educational tutorial about colonoscopy for patients is available at Medline Plus at http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/tutorials/colonoscopy/htm/index.htm.

In a prospective study, an education program reduced the rate of preparation failure from 26% to 5%.31 Many endoscopy centers provide education about colonoscopy and give patients clear, written instructions at the time an appointment for colonoscopy is made. Table 2 details bowel preparation instructions for split-dose polyethylene glycol regimens. Similar instructions for bowel preparation are also available online at http://clevelandclinic.org/bowelprep.

Role of hydration

A commonly held misconception is that patients taking 4 L of polyethylene glycol do not need additional hydration, since they are already ingesting such a large volume of fluid. Given that bowel preparations induce diarrhea and, in some instances, nausea and vomiting, all patients taking bowel preparations are at risk of dehydration.32 In fact, the fluid loss during bowel preparation may exceed 2 to 3 L. It is not surprising that many safety issues associated with bowel preparation agents are related to dehydration and its complications.

Hence, patients should be advised to consume at least 64 oz (approximately 2 L) of clear fluid on the day before the colonoscopy. According to the American Society of Anesthesiologists, clear liquids can be safely ingested up until 2 hours before receiving anesthesia.33 Patients should contact their physicians if they experience vomiting or cannot comply with clear liquid volume instructions prior to colonoscopy. Metoclopramide has been found useful in many cases of nausea or vomiting associated with bowel preparation agents.18 In addition, patients should also be reminded to keep drinking extra fluids after the procedure is completed to reduce the risk of dehydration and its complications (Table 2).

References
  1. Harewood GC, Sharma VK, de Garmo P. Impact of colonoscopy preparation quality on detection of suspected colonic neoplasia. Gastrointest Endosc 2003; 58:7679.
  2. Hendry PO, Jenkins JT, Diament RH. The impact of poor bowel preparation on colonoscopy: a prospective single centre study of 10,571 colonoscopies. Colorectal Dis 2007; 9:745748.
  3. Burke CA, Church JM. Enhancing the quality of colonoscopy: the importance of bowel purgatives. Gastrointest Endosc 2007; 66:565573.
  4. Rex DK, Imperiale TF, Latinovich DR, Bratcher LL. Impact of bowel preparation on efficiency and cost of colonoscopy. Am J Gastroenterol 2002; 97:16961700.
  5. Levin B, Lieberman DA, McFarland B, et al; American Cancer Society Colorectal Cancer Advisory Group. Screening and surveillance for the early detection of colorectal cancer and adenomatous polyps, 2008: a joint guideline from the American Cancer Society, the US Multi-Society Task Force on Colorectal Cancer, and the American College of Radiology. Gastroenterology 2008; 134:15701595.
  6. Espey DK, Wu XC, Swan J, et al. Annual report to the nation on the status of cancer, 1975–2004, featuring cancer in American Indians and Alaska Natives. Cancer 2007; 110:21192152.
  7. Wexner SD, Beck DE, Baron TH, et al. A consensus document on bowel preparation before colonoscopy: prepared by a task force from the American Society of Colon and Rectal Surgeons (ASCRS), the American Society for Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ASGE), and the Society of American Gastrointestinal and Endoscopic Surgeons (SAGES). Dis Colon Rectum 2006; 49:792809.
  8. Barkun A, Chiba N, Enns R, et al. Commonly used preparations for colonoscopy: efficacy, tolerability, and safety—a Canadian Association of Gastroenterology position paper. Can J Gastroenterol 2006; 20:699710.
  9. Davis GR, Santa Ana CA, Morawski SG, Fordtran JS. Development of a lavage solution associated with minimal water and electrolyte absorption or secretion. Gastroenterology 1980; 78:991995.
  10. Clark LE, Dipalma JA. Safety issues regarding colonic cleansing for diagnostic and surgical procedures. Drug Saf 2004; 27:12351242.
  11. Nelson DB, Barkun AN, Block KP, et al. Technology Status Evaluation report. Colonoscopy preparations. May 2001. Gastrointest Endosc 2001; 54:829832.
  12. DiPalma JA, Marshall JB. Comparison of a new sulfate-free polyethylene glycol electrolyte lavage solution versus a standard solution for colonoscopy cleansing. Gastrointest Endosc 1990; 36:285289.
  13. DiPalma JA, Wolff BG, Meagher A, Cleveland M. Comparison of reduced volume versus four liters sulfate-free electrolyte lavage solutions for colonoscopy colon cleansing. Am J Gastroenterol 2003; 98:21872191.
  14. Ell C, Fischbach W, Bronisch HJ, et al. Randomized trial of low-volume PEG solution versus standard PEG + electrolytes for bowel cleansing before colonoscopy. Am J Gastroenterol 2008; 103:883893.
  15. Adams WJ, Meagher AP, Lubowski DZ, King DW. Bisacodyl reduces the volume of polyethylene glycol solution required for bowel preparation. Dis Colon Rectum 1994; 37:229233.
  16. Ker TS. Comparison of reduced volume versus four-liter electrolyte lavage solutions for colon cleansing. Am Surg 2006; 72:909911.
  17. Sharma VK, Steinberg EN, Vasudeva R, Howden CW. Randomized, controlled study of pretreatment with magnesium citrate on the quality of colonoscopy preparation with polyethylene glycol electrolyte lavage solution. Gastrointest Endosc 1997; 46:541543.
  18. Belsey J, Epstein O, Heresbach D. Systematic review: oral bowel preparation for colonoscopy. Aliment Pharmacol Ther 2007; 25:373384.
  19. Tan JJ, Tjandra JJ. Which is the optimal bowel preparation for colonoscopy—a meta-analysis. Colorectal Dis 2006; 8:247258.
  20. Kastenberg D, Chasen R, Choudhary C, et al. Efficacy and safety of sodium phosphate tablets compared with PEG solution in colon cleansing: two identically designed, randomized, controlled, parallel group, multicenter phase III trials. Gastrointest Endosc 2001; 54:705713.
  21. Balaban DH, Leavell BS, Oblinger MJ, Thompson WO, Bolton ND, Pambianco DJ. Low volume bowel preparation for colonoscopy: randomized, endoscopist-blinded trial of liquid sodium phosphate versus tablet sodium phosphate. Am J Gastroenterol 2003; 98:827832.
  22. Rex DK. 10 Questions You Need to Ask About Colonoscopy. New York Times February 25, 2009. http://www.nytimes.com/2009/02/24/health/esn-colonoscopy-expert.html?_r=1. Accessed March 14, 2010.
  23. Makkar R, Shen B. What are the caveats to using sodium phosphate agents for bowel preparation? Cleve Clin J Med 2008; 75:173176.
  24. Hookey LC, Depew WT, Vanner S. The safety profile of oral sodium phosphate for colonic cleansing before colonoscopy in adults. Gastrointestinal Endosc 2002; 56:895902.
  25. US Food and Drug Administration (FDA). Oral Sodium Phosphate (OSP) Products for Bowel Cleansing (marketed as Visicol and OsmoPrep, and oral sodium phosphate products available without a prescription). FDA Alert. December 11, 2008. http://www.fda.gov/Safety/MedWatch/SafetyInformation/SafetyAlertsforHumanMedicalProducts/ucm094900.htm. Accessed March 14, 2010.
  26. Hoy SM, Scott LJ, Wagstaff AJ. Sodium picosulfate/magnesium citrate: a review of its use as a colorectal cleanser. Drugs 2009; 69:123136.
  27. Sohn N, Weinstein MA. Management of the poorly prepared colonoscopy patient: colonoscopic colon enemas as a preparation for colonoscopy. Dis Colon Rectum 2008; 51:462466.
  28. Drew PJ, Hughes M, Hodson R, et al. The optimum bowel preparation for flexible sigmoidoscopy. Eur J Surg Oncol 1997; 23:315316.
  29. Bigard MA, Gaucher P, Lassalle C. Fatal colonic explosion during colonoscopic polypectomy. Gastroenterology 1979; 77:13071310.
  30. Rhodes JB, Engstrom J, Stone KF. Metoclopramide reduces the distress associated with colon cleansing by an oral electrolyte overload. Gastrointest Endosc 1978; 24:162163.
  31. Abuksis G, Mor M, Segal N, et al. A patient education program is cost-effective for preventing failure of endoscopic procedures in a gastroenterology department. Am J Gastroenterol 2001; 96:17861790.
  32. Dykes C, Cash BD. Key safety issues of bowel preparations for colonoscopy and importance of adequate hydration. Gastroenterol Nurs 2008; 31:3035.
  33. Practice guidelines for preoperative fasting and the use of pharmacologic agents to reduce the risk of pulmonary aspiration: application to healthy patients undergoing elective procedures: a report by the American Society of Anesthesiologist Task Force on Preoperative Fasting. Anesthesiology 1999; 90:896905.
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Ashish Atreja, MD, MPH, FACP
Digestive Diseases Institute, Cleveland Clinic; Clinical instructor, Cleveland Clinic Lerner College of Medicine of Case Western Reserve University

Sansrita Nepal, MD
Department of Medicine, All India Institute of Medical Sciences, Ansari Nagar, New Delhi, India

Bret A. Lashner, MD, MPH
Professor of Medicine, Cleveland Clinic Lerner College of Medicine of Case Western Reserve University; Director, Gastroenterology Fellowship Program; and Director, Center for Inflammatory Bowel Disease, Department of Gastroenterology and Hepatology, Digestive Disease Institute, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Ashish Atreja, MD, MPH, Digestive Diseases Institute, A31, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

Dr. Lashner has disclosed that he has received honoraria from the Salix corporation for teaching and speaking.

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Ashish Atreja, MD, MPH, FACP
Digestive Diseases Institute, Cleveland Clinic; Clinical instructor, Cleveland Clinic Lerner College of Medicine of Case Western Reserve University

Sansrita Nepal, MD
Department of Medicine, All India Institute of Medical Sciences, Ansari Nagar, New Delhi, India

Bret A. Lashner, MD, MPH
Professor of Medicine, Cleveland Clinic Lerner College of Medicine of Case Western Reserve University; Director, Gastroenterology Fellowship Program; and Director, Center for Inflammatory Bowel Disease, Department of Gastroenterology and Hepatology, Digestive Disease Institute, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Ashish Atreja, MD, MPH, Digestive Diseases Institute, A31, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

Dr. Lashner has disclosed that he has received honoraria from the Salix corporation for teaching and speaking.

Author and Disclosure Information

Ashish Atreja, MD, MPH, FACP
Digestive Diseases Institute, Cleveland Clinic; Clinical instructor, Cleveland Clinic Lerner College of Medicine of Case Western Reserve University

Sansrita Nepal, MD
Department of Medicine, All India Institute of Medical Sciences, Ansari Nagar, New Delhi, India

Bret A. Lashner, MD, MPH
Professor of Medicine, Cleveland Clinic Lerner College of Medicine of Case Western Reserve University; Director, Gastroenterology Fellowship Program; and Director, Center for Inflammatory Bowel Disease, Department of Gastroenterology and Hepatology, Digestive Disease Institute, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Ashish Atreja, MD, MPH, Digestive Diseases Institute, A31, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

Dr. Lashner has disclosed that he has received honoraria from the Salix corporation for teaching and speaking.

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Figure 1. Adequate bowel preparation is essential before colonoscopy. The preparation is excellent in the top two images, allowing optimal visualization of a polyp in the top right image (arrow). In contrast, the bottom two images show inadequate bowel preparation, with semisolid or solid debris that obscures the complete view of the mucosa in spite of extensive flushing and suction.
During colonoscopy, the physician needs to inspect the entire mucosal surface. This can be done only if the bowel has been adequately prepared—ie, cleaned out (Figure 1). Inadequate bowel preparation reduces the quality of colonoscopy, raises the procedural risks, and increases the chance that polyps will go undetected.1–3 Furthermore, poor bowel preparation substantially increases costs by prolonging the procedure time and increasing the chance of an aborted examination, necessitating another procedure at an interval sooner than called for in the standard guidelines.3,4

Adequate bowel preparation depends on the right choice of bowel-cleansing agent. But with a myriad of products available, the right choice can be confusing to make.

This review discusses the currently recommended methods for bowel preparation before colonoscopy and suggests ways to solve common problems.

EARLY DETECTION IS KEY

Colorectal cancer is the third most common cancer in the United States and the second most common cause of cancer deaths. It largely can be prevented by detecting and removing adenomatous polyps, and survival rates are significantly better when it is diagnosed while still localized.5 Early detection, through widely applied screening programs that include colonoscopy, is thought to be playing a key role in the recent decline of colorectal cancer rates in developed countries.6

THREE TYPES OF AGENTS

Bowel preparation agents, for the most part, can be classified into one of three categories:

  • Polyethylene glycol solutions, which work as high-volume gut lavage solutions
  • Osmotic agents, such as sodium phosphate, magnesium citrate, lactulose, and mannitol, which draw extracellular fluid across the bowel wall and into the lumen
  • Stimulants (castor oil, senna, sodium picosulfte, and bisacodyl), which work by increasing smooth muscle activity within the wall of the colon.

POLYETHYLENE GLYCOL SOLUTIONS

Bowel preparation in the past consisted of dietary restriction, stimulant laxatives, and enemas. 7,8 However, these were time-consuming (taking 48–72 hours), harsh, and not very effective for adequate visualization during colonoscopy.

In 1980, Davis et al9 developed an osmotically balanced, high-molecular weight, nonabsorbable polymer given in a dilute electrolyte solution. The osmotic effect of the polymer keeps the electrolyte solution in the colon. Since little fluid is exchanged across the colonic membrane, the potential for systemic electrolyte disturbance is limited.

Since then, these solutions have become some of the preferred bowel cleansing agents worldwide.7,8 They work as an oral lavage and hence need to be taken in high volume (typically 4 L) for bowel cleansing.

Advantages and disadvantages of polyethylene glycol solutions

Polyethylene glycol solutions are more effective and better tolerated than regimens of diet combined with cathartic agents, or high-volume balanced electrolyte solutions, or mannitol-based solutions.7 Since they are osmotically balanced and do not induce substantial shifts in fluid and electrolytes, they are safe for patients who have electrolyte imbalances, advanced liver disease, poorly compensated congestive heart failure, or renal failure.

These preparations are, however, contraindicated in patients who have allergies to polyethylene glycol compounds, gastric outlet obstruction, high-grade small-bowel obstruction, significant colonic obstruction, perforation, diverticulitis, or hemodynamic instability. In addition, they are classified by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as pregnancy category C and have been associated (albeit rarely) with Mallory-Weiss tear, toxic colitis, pulmonary aspiration, hypothermia, cardiac arrhythmias, pancreatitis, and inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion.10,11

The main disadvantages of these solutions are the large volume of fluid (4 L) that patients must drink and their unpalatable taste, which is due to sodium sulfate. The large volume of ingestion is the main reason for nausea, bloating, cramping, and vomiting with these products, which affect patient compliance and the ultimate success of colonoscopy.

Commercially available polyethylene glycol solutions

Many polyethylene glycol preparations are available today. They can be divided into those that are full-volume solutions (typically 4 L, flavored or unflavored, with sulfate or sulfate-free) and low-volume solutions (typically 2 L) (Table 1).

Standard full-volume solutions (Colyte, GoLYTELY) have been widely studied and have the most evidence of safety and effectiveness. They are also inexpensive, and most insurance companies pay for them. However, about 5% to 15% of patients do not complete the preparation, because of poor palatability, large volume, or both.7

Sulfate-free and flavored solutions. To make polyethylene glycol solutions more tolerable, sulfate-free solutions have been developed. These are less salty, more palatable, and comparable to standard solutions in terms of effective colonic cleansing.12 Sulfate-free polyethylene glycol solutions commercially available in the United States are NuLytely (flavors: cherry, lemon-lime, orange, pineapple) and TriLyte (flavors: cherry, citrus-berry, lemon-lime, orange, pineapple).

Low-volume solutions have been developed in an attempt to increase acceptability and reduce volume-related adverse effects such as bloating. For example, HalfLytely (flavor: lemon-lime) consists of 2 L of polyethylene glycol solution packaged with two bisacodyl tablets. Stimulant laxatives such as bisacodyl and magnesium citrate effectively debulk the colon of solid stool and allow a lower volume of solution to be used.13,14

Also commercially available is a preparation that contains ascorbic acid (MoviPrep). Ascorbic acid acts as a flavoring and as a cathartic, also permitting a lower volume of fluid to be used.

Studies that compared full-volume and low-volume regimens (the latter including ascorbic acid, magnesium citrate, or bisacodyl) found the low-volume regimens to be as effective and more tolerable.14–18

Combining over-the-counter polyethylene glycol 3350 laxative powder (MiraLAX) and Gatorade or Crystal Light (or another clear liquid of choice) has also been shown to improve the taste and tolerability of the preparation. Although beneficial and commonly used in certain regions of the United States, this combination is not approved for bowel preparation and its use is considered off-label.

 

 

Increasing patient adherence to polyethylene glycol solutions

One way to increase tolerability and patient adherence is to split the dose so that the patient takes half the laxative prescription (polyethylene glycol or otherwise) the night before colonoscopy and the other half in the morning, usually about 4 to 5 hours before the scheduled time of the procedure.18,19

Split dosing not only improves patient acceptability, but also cleans the colon better.4 Traditional dosing, ie, drinking the entire volume of solution the night before, leaves a long interval between the end of the preparation process and the start of the procedure. Thick intestinal secretions empty out of the small intestine during that interval and obscure the cecum and ascending colon. With split dosing, the second dose is completed a few hours before the procedure, cleaning out the remaining intestinal secretions and obviating this problem.

Other measures that can make polyethylene glycol solutions more tolerable are:

  • Chilling the solution
  • Adding lemon slices or sugar-free flavor enhancers (such as Crystal Light) or lemon juice
  • Giving the solution by nasogastric tube (at a rate of 1.2–1.8 L per hour) in patients with swallowing dysfunction or altered mental status
  • Adding metoclopramide (Reglan) 5 to 10 mg orally to prevent or treat nausea
  • Adding magnesium citrate (1 bottle, about 300 mL) in patients without renal insufficiency, or bisacodyl (two to four tablets of 5 mg each), so that the volume can be less15,16
  • Stopping further ingestion of solution once the stool is watery and clear on the morning of the procedure (for patients who can clearly understand and follow bowel preparation instructions).17

SODIUM PHOSPHATE SOLUTIONS

Sodium phosphate is an osmotic laxative that draws water into the bowel lumen to promote colonic cleansing. Retention of water in the lumen of the colon stimulates peristalsis and bowel movements.

Advantages and disadvantages of sodium phosphate solutions

Sodium phosphate is widely used worldwide and has been found to be a very acceptable and effective bowel cleansing agent. A recent systematic review of 25 studies18 found that sodium phosphate was superior to polyethylene glycol in 14 studies, that there was no significant difference in 10 studies, and that only one study found polyethylene glycol to be better tolerated than sodium phosphate.18 Similarly, a meta-analysis19 found sodium phosphate to be more effective than polyethylene glycol in bowel cleansing (odds ratio 0.75; P = .0004); more easily completed by patients (odds ratio 0.16; P < .00001); and comparable in terms of adverse events (odds ratio 0.98; P = .81).19 However, most of the clinical trials excluded patients who had renal failure, ascites, or serious heart disease—the groups most at risk of significant adverse effects from sodium phosphate use. The main reasons sodium phosphate was better tolerated were better flavor and smaller volume (1.5–2 L compared with 4 L for polyethylene glycol).20–22

The main disadvantage of sodium phosphate is its potential to cause large fluid and electrolyte shifts. Its use has been associated with a variety of electrolyte abnormalities, including hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, increased plasma osmolality, hyponatremia, and, conversely, hypernatremia.7,8,23 Asymptomatic hyperphosphatemia alone can be seen in as many as 40% of healthy patients completing sodium phosphate preparations. It may be significant in patients with renal failure and can lead to acute phosphate nephropathy.

Rare adverse events such as nephrocalcinosis with acute renal failure also have been reported, especially in patients taking angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.23

The significant volume contraction and consequent dehydration seen in some patients using sodium phosphate may be decreased by encouraging patients to drink fluids liberally, especially before the day of the procedure and after the procedure.7

Recently, renal failure due to hyperphosphatemia (acute phosphate nephropathy) has been reported even in patients with normal kidney function.24 Because of the risk of inappropriate use or overdose associated with over-the counter sodium phosphate, the FDA recommended on December 11, 2008, that sodium phosphate products be available only by prescription when they are used for bowel cleansing.25 The C.B. Fleet Company voluntarily recalled its oral sodium phosphate products sold over the counter (Fleet Phospho-Soda and Fleet EZ-PREP). In addition, the FDA required a black box warning on the prescription oral sodium phosphate products Visicol and OsmoPrep, alerting consumers to the risk of acute phosphate nephropathy.25 According to the FDA, health professionals should use caution when prescribing Visicol or OsmoPrep for patients who may be at higher risk of kidney injury, such as:

  • Patients over 55 years of age
  • Patients who are dehydrated or who have kidney disease, acute colitis, or delayed bowel emptying
  • Patients taking certain drugs that affect kidney function, such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.16

Commercially available sodium phosphate products

Sodium phosphate products can still be prescribed, but they are no longer available over the counter in the United States. Patients should be screened to make sure they can safely take these products, and the doses should not exceed the maximum recommended.

Figure 2.
Currently, the only two sodium phosphate preparations available in the United States are in tablet form (Visicol and OsmoPrep). Oral sodium phosphate solution is no longer available. The recommended dose is 20 tablets on the evening before the procedure and 12 tablets (OsmoPrep) to 20 tablets (Visicol) 3 to 5 hours before the procedure, given with clear liquids or ginger ale. Adverse effects are reduced with the tablet formulation; however, the large number of tablets required is the major drawback, reducing patient acceptability.

Figure 2 shows a simplified algorithm for selecting the optimal bowel preparation agent for an individual patient.

 

 

OTHER BOWEL PREPARATION AGENTS AND ADJUNCTS

Magnesium citrate

Like sodium phosphate, magnesium citrate is a hyperosmotic agent that promotes bowel cleansing by increasing intraluminal fluid volume. Since magnesium is eliminated solely by the kidney, it should be used with extreme caution in patients with renal insufficiency or renal failure.

Adding magnesium citrate as an adjunct to polyethylene glycol has been shown to reduce the amount of polyethylene glycol solution required (2 L) for the same result.17

For patients who cannot tolerate polyethylene glycol, a reasonable alternative is magnesium citrate (1 bottle, around 300 mL) the evening before the procedure plus either bisacodyl tablets at the same time as the magnesium citrate or rectal pulsed irrigation immediately before the procedure.7

Saline laxatives that include sodium picosulfate and magnesium citrate in combination are available primarily in the United Kingdom for bowel preparation for colonoscopy. Sodium picosulfate acts locally in the colon as a stimulant laxative and by increasing the force of laxatives, whereas magnesium citrate acts as an osmotic laxative by retaining fluids in the colon to clear the colon and rectum of fecal contents. The combination has been found to have similar efficacy and tolerability as sodium phosphate but is not currently available in the United States.26

Enemas

Enemas are sufficient for flexible sigmoidoscopy, but when used alone they do not clean out the proximal colon enough for adequate visualization during colonoscopy. They are best used as adjuncts to other bowel preparation agents when patients present with poor distal colon preparation for colonoscopy.7,27 Enemas are also useful in washing out the distal segment of bowel in patients with a proximal stoma. The common types of enemas used are tap water, sodium biphosphate (Fleet), and mineral oil.

Tap water enemas distend the rectum and mimic the natural distention by the stool to allow the rectum to empty itself. Tap water (1 L) has fewer adverse effects than sodium biphosphate or mineral oil but is less effective.

Sodium biphosphate (Fleet) enemas draw fluid into the bowel by osmotic action, prompting contraction. One or two bottles are commonly used for bowel cleansing before sigmoidoscopy. However, as with oral sodium phosphate, sodium biphosphate enemas should be avoided in the elderly and in those with renal failure because of the risk of hyperphosphatemia and subsequent hypocalcemia.

In a head-to-head comparison,28 sodium biphosphate enema was found to provide significantly better bowel preparation than the sodium picosulfate-magnesium citrate combination (currently not available in the United States) for flexible sigmoidoscopy, being judged adequate or better in 93% of procedures as opposed to 74%.28

Oil-based enemas such as cottonseed oil plus docusate (Colace) and diatrizoate sodium (Hypaque) are powerful lubricant laxatives that work by slowing the absorption of water from the bowel, so that the stool is softer. However, they have a number of adverse effects, such as severe allergic reactions (including angioedema and anaphylaxis), muscle cramps, and sporadic seepage that can soil the patient's undergarments for up to 24 hours. Also, their safety in children less than 2 years of age and in pregnant and breastfeeding mothers is not established.

Oil-based enemas are usually reserved for short-term use in refractory constipation, especially to soften feces that has become hardened within the rectum (as in fecal impaction).27

Adjuncts

Diet. Dietary modifications alone, such as a clear liquid diet, are inadequate for colonoscopy, but they may be beneficial as adjuncts to other cleansing methods by decreasing the formation of solid residue. Clear liquids also help maintain adequate hydration during bowel preparation and are recommended with all bowel preparation regimens.

Hyperosmolar or stimulant laxatives. Bisacodyl (two to four tablets of 5 mg each), magnesium citrate (one bottle, about 300 mL), and low-dose senna (36 mg, about four 8.6-mg Sennakot tablets) have been used as adjuncts to low-volume polyethylene glycol solution, achieving results similar to those with full-volume polyethylene glycol. Depending on the type of study to be done, these agents are taken within 2 to 6 hours of starting the polyethylene glycol solution.

In contrast, the routine use of nonabsorbable carbohydrates such as mannitol and lactulose is not favored for bowel preparation, since the hydrogen gas produced by bacterial fermentation of the nonabsorbed carbohydrates increases the risk of explosion during electrosurgical procedures.29

Antiemetic agents. Metoclopramide (5–10 mg), a dopamine antagonist gastroprokinetic that sensitizes tissues to the action of acetylcholine, is commonly used to prevent nausea or vomiting associated with bowel preparation agents.7,30

Antifoaming agent. Simethicone (three tablets of 80 mg each, total dose 240 mg), an anti-flatulent, anti-gas agent, is prescribed by many gastroenterologists in an attempt to reduce bubbles during colonoscopy and improve visibility. It works by reducing the surface tension of air bubbles and causing small bubbles to coalesce into larger ones that pass more easily with belching or flatulence.

Nasogastric or orogastric tubes have been used to instill colonic preparations, especially for inpatients unable to drink polyethylene glycol solutions or for patients who are unresponsive or mechanically ventilated. This method can also be useful for rapid bowel cleansing (within 2 to 3 hours) for patients with lower gastrointestinal bleeding. However, routine use of a nasogastric tube solely for bowel preparation is discouraged as it can lead to severe complications, such as aspiration and trauma during insertion.7

 

 

OTHER CONSIDERATIONS

Patient education

The importance of patient education for successful bowel preparation cannot be overemphasized. Patients need to be informed about why they need to undergo colonoscopy, the importance of bowel preparation, the side effects of agents used, and the exact preparation instructions. An interactive educational tutorial about colonoscopy for patients is available at Medline Plus at http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/tutorials/colonoscopy/htm/index.htm.

In a prospective study, an education program reduced the rate of preparation failure from 26% to 5%.31 Many endoscopy centers provide education about colonoscopy and give patients clear, written instructions at the time an appointment for colonoscopy is made. Table 2 details bowel preparation instructions for split-dose polyethylene glycol regimens. Similar instructions for bowel preparation are also available online at http://clevelandclinic.org/bowelprep.

Role of hydration

A commonly held misconception is that patients taking 4 L of polyethylene glycol do not need additional hydration, since they are already ingesting such a large volume of fluid. Given that bowel preparations induce diarrhea and, in some instances, nausea and vomiting, all patients taking bowel preparations are at risk of dehydration.32 In fact, the fluid loss during bowel preparation may exceed 2 to 3 L. It is not surprising that many safety issues associated with bowel preparation agents are related to dehydration and its complications.

Hence, patients should be advised to consume at least 64 oz (approximately 2 L) of clear fluid on the day before the colonoscopy. According to the American Society of Anesthesiologists, clear liquids can be safely ingested up until 2 hours before receiving anesthesia.33 Patients should contact their physicians if they experience vomiting or cannot comply with clear liquid volume instructions prior to colonoscopy. Metoclopramide has been found useful in many cases of nausea or vomiting associated with bowel preparation agents.18 In addition, patients should also be reminded to keep drinking extra fluids after the procedure is completed to reduce the risk of dehydration and its complications (Table 2).

Figure 1. Adequate bowel preparation is essential before colonoscopy. The preparation is excellent in the top two images, allowing optimal visualization of a polyp in the top right image (arrow). In contrast, the bottom two images show inadequate bowel preparation, with semisolid or solid debris that obscures the complete view of the mucosa in spite of extensive flushing and suction.
During colonoscopy, the physician needs to inspect the entire mucosal surface. This can be done only if the bowel has been adequately prepared—ie, cleaned out (Figure 1). Inadequate bowel preparation reduces the quality of colonoscopy, raises the procedural risks, and increases the chance that polyps will go undetected.1–3 Furthermore, poor bowel preparation substantially increases costs by prolonging the procedure time and increasing the chance of an aborted examination, necessitating another procedure at an interval sooner than called for in the standard guidelines.3,4

Adequate bowel preparation depends on the right choice of bowel-cleansing agent. But with a myriad of products available, the right choice can be confusing to make.

This review discusses the currently recommended methods for bowel preparation before colonoscopy and suggests ways to solve common problems.

EARLY DETECTION IS KEY

Colorectal cancer is the third most common cancer in the United States and the second most common cause of cancer deaths. It largely can be prevented by detecting and removing adenomatous polyps, and survival rates are significantly better when it is diagnosed while still localized.5 Early detection, through widely applied screening programs that include colonoscopy, is thought to be playing a key role in the recent decline of colorectal cancer rates in developed countries.6

THREE TYPES OF AGENTS

Bowel preparation agents, for the most part, can be classified into one of three categories:

  • Polyethylene glycol solutions, which work as high-volume gut lavage solutions
  • Osmotic agents, such as sodium phosphate, magnesium citrate, lactulose, and mannitol, which draw extracellular fluid across the bowel wall and into the lumen
  • Stimulants (castor oil, senna, sodium picosulfte, and bisacodyl), which work by increasing smooth muscle activity within the wall of the colon.

POLYETHYLENE GLYCOL SOLUTIONS

Bowel preparation in the past consisted of dietary restriction, stimulant laxatives, and enemas. 7,8 However, these were time-consuming (taking 48–72 hours), harsh, and not very effective for adequate visualization during colonoscopy.

In 1980, Davis et al9 developed an osmotically balanced, high-molecular weight, nonabsorbable polymer given in a dilute electrolyte solution. The osmotic effect of the polymer keeps the electrolyte solution in the colon. Since little fluid is exchanged across the colonic membrane, the potential for systemic electrolyte disturbance is limited.

Since then, these solutions have become some of the preferred bowel cleansing agents worldwide.7,8 They work as an oral lavage and hence need to be taken in high volume (typically 4 L) for bowel cleansing.

Advantages and disadvantages of polyethylene glycol solutions

Polyethylene glycol solutions are more effective and better tolerated than regimens of diet combined with cathartic agents, or high-volume balanced electrolyte solutions, or mannitol-based solutions.7 Since they are osmotically balanced and do not induce substantial shifts in fluid and electrolytes, they are safe for patients who have electrolyte imbalances, advanced liver disease, poorly compensated congestive heart failure, or renal failure.

These preparations are, however, contraindicated in patients who have allergies to polyethylene glycol compounds, gastric outlet obstruction, high-grade small-bowel obstruction, significant colonic obstruction, perforation, diverticulitis, or hemodynamic instability. In addition, they are classified by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as pregnancy category C and have been associated (albeit rarely) with Mallory-Weiss tear, toxic colitis, pulmonary aspiration, hypothermia, cardiac arrhythmias, pancreatitis, and inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion.10,11

The main disadvantages of these solutions are the large volume of fluid (4 L) that patients must drink and their unpalatable taste, which is due to sodium sulfate. The large volume of ingestion is the main reason for nausea, bloating, cramping, and vomiting with these products, which affect patient compliance and the ultimate success of colonoscopy.

Commercially available polyethylene glycol solutions

Many polyethylene glycol preparations are available today. They can be divided into those that are full-volume solutions (typically 4 L, flavored or unflavored, with sulfate or sulfate-free) and low-volume solutions (typically 2 L) (Table 1).

Standard full-volume solutions (Colyte, GoLYTELY) have been widely studied and have the most evidence of safety and effectiveness. They are also inexpensive, and most insurance companies pay for them. However, about 5% to 15% of patients do not complete the preparation, because of poor palatability, large volume, or both.7

Sulfate-free and flavored solutions. To make polyethylene glycol solutions more tolerable, sulfate-free solutions have been developed. These are less salty, more palatable, and comparable to standard solutions in terms of effective colonic cleansing.12 Sulfate-free polyethylene glycol solutions commercially available in the United States are NuLytely (flavors: cherry, lemon-lime, orange, pineapple) and TriLyte (flavors: cherry, citrus-berry, lemon-lime, orange, pineapple).

Low-volume solutions have been developed in an attempt to increase acceptability and reduce volume-related adverse effects such as bloating. For example, HalfLytely (flavor: lemon-lime) consists of 2 L of polyethylene glycol solution packaged with two bisacodyl tablets. Stimulant laxatives such as bisacodyl and magnesium citrate effectively debulk the colon of solid stool and allow a lower volume of solution to be used.13,14

Also commercially available is a preparation that contains ascorbic acid (MoviPrep). Ascorbic acid acts as a flavoring and as a cathartic, also permitting a lower volume of fluid to be used.

Studies that compared full-volume and low-volume regimens (the latter including ascorbic acid, magnesium citrate, or bisacodyl) found the low-volume regimens to be as effective and more tolerable.14–18

Combining over-the-counter polyethylene glycol 3350 laxative powder (MiraLAX) and Gatorade or Crystal Light (or another clear liquid of choice) has also been shown to improve the taste and tolerability of the preparation. Although beneficial and commonly used in certain regions of the United States, this combination is not approved for bowel preparation and its use is considered off-label.

 

 

Increasing patient adherence to polyethylene glycol solutions

One way to increase tolerability and patient adherence is to split the dose so that the patient takes half the laxative prescription (polyethylene glycol or otherwise) the night before colonoscopy and the other half in the morning, usually about 4 to 5 hours before the scheduled time of the procedure.18,19

Split dosing not only improves patient acceptability, but also cleans the colon better.4 Traditional dosing, ie, drinking the entire volume of solution the night before, leaves a long interval between the end of the preparation process and the start of the procedure. Thick intestinal secretions empty out of the small intestine during that interval and obscure the cecum and ascending colon. With split dosing, the second dose is completed a few hours before the procedure, cleaning out the remaining intestinal secretions and obviating this problem.

Other measures that can make polyethylene glycol solutions more tolerable are:

  • Chilling the solution
  • Adding lemon slices or sugar-free flavor enhancers (such as Crystal Light) or lemon juice
  • Giving the solution by nasogastric tube (at a rate of 1.2–1.8 L per hour) in patients with swallowing dysfunction or altered mental status
  • Adding metoclopramide (Reglan) 5 to 10 mg orally to prevent or treat nausea
  • Adding magnesium citrate (1 bottle, about 300 mL) in patients without renal insufficiency, or bisacodyl (two to four tablets of 5 mg each), so that the volume can be less15,16
  • Stopping further ingestion of solution once the stool is watery and clear on the morning of the procedure (for patients who can clearly understand and follow bowel preparation instructions).17

SODIUM PHOSPHATE SOLUTIONS

Sodium phosphate is an osmotic laxative that draws water into the bowel lumen to promote colonic cleansing. Retention of water in the lumen of the colon stimulates peristalsis and bowel movements.

Advantages and disadvantages of sodium phosphate solutions

Sodium phosphate is widely used worldwide and has been found to be a very acceptable and effective bowel cleansing agent. A recent systematic review of 25 studies18 found that sodium phosphate was superior to polyethylene glycol in 14 studies, that there was no significant difference in 10 studies, and that only one study found polyethylene glycol to be better tolerated than sodium phosphate.18 Similarly, a meta-analysis19 found sodium phosphate to be more effective than polyethylene glycol in bowel cleansing (odds ratio 0.75; P = .0004); more easily completed by patients (odds ratio 0.16; P < .00001); and comparable in terms of adverse events (odds ratio 0.98; P = .81).19 However, most of the clinical trials excluded patients who had renal failure, ascites, or serious heart disease—the groups most at risk of significant adverse effects from sodium phosphate use. The main reasons sodium phosphate was better tolerated were better flavor and smaller volume (1.5–2 L compared with 4 L for polyethylene glycol).20–22

The main disadvantage of sodium phosphate is its potential to cause large fluid and electrolyte shifts. Its use has been associated with a variety of electrolyte abnormalities, including hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, increased plasma osmolality, hyponatremia, and, conversely, hypernatremia.7,8,23 Asymptomatic hyperphosphatemia alone can be seen in as many as 40% of healthy patients completing sodium phosphate preparations. It may be significant in patients with renal failure and can lead to acute phosphate nephropathy.

Rare adverse events such as nephrocalcinosis with acute renal failure also have been reported, especially in patients taking angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.23

The significant volume contraction and consequent dehydration seen in some patients using sodium phosphate may be decreased by encouraging patients to drink fluids liberally, especially before the day of the procedure and after the procedure.7

Recently, renal failure due to hyperphosphatemia (acute phosphate nephropathy) has been reported even in patients with normal kidney function.24 Because of the risk of inappropriate use or overdose associated with over-the counter sodium phosphate, the FDA recommended on December 11, 2008, that sodium phosphate products be available only by prescription when they are used for bowel cleansing.25 The C.B. Fleet Company voluntarily recalled its oral sodium phosphate products sold over the counter (Fleet Phospho-Soda and Fleet EZ-PREP). In addition, the FDA required a black box warning on the prescription oral sodium phosphate products Visicol and OsmoPrep, alerting consumers to the risk of acute phosphate nephropathy.25 According to the FDA, health professionals should use caution when prescribing Visicol or OsmoPrep for patients who may be at higher risk of kidney injury, such as:

  • Patients over 55 years of age
  • Patients who are dehydrated or who have kidney disease, acute colitis, or delayed bowel emptying
  • Patients taking certain drugs that affect kidney function, such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.16

Commercially available sodium phosphate products

Sodium phosphate products can still be prescribed, but they are no longer available over the counter in the United States. Patients should be screened to make sure they can safely take these products, and the doses should not exceed the maximum recommended.

Figure 2.
Currently, the only two sodium phosphate preparations available in the United States are in tablet form (Visicol and OsmoPrep). Oral sodium phosphate solution is no longer available. The recommended dose is 20 tablets on the evening before the procedure and 12 tablets (OsmoPrep) to 20 tablets (Visicol) 3 to 5 hours before the procedure, given with clear liquids or ginger ale. Adverse effects are reduced with the tablet formulation; however, the large number of tablets required is the major drawback, reducing patient acceptability.

Figure 2 shows a simplified algorithm for selecting the optimal bowel preparation agent for an individual patient.

 

 

OTHER BOWEL PREPARATION AGENTS AND ADJUNCTS

Magnesium citrate

Like sodium phosphate, magnesium citrate is a hyperosmotic agent that promotes bowel cleansing by increasing intraluminal fluid volume. Since magnesium is eliminated solely by the kidney, it should be used with extreme caution in patients with renal insufficiency or renal failure.

Adding magnesium citrate as an adjunct to polyethylene glycol has been shown to reduce the amount of polyethylene glycol solution required (2 L) for the same result.17

For patients who cannot tolerate polyethylene glycol, a reasonable alternative is magnesium citrate (1 bottle, around 300 mL) the evening before the procedure plus either bisacodyl tablets at the same time as the magnesium citrate or rectal pulsed irrigation immediately before the procedure.7

Saline laxatives that include sodium picosulfate and magnesium citrate in combination are available primarily in the United Kingdom for bowel preparation for colonoscopy. Sodium picosulfate acts locally in the colon as a stimulant laxative and by increasing the force of laxatives, whereas magnesium citrate acts as an osmotic laxative by retaining fluids in the colon to clear the colon and rectum of fecal contents. The combination has been found to have similar efficacy and tolerability as sodium phosphate but is not currently available in the United States.26

Enemas

Enemas are sufficient for flexible sigmoidoscopy, but when used alone they do not clean out the proximal colon enough for adequate visualization during colonoscopy. They are best used as adjuncts to other bowel preparation agents when patients present with poor distal colon preparation for colonoscopy.7,27 Enemas are also useful in washing out the distal segment of bowel in patients with a proximal stoma. The common types of enemas used are tap water, sodium biphosphate (Fleet), and mineral oil.

Tap water enemas distend the rectum and mimic the natural distention by the stool to allow the rectum to empty itself. Tap water (1 L) has fewer adverse effects than sodium biphosphate or mineral oil but is less effective.

Sodium biphosphate (Fleet) enemas draw fluid into the bowel by osmotic action, prompting contraction. One or two bottles are commonly used for bowel cleansing before sigmoidoscopy. However, as with oral sodium phosphate, sodium biphosphate enemas should be avoided in the elderly and in those with renal failure because of the risk of hyperphosphatemia and subsequent hypocalcemia.

In a head-to-head comparison,28 sodium biphosphate enema was found to provide significantly better bowel preparation than the sodium picosulfate-magnesium citrate combination (currently not available in the United States) for flexible sigmoidoscopy, being judged adequate or better in 93% of procedures as opposed to 74%.28

Oil-based enemas such as cottonseed oil plus docusate (Colace) and diatrizoate sodium (Hypaque) are powerful lubricant laxatives that work by slowing the absorption of water from the bowel, so that the stool is softer. However, they have a number of adverse effects, such as severe allergic reactions (including angioedema and anaphylaxis), muscle cramps, and sporadic seepage that can soil the patient's undergarments for up to 24 hours. Also, their safety in children less than 2 years of age and in pregnant and breastfeeding mothers is not established.

Oil-based enemas are usually reserved for short-term use in refractory constipation, especially to soften feces that has become hardened within the rectum (as in fecal impaction).27

Adjuncts

Diet. Dietary modifications alone, such as a clear liquid diet, are inadequate for colonoscopy, but they may be beneficial as adjuncts to other cleansing methods by decreasing the formation of solid residue. Clear liquids also help maintain adequate hydration during bowel preparation and are recommended with all bowel preparation regimens.

Hyperosmolar or stimulant laxatives. Bisacodyl (two to four tablets of 5 mg each), magnesium citrate (one bottle, about 300 mL), and low-dose senna (36 mg, about four 8.6-mg Sennakot tablets) have been used as adjuncts to low-volume polyethylene glycol solution, achieving results similar to those with full-volume polyethylene glycol. Depending on the type of study to be done, these agents are taken within 2 to 6 hours of starting the polyethylene glycol solution.

In contrast, the routine use of nonabsorbable carbohydrates such as mannitol and lactulose is not favored for bowel preparation, since the hydrogen gas produced by bacterial fermentation of the nonabsorbed carbohydrates increases the risk of explosion during electrosurgical procedures.29

Antiemetic agents. Metoclopramide (5–10 mg), a dopamine antagonist gastroprokinetic that sensitizes tissues to the action of acetylcholine, is commonly used to prevent nausea or vomiting associated with bowel preparation agents.7,30

Antifoaming agent. Simethicone (three tablets of 80 mg each, total dose 240 mg), an anti-flatulent, anti-gas agent, is prescribed by many gastroenterologists in an attempt to reduce bubbles during colonoscopy and improve visibility. It works by reducing the surface tension of air bubbles and causing small bubbles to coalesce into larger ones that pass more easily with belching or flatulence.

Nasogastric or orogastric tubes have been used to instill colonic preparations, especially for inpatients unable to drink polyethylene glycol solutions or for patients who are unresponsive or mechanically ventilated. This method can also be useful for rapid bowel cleansing (within 2 to 3 hours) for patients with lower gastrointestinal bleeding. However, routine use of a nasogastric tube solely for bowel preparation is discouraged as it can lead to severe complications, such as aspiration and trauma during insertion.7

 

 

OTHER CONSIDERATIONS

Patient education

The importance of patient education for successful bowel preparation cannot be overemphasized. Patients need to be informed about why they need to undergo colonoscopy, the importance of bowel preparation, the side effects of agents used, and the exact preparation instructions. An interactive educational tutorial about colonoscopy for patients is available at Medline Plus at http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/tutorials/colonoscopy/htm/index.htm.

In a prospective study, an education program reduced the rate of preparation failure from 26% to 5%.31 Many endoscopy centers provide education about colonoscopy and give patients clear, written instructions at the time an appointment for colonoscopy is made. Table 2 details bowel preparation instructions for split-dose polyethylene glycol regimens. Similar instructions for bowel preparation are also available online at http://clevelandclinic.org/bowelprep.

Role of hydration

A commonly held misconception is that patients taking 4 L of polyethylene glycol do not need additional hydration, since they are already ingesting such a large volume of fluid. Given that bowel preparations induce diarrhea and, in some instances, nausea and vomiting, all patients taking bowel preparations are at risk of dehydration.32 In fact, the fluid loss during bowel preparation may exceed 2 to 3 L. It is not surprising that many safety issues associated with bowel preparation agents are related to dehydration and its complications.

Hence, patients should be advised to consume at least 64 oz (approximately 2 L) of clear fluid on the day before the colonoscopy. According to the American Society of Anesthesiologists, clear liquids can be safely ingested up until 2 hours before receiving anesthesia.33 Patients should contact their physicians if they experience vomiting or cannot comply with clear liquid volume instructions prior to colonoscopy. Metoclopramide has been found useful in many cases of nausea or vomiting associated with bowel preparation agents.18 In addition, patients should also be reminded to keep drinking extra fluids after the procedure is completed to reduce the risk of dehydration and its complications (Table 2).

References
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  2. Hendry PO, Jenkins JT, Diament RH. The impact of poor bowel preparation on colonoscopy: a prospective single centre study of 10,571 colonoscopies. Colorectal Dis 2007; 9:745748.
  3. Burke CA, Church JM. Enhancing the quality of colonoscopy: the importance of bowel purgatives. Gastrointest Endosc 2007; 66:565573.
  4. Rex DK, Imperiale TF, Latinovich DR, Bratcher LL. Impact of bowel preparation on efficiency and cost of colonoscopy. Am J Gastroenterol 2002; 97:16961700.
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  8. Barkun A, Chiba N, Enns R, et al. Commonly used preparations for colonoscopy: efficacy, tolerability, and safety—a Canadian Association of Gastroenterology position paper. Can J Gastroenterol 2006; 20:699710.
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  13. DiPalma JA, Wolff BG, Meagher A, Cleveland M. Comparison of reduced volume versus four liters sulfate-free electrolyte lavage solutions for colonoscopy colon cleansing. Am J Gastroenterol 2003; 98:21872191.
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  16. Ker TS. Comparison of reduced volume versus four-liter electrolyte lavage solutions for colon cleansing. Am Surg 2006; 72:909911.
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  19. Tan JJ, Tjandra JJ. Which is the optimal bowel preparation for colonoscopy—a meta-analysis. Colorectal Dis 2006; 8:247258.
  20. Kastenberg D, Chasen R, Choudhary C, et al. Efficacy and safety of sodium phosphate tablets compared with PEG solution in colon cleansing: two identically designed, randomized, controlled, parallel group, multicenter phase III trials. Gastrointest Endosc 2001; 54:705713.
  21. Balaban DH, Leavell BS, Oblinger MJ, Thompson WO, Bolton ND, Pambianco DJ. Low volume bowel preparation for colonoscopy: randomized, endoscopist-blinded trial of liquid sodium phosphate versus tablet sodium phosphate. Am J Gastroenterol 2003; 98:827832.
  22. Rex DK. 10 Questions You Need to Ask About Colonoscopy. New York Times February 25, 2009. http://www.nytimes.com/2009/02/24/health/esn-colonoscopy-expert.html?_r=1. Accessed March 14, 2010.
  23. Makkar R, Shen B. What are the caveats to using sodium phosphate agents for bowel preparation? Cleve Clin J Med 2008; 75:173176.
  24. Hookey LC, Depew WT, Vanner S. The safety profile of oral sodium phosphate for colonic cleansing before colonoscopy in adults. Gastrointestinal Endosc 2002; 56:895902.
  25. US Food and Drug Administration (FDA). Oral Sodium Phosphate (OSP) Products for Bowel Cleansing (marketed as Visicol and OsmoPrep, and oral sodium phosphate products available without a prescription). FDA Alert. December 11, 2008. http://www.fda.gov/Safety/MedWatch/SafetyInformation/SafetyAlertsforHumanMedicalProducts/ucm094900.htm. Accessed March 14, 2010.
  26. Hoy SM, Scott LJ, Wagstaff AJ. Sodium picosulfate/magnesium citrate: a review of its use as a colorectal cleanser. Drugs 2009; 69:123136.
  27. Sohn N, Weinstein MA. Management of the poorly prepared colonoscopy patient: colonoscopic colon enemas as a preparation for colonoscopy. Dis Colon Rectum 2008; 51:462466.
  28. Drew PJ, Hughes M, Hodson R, et al. The optimum bowel preparation for flexible sigmoidoscopy. Eur J Surg Oncol 1997; 23:315316.
  29. Bigard MA, Gaucher P, Lassalle C. Fatal colonic explosion during colonoscopic polypectomy. Gastroenterology 1979; 77:13071310.
  30. Rhodes JB, Engstrom J, Stone KF. Metoclopramide reduces the distress associated with colon cleansing by an oral electrolyte overload. Gastrointest Endosc 1978; 24:162163.
  31. Abuksis G, Mor M, Segal N, et al. A patient education program is cost-effective for preventing failure of endoscopic procedures in a gastroenterology department. Am J Gastroenterol 2001; 96:17861790.
  32. Dykes C, Cash BD. Key safety issues of bowel preparations for colonoscopy and importance of adequate hydration. Gastroenterol Nurs 2008; 31:3035.
  33. Practice guidelines for preoperative fasting and the use of pharmacologic agents to reduce the risk of pulmonary aspiration: application to healthy patients undergoing elective procedures: a report by the American Society of Anesthesiologist Task Force on Preoperative Fasting. Anesthesiology 1999; 90:896905.
References
  1. Harewood GC, Sharma VK, de Garmo P. Impact of colonoscopy preparation quality on detection of suspected colonic neoplasia. Gastrointest Endosc 2003; 58:7679.
  2. Hendry PO, Jenkins JT, Diament RH. The impact of poor bowel preparation on colonoscopy: a prospective single centre study of 10,571 colonoscopies. Colorectal Dis 2007; 9:745748.
  3. Burke CA, Church JM. Enhancing the quality of colonoscopy: the importance of bowel purgatives. Gastrointest Endosc 2007; 66:565573.
  4. Rex DK, Imperiale TF, Latinovich DR, Bratcher LL. Impact of bowel preparation on efficiency and cost of colonoscopy. Am J Gastroenterol 2002; 97:16961700.
  5. Levin B, Lieberman DA, McFarland B, et al; American Cancer Society Colorectal Cancer Advisory Group. Screening and surveillance for the early detection of colorectal cancer and adenomatous polyps, 2008: a joint guideline from the American Cancer Society, the US Multi-Society Task Force on Colorectal Cancer, and the American College of Radiology. Gastroenterology 2008; 134:15701595.
  6. Espey DK, Wu XC, Swan J, et al. Annual report to the nation on the status of cancer, 1975–2004, featuring cancer in American Indians and Alaska Natives. Cancer 2007; 110:21192152.
  7. Wexner SD, Beck DE, Baron TH, et al. A consensus document on bowel preparation before colonoscopy: prepared by a task force from the American Society of Colon and Rectal Surgeons (ASCRS), the American Society for Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ASGE), and the Society of American Gastrointestinal and Endoscopic Surgeons (SAGES). Dis Colon Rectum 2006; 49:792809.
  8. Barkun A, Chiba N, Enns R, et al. Commonly used preparations for colonoscopy: efficacy, tolerability, and safety—a Canadian Association of Gastroenterology position paper. Can J Gastroenterol 2006; 20:699710.
  9. Davis GR, Santa Ana CA, Morawski SG, Fordtran JS. Development of a lavage solution associated with minimal water and electrolyte absorption or secretion. Gastroenterology 1980; 78:991995.
  10. Clark LE, Dipalma JA. Safety issues regarding colonic cleansing for diagnostic and surgical procedures. Drug Saf 2004; 27:12351242.
  11. Nelson DB, Barkun AN, Block KP, et al. Technology Status Evaluation report. Colonoscopy preparations. May 2001. Gastrointest Endosc 2001; 54:829832.
  12. DiPalma JA, Marshall JB. Comparison of a new sulfate-free polyethylene glycol electrolyte lavage solution versus a standard solution for colonoscopy cleansing. Gastrointest Endosc 1990; 36:285289.
  13. DiPalma JA, Wolff BG, Meagher A, Cleveland M. Comparison of reduced volume versus four liters sulfate-free electrolyte lavage solutions for colonoscopy colon cleansing. Am J Gastroenterol 2003; 98:21872191.
  14. Ell C, Fischbach W, Bronisch HJ, et al. Randomized trial of low-volume PEG solution versus standard PEG + electrolytes for bowel cleansing before colonoscopy. Am J Gastroenterol 2008; 103:883893.
  15. Adams WJ, Meagher AP, Lubowski DZ, King DW. Bisacodyl reduces the volume of polyethylene glycol solution required for bowel preparation. Dis Colon Rectum 1994; 37:229233.
  16. Ker TS. Comparison of reduced volume versus four-liter electrolyte lavage solutions for colon cleansing. Am Surg 2006; 72:909911.
  17. Sharma VK, Steinberg EN, Vasudeva R, Howden CW. Randomized, controlled study of pretreatment with magnesium citrate on the quality of colonoscopy preparation with polyethylene glycol electrolyte lavage solution. Gastrointest Endosc 1997; 46:541543.
  18. Belsey J, Epstein O, Heresbach D. Systematic review: oral bowel preparation for colonoscopy. Aliment Pharmacol Ther 2007; 25:373384.
  19. Tan JJ, Tjandra JJ. Which is the optimal bowel preparation for colonoscopy—a meta-analysis. Colorectal Dis 2006; 8:247258.
  20. Kastenberg D, Chasen R, Choudhary C, et al. Efficacy and safety of sodium phosphate tablets compared with PEG solution in colon cleansing: two identically designed, randomized, controlled, parallel group, multicenter phase III trials. Gastrointest Endosc 2001; 54:705713.
  21. Balaban DH, Leavell BS, Oblinger MJ, Thompson WO, Bolton ND, Pambianco DJ. Low volume bowel preparation for colonoscopy: randomized, endoscopist-blinded trial of liquid sodium phosphate versus tablet sodium phosphate. Am J Gastroenterol 2003; 98:827832.
  22. Rex DK. 10 Questions You Need to Ask About Colonoscopy. New York Times February 25, 2009. http://www.nytimes.com/2009/02/24/health/esn-colonoscopy-expert.html?_r=1. Accessed March 14, 2010.
  23. Makkar R, Shen B. What are the caveats to using sodium phosphate agents for bowel preparation? Cleve Clin J Med 2008; 75:173176.
  24. Hookey LC, Depew WT, Vanner S. The safety profile of oral sodium phosphate for colonic cleansing before colonoscopy in adults. Gastrointestinal Endosc 2002; 56:895902.
  25. US Food and Drug Administration (FDA). Oral Sodium Phosphate (OSP) Products for Bowel Cleansing (marketed as Visicol and OsmoPrep, and oral sodium phosphate products available without a prescription). FDA Alert. December 11, 2008. http://www.fda.gov/Safety/MedWatch/SafetyInformation/SafetyAlertsforHumanMedicalProducts/ucm094900.htm. Accessed March 14, 2010.
  26. Hoy SM, Scott LJ, Wagstaff AJ. Sodium picosulfate/magnesium citrate: a review of its use as a colorectal cleanser. Drugs 2009; 69:123136.
  27. Sohn N, Weinstein MA. Management of the poorly prepared colonoscopy patient: colonoscopic colon enemas as a preparation for colonoscopy. Dis Colon Rectum 2008; 51:462466.
  28. Drew PJ, Hughes M, Hodson R, et al. The optimum bowel preparation for flexible sigmoidoscopy. Eur J Surg Oncol 1997; 23:315316.
  29. Bigard MA, Gaucher P, Lassalle C. Fatal colonic explosion during colonoscopic polypectomy. Gastroenterology 1979; 77:13071310.
  30. Rhodes JB, Engstrom J, Stone KF. Metoclopramide reduces the distress associated with colon cleansing by an oral electrolyte overload. Gastrointest Endosc 1978; 24:162163.
  31. Abuksis G, Mor M, Segal N, et al. A patient education program is cost-effective for preventing failure of endoscopic procedures in a gastroenterology department. Am J Gastroenterol 2001; 96:17861790.
  32. Dykes C, Cash BD. Key safety issues of bowel preparations for colonoscopy and importance of adequate hydration. Gastroenterol Nurs 2008; 31:3035.
  33. Practice guidelines for preoperative fasting and the use of pharmacologic agents to reduce the risk of pulmonary aspiration: application to healthy patients undergoing elective procedures: a report by the American Society of Anesthesiologist Task Force on Preoperative Fasting. Anesthesiology 1999; 90:896905.
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KEY POINTS

  • Polyethylene glycol solutions are fast, effective, and preferred for cleansing the colon.
  • Use of split dosing, a low-volume solution, or both can increase patient acceptability without compromising efficacy.
  • Sodium phosphate can be prescribed for patients who cannot tolerate polyethylene glycol solutions, provided they are not at risk of electrolyte or fluid imbalances.
  • Enemas, bisacodyl, magnesium citrate, and metoclopramide (Reglan) can be useful as adjuncts to polyethylene glycol but by themselves are inadequate for cleansing the entire colon.
  • Educating patients about bowel preparation instructions, including correct dosing and adequate hydration, helps reduce the risk of adverse events and serious adverse events.
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Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation: Increasing use in acute care

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Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation: Increasing use in acute care

Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)—delivered via a tight-fitting mask rather than via an endotracheal tube or tracheostomy—is one of the most important advances in the management of acute respiratory failure to emerge in the past 2 decades. It is now recommended as the first choice for ventilatory support in selected patients, such as those with exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or with cardiogenic pulmonary edema.1–3 In fact, some authors suggest that using NIPPV in more than 20% of COPD patients is a characteristic of respiratory care departments that are “avid for change”4—change being a good thing.

However, NIPPV has not been universally accepted, with wide variations in its utilization. In a 2006 survey, it was being used in only 33% of patients with COPD or congestive heart failure, for which it might be indicated. 5 Some potential reasons for the low rate are that physicians do not know about it, respiratory therapists are not sufficiently trained in it, and hospitals lack the equipment to do it.5

Our goal in this review is to familiarize the reader with how NIPPV has evolved and with its indications and contraindications in specific acute care conditions.

FROM A VACUUM CLEANER TO THE INTENSIVE CARE UNIT

NIPPV appears to have been first tried in 1870 by Chaussier, who used a bag and face mask to resuscitate neonates.6

In 1936, Poulton and Oxon7 described their “pulmonary plus pressure machine,” which used a vacuum cleaner blower and a mask to increase the alveolar pressure and thus counteract the increased intrapulmonary pressure in patients with heart failure, pulmonary edema, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, and asthma.

In the 1940s, intermittent positive pressure breathing devices were developed for use in high-altitude aviation. Motley, Werko, and Cournand8,9 subsequently used these devices to treat acute respiratory failure in pneumonia, pulmonary edema, near-drowning, Guillain-Barré syndrome, and acute severe asthma.

Although NIPPV was shown to be effective for acute conditions, invasive ventilation became preferred, particularly as blood gas analysis and ventilator technologies simultaneously matured, spurred at least in part by the polio epidemics of the 1950s.10

NIPPV reemerged in the 1980s for use in chronic conditions. First, continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) came into use for obstructive sleep apnea,11 followed by noninvasive positive-pressure volume ventilation in neuromuscular diseases.12 Bilevel positive pressure devices (ie, with separate inspiratory and expiratory pressures) soon followed, again initially for obstructive sleep apnea13 and then for diverse neuromuscular diseases.14

NIPPV is now a mainstream therapy for diverse conditions in acute and chronic care.3 One reason we now use it in acute conditions is to avoid the complications associated with intubation.

Some clinicians initially resisted using NIPPV, concerned that it demanded too much of the nurses’ time15 and was costly.16 However, in a 1997 study in patients with COPD and acute respiratory failure, Nava et al17 found that NIPPV was no more expensive and no more demanding of staff resources than invasive mechanical ventilation in the first 48 hours of ventilation. Further, after the first few days of ventilation, NIPPV put fewer time demands on physicians and nurses than did invasive mechanical ventilation.

THREE MODES: CPAP, PRESSURE-LIMITED, VOLUME-LIMITED

The term “noninvasive ventilation” generally encompasses various forms of positive pressure ventilation. However, negative pressure ventilation, in the form of diaphragm pacing, may regain a foothold in the devices used for respiratory support.18 We therefore favor the term “NIPPV” in this review.

The different modes of NIPPV—ie, CPAP, pressure-limited, and volume-limited—are compared in Table 1. Of these, the pressure-limited mode is most commonly used.2,19–21 Though there are several NIPPV-only devices, machines for invasive ventilation can also provide NIPPV.

NIPPV IN ACUTE RESPIRATORY FAILURE

The main reasons to use NIPPV instead of invasive ventilation in acute care are to avoid the complications of invasive ventilation, to improve outcomes (eg, reduce mortality rates, decrease hospital length of stay), and to decrease the cost of care.

The decision whether to initiate noninvasive support and where to provide it (ie, in a regular hospital ward, intensive care unit, or respiratory care unit) is best made by following the indications for and contraindications to NIPPV (Table 2), considering the specific disease, the strength of the recommendation (Table 3), and the expertise and skill of the staff.1,2,19 In general, NIPPV is more likely to fail in patients with more severe disease and lower arterial pH.3 It should not be applied indiscriminately, as it may simply delay a necessary intubation and raise the concomitant risks of such a delay, including death.22

NIPPV is the standard of care for acute exacerbations of COPD

NIPPV is currently considered the standard of care for patients who have acute exacerbations of COPD.23–26

In a meta-analysis of eight randomized controlled trials,24 the specific advantages of NIPPV compared with usual care in acute exacerbations of COPD included:

  • A lower risk of treatment failure, defined as death, need for intubation, or inability to tolerate the treatment (relative risk [RR] 0.51, number needed to treat [NNT] to prevent one treatment failure = 5)
  • A lower risk of intubation (RR 0.43, NNT = 5)
  • A lower mortality rate (RR 0.41, NNT = 8)
  • A lower risk of complications (RR 0.32, NNT = 3)
  • A shorter hospital length of stay (by about 3 days).

Mechanisms by which NIPPV may impart these benefits include reducing the work of breathing, unloading the respiratory muscles, lessening diaphragmatic pressure swings, reducing the respiratory rate, eliminating diaphragmatic work, and counteracting the threshold loading effects of auto-positive end-expiratory pressure (auto-PEEP).24–26

Also, if a patient with COPD is intubated, NIPPV seems to help after the tube is removed, preventing postextubation respiratory failure and facilitating weaning from invasive ventilation.27 These topics are discussed below.

A Cochrane systematic review24 concluded that NIPPV should be tried early in the course of respiratory failure, before severe acidosis develops. The patients in the studies in this review all had partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (Paco2) levels greater than 45 mm Hg.

In patients with severe respiratory acidosis (pH < 7.25), NIPPV failure rates are greater than 50%. However, trying NIPPV may still be justified, even in the presence of hypercapnic encephalopathy, as long as no other indications for invasive support and facilities for prompt endotracheal intubation are available. 1

However, in another systematic review,26 in patients with mild COPD exacerbations (pH > 7.35), NIPPV was no more effective than standard medical therapy in preventing acute respiratory failure, preventing death, or reducing length of hospitalization. Moreover, nearly 50% of the patients could not tolerate NIPPV.

 

 

Rapid improvement in cardiogenic pulmonary edema, but possibly no lower mortality rate

The Three Interventions in Cardiogenic Pulmonary Oedema (3CPO) trial,28 with 1,156 patients, was the largest randomized trial to compare NIPPV and standard oxygen therapy for acute pulmonary edema. It found that NIPPV (either CPAP or noninvasive intermittent positive pressure ventilation) was significantly better than standard oxygen therapy (through a variable-delivery oxygen mask with a reservoir) in the first hour of treatment in terms of the dyspnea score, heart rate, acidosis, and hypercapnia. However, there were no significant differences between groups in the 7- or 30-day mortality rates, the rates of intubation, rates of admission to the critical care unit, or in the mean length of hospital stay.

In contrast, several smaller randomized trials and meta-analyses showed lower intubation and mortality rates with NIPPV.29,30 Factors that may account for those differences include a much lower intubation rate in the 3CPO trial (2.9% overall, compared with 20% with conventional therapy in other trials), a higher mortality rate in the 3CPO trial, and methodologic differences (eg, patients for whom standard therapy failed in the 3CPO trial received rescue NIPPV).

If NIPPV is beneficial in cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the mechanisms are probably its favorable hemodynamic effects and its positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) effect on flooded alveoli. Specifically, positive intrathoracic pressure can be expected to reduce both preload and afterload, with improvement in the cardiac index and reduced work of breathing. 31,32

Notwithstanding the possible lack of impact of NIPPV on death or intubation rates in this setting, the intervention rapidly improves dyspnea and respiratory and metabolic abnormalities and should be considered for treatment of cardiogenic pulmonary edema associated with severe respiratory distress. A subgroup in which the NIPPV may reduce intubation rates is those with hypercapnia.33 A concern that NIPPV may increase the rate of myocardial infarction34 was not confirmed in the 3CPO trial.28 Interestingly, there were no differences in outcomes between CPAP and noninvasive intermittent positive pressure ventilation in this setting.28,34,35

Immunocompromised patients with acute respiratory failure

A particular challenge of NIPPV in immunocompromised patients, particularly compared with its use in COPD exacerbation or cardiogenic pulmonary edema, is that the underlying pathophysiology of respiratory dysfunction in immunocompromised patients may not be readily reversible. Therefore, its application in this group may need to follow clearly defined indications.

In one trial,20 inclusion criteria were:

  • Immune suppression (due to neutropenia after chemotherapy or bone marrow transplantation, immunosuppressive drugs for organ transplantation, corticosteroids, cytotoxic therapy for nonmalignant conditions, or the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)
  • Persistent pulmonary infiltrates
  • Fever (temperature > 38.3°C; 100.9°F)
  • A respiratory rate greater than 30 breaths per minute
  • Severe dyspnea at rest
  • Early hypoxemic acute respiratory failure, defined as a ratio of the partial pressure of arterial oxygen to the fraction of inspired oxygen (Pao2/Fio2 ratio) less than 200 while on oxygen.

Compared with patients who received conventional treatment, fewer of those randomized to additional intermittent noninvasive ventilation had to be intubated (46% vs 77%, P = .03), suffered serious complications (50% vs 81%, P = .02), or died in the intensive care unit (38% vs 69%, P = .03) or in the hospital (50% vs 81%, P = .02).

Similarly, in a randomized trial in 40 patients with acute respiratory failure after solid organ transplantation, more patients in the NIPPV group than in the control group had an improvement in the Pao2/Fio2 ratio within the first hour (70% vs 25%, P = .004) or a sustained improvement in the Pao2/Fio2 ratio (60% vs 25%, P = .03); fewer of them needed endotracheal intubation (20% vs 70%, P = .002); fewer of them died of complications (20% vs 50%, P = .05); they had a shorter length of stay in the intensive care unit (mean 5.5 vs 9 days, P = .03); and fewer of them died in the intensive care unit (20% vs 50%, P = .05). There was, however, no difference in the overall hospital mortality rate.36

MAY NOT HELP AFTER EXTUBATION, EXCEPT IN SPECIFIC CASES

NIPPV has been used to treat respiratory failure after extubation,22,37 to prevent acute respiratory failure after failure of weaning,38–41 and to support breathing in patients who failed a trial of spontaneous breathing.42–45

Unfortunately, the evidence for using NIPPV in respiratory failure after extubation, including unplanned extubation, appears to be unfavorable, except possibly in patients with chronic pulmonary disease (particularly COPD and possibly obesity) and hypercapnia. An international consensus report stated that NIPPV should be considered in patients with hypercapnic respiratory insufficiency, especially those with COPD, to shorten the duration of intubation, but that it should not be routinely used in extubation respiratory failure.46

Treatment of respiratory failure after extubation

Two recent randomized controlled trials compared NIPPV and standard care in patients who met the criteria for readiness for extubation but who developed respiratory failure after mechanical ventilation was discontinued. 22,37 Those two studies showed a longer time to reintubation for patients randomized to NIPPV but no differences in the rate of reintubation between the two groups and no difference in the lengths of stay in the intensive care unit.

Of greater concern, one study showed a higher rate of death in the intensive care unit in the NIPPV group than in the standard therapy group (25% vs 14%, respectively).22 This finding suggests that NIPPV delayed necessary reintubation in patients developing respiratory failure after extubation, with a consequent risk of fatal complications.

 

 

Prevention of respiratory failure after extubation

Other studies used NIPPV to prevent respiratory failure after extubation rather than wait to apply it after respiratory failure developed.38–41

Nava et al,40 in a trial in patients successfully weaned but considered to be at risk of reintubation, found that fewer of those randomized to NIPPV had to be reintubated than those who received standard care (8% vs 24%), and 10% fewer of them died in the intensive care unit. Risk factors for reintubation (and therefore eligibility criteria for this trial) included a Paco2 higher than 45 mm Hg, more than one consecutive failure of weaning, chronic heart failure, other comorbidity, weak cough, or stridor.

Extubated patients are a heterogeneous group, so if some subgroups benefit from a transition to NIPPV after extubation, it will be important to identify them. For instance, a subgroup analysis of a study by Ferrer et al38 indicated the survival benefit of NIPPV after extubation was limited to patients with chronic respiratory disorders and hypercapnia during a trial of spontaneous breathing.

In a subsequent successful test of this hypothesis, a randomized trial showed that the early use of noninvasive ventilation in patients with hypercapnia after a trial of spontaneous breathing and with chronic respiratory disorders (COPD, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis, obesity-hypoventilation, sequelae of tuberculosis, chest wall deformity, or chronic persistent asthma) reduced the risk of respiratory failure after extubation and the risk of death within the first 90 days.39

Others in which this approach may be helpful are obese patients who have high Paco2 levels. Compared with historical controls, 62 patients with a body mass index greater than 35 kg/m2 who received NIPPV in the 48 hours after extubation had a lower rate of respiratory failure, shorter lengths of stay in the intensive care unit and hospital, and, in the subgroup with hypercapnia, a lower hospital mortality rate.41

NIPPV to facilitate weaning

In several studies, mechanically ventilated patients who had failed a trial of spontaneous breathing were randomized to undergo either accelerated weaning, extubation, and NIPPV or conventional weaning with pressure support via mechanical ventilation.42–46 Most patients developed hypercapnia during the spontaneous breathing trials, and most of the patients had COPD.

A meta-analysis47 of the randomized trials of this approach concluded that, compared with continued invasive ventilation, NIPPV decreased the risk of death (relative risk 0.41) and of ventilator-associated pneumonia (relative risk 0.28) and reduced the total duration of mechanical ventilation by a weighted mean difference of 7.33 days. The benefits appeared to be most significant in patients with COPD.

NIPPV IN ASTHMA AND STATUS ASTHMATICUS

Noninvasive ventilation is an attractive alternative to intubation for patients with status asthmaticus, given the challenges and conflicting demands of maintaining ventilation despite severe airway obstruction.

In a 1996 prospective study of 17 episodes of asthma associated with acute respiratory failure, Meduri et al48 showed that NIPPV could progressively improve the pH and the Paco2 over 12 to 24 hours and reduce the respiratory rate.

In a subsequent controlled trial, Soroksky et al49 randomized 30 patients presenting to an emergency room with a severe asthma attack to NIPPV with conventional therapy vs conventional therapy only. The study group had a significantly greater increase in the forced expiratory volume in 1 second compared with the control group (54% vs 29%, respectively) and a lower hospitalization rate (18% vs 63%).

Another randomized trial of NIPPV, in patients with status asthmaticus presenting to an emergency room, was prematurely terminated due to a physician treatment bias that favored NIPPV.50 The preliminary results of that study showed a 7.3% higher intubation rate in the control group than in the NIPPV group, along with trends toward a lower intubation rate, a shorter length of hospital stay, and lower hospital charges in the NIPPV group.

Despite these initial favorable results, a Cochrane review concluded that the use of NIPPV in patients with status asthmaticus is controversial.51 NIPPV can be tried in selected patients such as those with mild to moderate respiratory distress (respiratory rate greater than 25 breaths per minute, use of accessory muscles to breathe, difficulty speaking), an arterial pH of 7.25 to 7.35, and a Paco2 of 45 to 55 mm Hg.52 Patients with impending respiratory failure or the inability to protect the airway should probably not be considered for NIPPV.52

IN ACUTE LUNG INJURY AND ACUTE RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME

The most challenging application of NIPPV may be in patients with acute lung injury and the acute respiratory distress syndrome.

Initial trials of NIPPV in this setting have been disappointing, and a meta-analysis of the topic concluded that NIPPV was unlikely to have any significant benefit.53 An earlier study that used CPAP in patients with acute respiratory failure predominantly due to acute lung injury showed early physiologic improvements but no reduction in the need for intubation, no improvement in outcomes, and a higher rate of adverse events, including cardiac arrest, in those randomized to CPAP.54

A subsequent observational cohort specifically identified shock, metabolic acidosis, and severe hypoxemia as predictors of NIPPV failure.55

A more recent prospective study demonstrated that NIPPV improved gas exchange and obviated intubation in 54% of patients, with a consequent reduction in ventilator-associated pneumonia and a lower rate of death in the intensive care unit.56 A Simplified Acute Physiology Score (SAPS) II greater than 34 and a Pao2/Fio2 ratio less than 175 after 1 hour of NIPPV were identified as predicting that NIPPV would fail.56

 

 

MISCELLANEOUS APPLICATIONS

The more widespread use of NIPPV has encouraged its use in other acute situations, including during procedures such as percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG)57,58 or bronchoscopy,59,60 for palliative use in patients listed as “do-not-intubate,”61–63 and for oxygenation before intubation.64

NIPPV during PEG tube insertion

NIPPV during PEG tube placement is particularly useful for patients with neuromuscular diseases who are at a combined risk of aspiration, poor oral intake, and respiratory failure during procedures. The experience with patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis58 and Duchenne muscular dystrophy57 indicates that even patients at high risk of respiratory failure during procedures can be successfully managed with NIPPV. The most recent practice parameters for patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis propose that patients with dysphagia may be exposed to less risk if the PEG procedure is performed when the forced vital capacity is greater than 50% of predicted.65

In randomized trials of CPAP59 or pressure-support NIPPV60 in high-risk hypoxemic patients who needed diagnostic bronchoscopy, patients in the intervention groups fared better than those who received oxygen alone, with better oxygenation during and after the procedure and a lower risk of postprocedure respiratory failure. Improved hemodynamics with a lower mean heart rate and a stable mean arterial pressure were also reported in one of those studies.60

Palliative use in ‘do-not-intubate’ patients

In patients who decline intubation, NIPPV appears to be most effective in reversing acute respiratory failure and improving mortality rates in those with COPD or with cardiogenic pulmonary edema.61,62 Controversy surrounding the use of NIPPV in “do-not-intubate” patients, particularly as a potentially uncomfortable life support technique, has been addressed by a task force of the Society of Critical Care Medicine, which recommends that it be applied only after careful discussion of goals of care and parameters of treatment with patients and their families.63

Oxygenation before intubation

In a prospective randomized study of oxygenation before rapid-sequence intubation via either a nonrebreather bag-valve mask or NIPPV, the NIPPV group had a higher oxygen saturation rate before, during, and after the intubation procedure.64
 


Acknowledgment: The authors wish to thank Jodith Janes of the Cleveland Clinic Alumni Library for her help with reference citations and with locating articles.

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  22. Esteban A, Frutos-Vivar F, Ferguson ND, et al. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation for respiratory failure after extubation. N Engl J Med 2004; 350:24522460.
  23. Hill NS. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation for respiratory failure caused by exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: a standard of care? Crit Care 2003; 7:400401.
  24. Lightowler JV, Wedzicha JA, Elliott MW, Ram FS. Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation to treat respiratory failure resulting from exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: Cochrane systematic review and meta-analysis. BMJ 2003; 326:185187.
  25. Brochard L, Mancebo J, Wysocki M, et al. Noninvasive ventilation for acute exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. N Engl J Med 1995; 333:817822.
  26. Keenan SP, Sinuff T, Cook DJ, Hill NS. Which patients with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease benefit from noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation? A systematic review of the literature. Ann Intern Med 2003; 138:861870.
  27. Epstein SK. Noninvasive ventilation to shorten the duration of mechanical ventilation. Respir Care 2009; 54:198208.
  28. Gray A, Goodacre S, Newby DE, Masson M, Sampson F, Nicholl J; 3CPO Trialists. Noninvasive ventilation in acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema. N Engl J Med 2008; 359:142151.
  29. Collins SP, Mielniczuk LM, Whittingham HA, Boseley ME, Schramm DR, Storrow AB. The use of noninvasive ventilation in emergency department patients with acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema: a systematic review. Ann Emerg Med 2006; 48:260269.
  30. Masip J, Roque M, Sánchez B, Fernández R, Subirana M, Expósito JA. Noninvasive ventilation in acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema: systematic review and meta-analysis. JAMA 2005; 294:31243130.
  31. Baratz DM, Westbrook PR, Shah PK, Mohsenifar Z. Effect of nasal continuous positive airway pressure on cardiac output and oxygen delivery in patients with congestive heart failure. Chest 1992; 102:13971401.
  32. Naughton MT, Rahman MA, Hara K, Floras JS, Bradley TD. Effect of continuous positive airway pressure on intrathoracic and left ventricular transmural pressures in patients with congestive heart failure. Circulation 1995; 91:17251731.
  33. Nava S, Carbone G, DiBattista N, et al. Noninvasive ventilation in cardiogenic pulmonary edema: a multicenter randomized trial. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 2003; 168:14321437.
  34. Mehta S, Jay GD, Woolard RH, et al. Randomized, prospective trial of bilevel versus continuous positive airway pressure in acute pulmonary edema. Crit Care Med 1997; 25:620628.
  35. Ho KM, Wong K. A comparison of continuous and bi-level positive airway pressure non-invasive ventilation in patients with acute cardiogenic pulmonary oedema: a meta-analysis. Crit Care 2006; 10:R49.
  36. Antonelli M, Conti G, Bufi M, et al. Noninvasive ventilation for treatment of acute respiratory failure in patients undergoing solid organ transplantation: a randomized trial. JAMA 2000; 283:235241.
  37. Keenan SP, Powers C, McCormack DG, Block G. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation for postextubation respiratory distress: a randomized controlled trial. JAMA 2002; 287:32383244.
  38. Ferrer M, Valencia M, Nicolas JM, Bernadich O, Badia JR, Torres A. Early noninvasive ventilation averts extubation failure in patients at risk: a randomized trial. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 2006; 173:164170.
  39. Ferrer M, Sellarés J, Valencia M, et al. Non-invasive ventilation after extubation in hypercapnic patients with chronic respiratory disorders: randomised controlled trial. Lancet 2009; 374:10821088.
  40. Nava S, Gregoretti C, Fanfulla F, et al. Noninvasive ventilation to prevent respiratory failure after extubation in high-risk patients. Crit Care Med 2005; 33:24652470.
  41. El-Solh AA, Aquilina A, Pineda L, Dhanvantri V, Grant B, Bouquin P. Noninvasive ventilation for prevention of post-extubation respiratory failure in obese patients. Eur Respir J 2006; 28:588595.
  42. Ferrer M, Esquinas A, Arancibia F, et al. Noninvasive ventilation during persistent weaning failure: a randomized controlled trial. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 2003; 168:7076.
  43. Girault C, Daudenthun I, Chevron V, Tamion F, Leroy J, Bonmarchand G. Noninvasive ventilation as a systematic extubation and weaning technique in acute-on-chronic respiratory failure: a prospective, randomized controlled study. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 1999; 160:8692.
  44. Nava S, Ambrosino N, Clini E, et al. Noninvasive mechanical ventilation in the weaning of patients with respiratory failure due to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A randomized, controlled trial. Ann Intern Med 1998; 128:721728.
  45. Trevisan CE, Vieira SR; Research Group in Mechanical Ventilation Weaning. Noninvasive mechanical ventilation may be useful in treating patients who fail weaning from invasive mechanical ventilation: a randomized clinical trial. Crit Care 2008; 12:R51.
  46. Boles JM, Bion J, Connors A, et al. Weaning from mechanical ventilation. Eur Respir J 2007; 29:10331056.
  47. Burns KE, Adhikari NK, Meade MO. A meta-analysis of noninvasive weaning to facilitate liberation from mechanical ventilation. Can J Anaesth 2006; 53:305315.
  48. Meduri GU, Cook TR, Turner RE, Cohen M, Leeper KV. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation in status asthmaticus. Chest 1996; 110:767774.
  49. Soroksky A, Stav D, Shpirer I. A pilot prospective, randomized, placebo-controlled trial of bilevel positive airway pressure in acute asthmatic attack. Chest 2003; 123:10181025.
  50. Holley MT, Morrissey TK, Seaberg DC, Afessa B, Wears RL. Ethical dilemmas in a randomized trial of asthma treatment: can Bayesian statistical analysis explain the results? Acad Emerg Med 2001; 8:11281135.
  51. Ram FS, Wellington S, Rowe BH, Wedzicha JA. Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation for treatment of respiratory failure due to severe acute exacerbations of asthma. Cochrane Database Syst Rev 2005;CD004360.
  52. Medoff BD. Invasive and noninvasive ventilation in patients with asthma. Respir Care 2008; 53:740748.
  53. Agarwal R, Reddy C, Aggarwal AN, Gupta D. Is there a role for noninvasive ventilation in acute respiratory distress syndrome? A meta-analysis. Respir Med 2006; 100:22352238.
  54. Delclaux C, L’Her E, Alberti C, et al. Treatment of acute hypoxemic nonhypercapnic respiratory insufficiency with continuous positive airway pressure delivered by a face mask: a randomized controlled trial. JAMA 2000; 284:23522360.
  55. Rana S, Jenad H, Gay PC, Buck CF, Hubmayr RD, Gajic O. Failure of non-invasive ventilation in patients with acute lung injury: observational cohort study. Crit Care 2006; 10:R79.
  56. Antonelli M, Conti G, Esquinas A, et al. A multiple-center survey on the use in clinical practice of noninvasive ventilation as a first-line intervention for acute respiratory distress syndrome. Crit Care Med 2007; 35:1825.
  57. Birnkrant DJ, Ferguson RD, Martin JE, Gordon GJ. Noninvasive ventilation during gastrostomy tube placement in patients with severe Duchenne muscular dystrophy: case reports and review of the literature. Pediatr Pulmonol 2006; 41:188193.
  58. Boitano LJ, Jordan T, Benditt JO. Noninvasive ventilation allows gastrostomy tube placement in patients with advanced ALS. Neurology 2001; 56:413414.
  59. Maitre B, Jaber S, Maggiore SM, et al. Continuous positive airway pressure during fiberoptic bronchoscopy in hypoxemic patients. A randomized double-blind study using a new device. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 2000; 162:10631067.
  60. Antonelli M, Conti G, Rocco M, et al. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation vs conventional oxygen supplementation in hypoxemic patients undergoing diagnostic bronchoscopy. Chest 2002; 121:11491154.
  61. Levy M, Tanios MA, Nelson D, et al. Outcomes of patients with do-not-intubate orders treated with noninvasive ventilation. Crit Care Med 2004; 32:20022007.
  62. Schettino G, Altobelli N, Kacmarek RM. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation reverses acute respiratory failure in select “do-not-intubate” patients. Crit Care Med 2005; 33:19761982.
  63. Curtis JR, Cook DJ, Sinuff T, et al; Society of Critical Care Medicine Palliative Noninvasive Positive Ventilation Task Force. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation in critical and palliative care settings: understanding the goals of therapy. Crit Care Med 2007; 35:932939.
  64. Baillard C, Fosse JP, Sebbane M, et al. Noninvasive ventilation improves preoxygenation before intubation of hypoxic patients. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 2006; 174:171177.
  65. Miller RG, Jackson CE, Kasarskis EJ, et al; Quality Standards Subcommittee of the American Academy of Neurology. Practice parameter update: the care of the patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis: drug, nutritional, and respiratory therapies (an evidence-based review): report of the Quality Standards Subcommittee of the American Academy of Neurology. Neurology 2009; 73:12181226.
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Address: Loutfi Aboussouan, MD, Respiratory Institute, Cleveland Clinic Beachwood, 26900 Cedar Road, Suite 325-S, Beachwood, OH 44122; e-mail: [email protected]

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Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)—delivered via a tight-fitting mask rather than via an endotracheal tube or tracheostomy—is one of the most important advances in the management of acute respiratory failure to emerge in the past 2 decades. It is now recommended as the first choice for ventilatory support in selected patients, such as those with exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or with cardiogenic pulmonary edema.1–3 In fact, some authors suggest that using NIPPV in more than 20% of COPD patients is a characteristic of respiratory care departments that are “avid for change”4—change being a good thing.

However, NIPPV has not been universally accepted, with wide variations in its utilization. In a 2006 survey, it was being used in only 33% of patients with COPD or congestive heart failure, for which it might be indicated. 5 Some potential reasons for the low rate are that physicians do not know about it, respiratory therapists are not sufficiently trained in it, and hospitals lack the equipment to do it.5

Our goal in this review is to familiarize the reader with how NIPPV has evolved and with its indications and contraindications in specific acute care conditions.

FROM A VACUUM CLEANER TO THE INTENSIVE CARE UNIT

NIPPV appears to have been first tried in 1870 by Chaussier, who used a bag and face mask to resuscitate neonates.6

In 1936, Poulton and Oxon7 described their “pulmonary plus pressure machine,” which used a vacuum cleaner blower and a mask to increase the alveolar pressure and thus counteract the increased intrapulmonary pressure in patients with heart failure, pulmonary edema, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, and asthma.

In the 1940s, intermittent positive pressure breathing devices were developed for use in high-altitude aviation. Motley, Werko, and Cournand8,9 subsequently used these devices to treat acute respiratory failure in pneumonia, pulmonary edema, near-drowning, Guillain-Barré syndrome, and acute severe asthma.

Although NIPPV was shown to be effective for acute conditions, invasive ventilation became preferred, particularly as blood gas analysis and ventilator technologies simultaneously matured, spurred at least in part by the polio epidemics of the 1950s.10

NIPPV reemerged in the 1980s for use in chronic conditions. First, continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) came into use for obstructive sleep apnea,11 followed by noninvasive positive-pressure volume ventilation in neuromuscular diseases.12 Bilevel positive pressure devices (ie, with separate inspiratory and expiratory pressures) soon followed, again initially for obstructive sleep apnea13 and then for diverse neuromuscular diseases.14

NIPPV is now a mainstream therapy for diverse conditions in acute and chronic care.3 One reason we now use it in acute conditions is to avoid the complications associated with intubation.

Some clinicians initially resisted using NIPPV, concerned that it demanded too much of the nurses’ time15 and was costly.16 However, in a 1997 study in patients with COPD and acute respiratory failure, Nava et al17 found that NIPPV was no more expensive and no more demanding of staff resources than invasive mechanical ventilation in the first 48 hours of ventilation. Further, after the first few days of ventilation, NIPPV put fewer time demands on physicians and nurses than did invasive mechanical ventilation.

THREE MODES: CPAP, PRESSURE-LIMITED, VOLUME-LIMITED

The term “noninvasive ventilation” generally encompasses various forms of positive pressure ventilation. However, negative pressure ventilation, in the form of diaphragm pacing, may regain a foothold in the devices used for respiratory support.18 We therefore favor the term “NIPPV” in this review.

The different modes of NIPPV—ie, CPAP, pressure-limited, and volume-limited—are compared in Table 1. Of these, the pressure-limited mode is most commonly used.2,19–21 Though there are several NIPPV-only devices, machines for invasive ventilation can also provide NIPPV.

NIPPV IN ACUTE RESPIRATORY FAILURE

The main reasons to use NIPPV instead of invasive ventilation in acute care are to avoid the complications of invasive ventilation, to improve outcomes (eg, reduce mortality rates, decrease hospital length of stay), and to decrease the cost of care.

The decision whether to initiate noninvasive support and where to provide it (ie, in a regular hospital ward, intensive care unit, or respiratory care unit) is best made by following the indications for and contraindications to NIPPV (Table 2), considering the specific disease, the strength of the recommendation (Table 3), and the expertise and skill of the staff.1,2,19 In general, NIPPV is more likely to fail in patients with more severe disease and lower arterial pH.3 It should not be applied indiscriminately, as it may simply delay a necessary intubation and raise the concomitant risks of such a delay, including death.22

NIPPV is the standard of care for acute exacerbations of COPD

NIPPV is currently considered the standard of care for patients who have acute exacerbations of COPD.23–26

In a meta-analysis of eight randomized controlled trials,24 the specific advantages of NIPPV compared with usual care in acute exacerbations of COPD included:

  • A lower risk of treatment failure, defined as death, need for intubation, or inability to tolerate the treatment (relative risk [RR] 0.51, number needed to treat [NNT] to prevent one treatment failure = 5)
  • A lower risk of intubation (RR 0.43, NNT = 5)
  • A lower mortality rate (RR 0.41, NNT = 8)
  • A lower risk of complications (RR 0.32, NNT = 3)
  • A shorter hospital length of stay (by about 3 days).

Mechanisms by which NIPPV may impart these benefits include reducing the work of breathing, unloading the respiratory muscles, lessening diaphragmatic pressure swings, reducing the respiratory rate, eliminating diaphragmatic work, and counteracting the threshold loading effects of auto-positive end-expiratory pressure (auto-PEEP).24–26

Also, if a patient with COPD is intubated, NIPPV seems to help after the tube is removed, preventing postextubation respiratory failure and facilitating weaning from invasive ventilation.27 These topics are discussed below.

A Cochrane systematic review24 concluded that NIPPV should be tried early in the course of respiratory failure, before severe acidosis develops. The patients in the studies in this review all had partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (Paco2) levels greater than 45 mm Hg.

In patients with severe respiratory acidosis (pH < 7.25), NIPPV failure rates are greater than 50%. However, trying NIPPV may still be justified, even in the presence of hypercapnic encephalopathy, as long as no other indications for invasive support and facilities for prompt endotracheal intubation are available. 1

However, in another systematic review,26 in patients with mild COPD exacerbations (pH > 7.35), NIPPV was no more effective than standard medical therapy in preventing acute respiratory failure, preventing death, or reducing length of hospitalization. Moreover, nearly 50% of the patients could not tolerate NIPPV.

 

 

Rapid improvement in cardiogenic pulmonary edema, but possibly no lower mortality rate

The Three Interventions in Cardiogenic Pulmonary Oedema (3CPO) trial,28 with 1,156 patients, was the largest randomized trial to compare NIPPV and standard oxygen therapy for acute pulmonary edema. It found that NIPPV (either CPAP or noninvasive intermittent positive pressure ventilation) was significantly better than standard oxygen therapy (through a variable-delivery oxygen mask with a reservoir) in the first hour of treatment in terms of the dyspnea score, heart rate, acidosis, and hypercapnia. However, there were no significant differences between groups in the 7- or 30-day mortality rates, the rates of intubation, rates of admission to the critical care unit, or in the mean length of hospital stay.

In contrast, several smaller randomized trials and meta-analyses showed lower intubation and mortality rates with NIPPV.29,30 Factors that may account for those differences include a much lower intubation rate in the 3CPO trial (2.9% overall, compared with 20% with conventional therapy in other trials), a higher mortality rate in the 3CPO trial, and methodologic differences (eg, patients for whom standard therapy failed in the 3CPO trial received rescue NIPPV).

If NIPPV is beneficial in cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the mechanisms are probably its favorable hemodynamic effects and its positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) effect on flooded alveoli. Specifically, positive intrathoracic pressure can be expected to reduce both preload and afterload, with improvement in the cardiac index and reduced work of breathing. 31,32

Notwithstanding the possible lack of impact of NIPPV on death or intubation rates in this setting, the intervention rapidly improves dyspnea and respiratory and metabolic abnormalities and should be considered for treatment of cardiogenic pulmonary edema associated with severe respiratory distress. A subgroup in which the NIPPV may reduce intubation rates is those with hypercapnia.33 A concern that NIPPV may increase the rate of myocardial infarction34 was not confirmed in the 3CPO trial.28 Interestingly, there were no differences in outcomes between CPAP and noninvasive intermittent positive pressure ventilation in this setting.28,34,35

Immunocompromised patients with acute respiratory failure

A particular challenge of NIPPV in immunocompromised patients, particularly compared with its use in COPD exacerbation or cardiogenic pulmonary edema, is that the underlying pathophysiology of respiratory dysfunction in immunocompromised patients may not be readily reversible. Therefore, its application in this group may need to follow clearly defined indications.

In one trial,20 inclusion criteria were:

  • Immune suppression (due to neutropenia after chemotherapy or bone marrow transplantation, immunosuppressive drugs for organ transplantation, corticosteroids, cytotoxic therapy for nonmalignant conditions, or the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)
  • Persistent pulmonary infiltrates
  • Fever (temperature > 38.3°C; 100.9°F)
  • A respiratory rate greater than 30 breaths per minute
  • Severe dyspnea at rest
  • Early hypoxemic acute respiratory failure, defined as a ratio of the partial pressure of arterial oxygen to the fraction of inspired oxygen (Pao2/Fio2 ratio) less than 200 while on oxygen.

Compared with patients who received conventional treatment, fewer of those randomized to additional intermittent noninvasive ventilation had to be intubated (46% vs 77%, P = .03), suffered serious complications (50% vs 81%, P = .02), or died in the intensive care unit (38% vs 69%, P = .03) or in the hospital (50% vs 81%, P = .02).

Similarly, in a randomized trial in 40 patients with acute respiratory failure after solid organ transplantation, more patients in the NIPPV group than in the control group had an improvement in the Pao2/Fio2 ratio within the first hour (70% vs 25%, P = .004) or a sustained improvement in the Pao2/Fio2 ratio (60% vs 25%, P = .03); fewer of them needed endotracheal intubation (20% vs 70%, P = .002); fewer of them died of complications (20% vs 50%, P = .05); they had a shorter length of stay in the intensive care unit (mean 5.5 vs 9 days, P = .03); and fewer of them died in the intensive care unit (20% vs 50%, P = .05). There was, however, no difference in the overall hospital mortality rate.36

MAY NOT HELP AFTER EXTUBATION, EXCEPT IN SPECIFIC CASES

NIPPV has been used to treat respiratory failure after extubation,22,37 to prevent acute respiratory failure after failure of weaning,38–41 and to support breathing in patients who failed a trial of spontaneous breathing.42–45

Unfortunately, the evidence for using NIPPV in respiratory failure after extubation, including unplanned extubation, appears to be unfavorable, except possibly in patients with chronic pulmonary disease (particularly COPD and possibly obesity) and hypercapnia. An international consensus report stated that NIPPV should be considered in patients with hypercapnic respiratory insufficiency, especially those with COPD, to shorten the duration of intubation, but that it should not be routinely used in extubation respiratory failure.46

Treatment of respiratory failure after extubation

Two recent randomized controlled trials compared NIPPV and standard care in patients who met the criteria for readiness for extubation but who developed respiratory failure after mechanical ventilation was discontinued. 22,37 Those two studies showed a longer time to reintubation for patients randomized to NIPPV but no differences in the rate of reintubation between the two groups and no difference in the lengths of stay in the intensive care unit.

Of greater concern, one study showed a higher rate of death in the intensive care unit in the NIPPV group than in the standard therapy group (25% vs 14%, respectively).22 This finding suggests that NIPPV delayed necessary reintubation in patients developing respiratory failure after extubation, with a consequent risk of fatal complications.

 

 

Prevention of respiratory failure after extubation

Other studies used NIPPV to prevent respiratory failure after extubation rather than wait to apply it after respiratory failure developed.38–41

Nava et al,40 in a trial in patients successfully weaned but considered to be at risk of reintubation, found that fewer of those randomized to NIPPV had to be reintubated than those who received standard care (8% vs 24%), and 10% fewer of them died in the intensive care unit. Risk factors for reintubation (and therefore eligibility criteria for this trial) included a Paco2 higher than 45 mm Hg, more than one consecutive failure of weaning, chronic heart failure, other comorbidity, weak cough, or stridor.

Extubated patients are a heterogeneous group, so if some subgroups benefit from a transition to NIPPV after extubation, it will be important to identify them. For instance, a subgroup analysis of a study by Ferrer et al38 indicated the survival benefit of NIPPV after extubation was limited to patients with chronic respiratory disorders and hypercapnia during a trial of spontaneous breathing.

In a subsequent successful test of this hypothesis, a randomized trial showed that the early use of noninvasive ventilation in patients with hypercapnia after a trial of spontaneous breathing and with chronic respiratory disorders (COPD, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis, obesity-hypoventilation, sequelae of tuberculosis, chest wall deformity, or chronic persistent asthma) reduced the risk of respiratory failure after extubation and the risk of death within the first 90 days.39

Others in which this approach may be helpful are obese patients who have high Paco2 levels. Compared with historical controls, 62 patients with a body mass index greater than 35 kg/m2 who received NIPPV in the 48 hours after extubation had a lower rate of respiratory failure, shorter lengths of stay in the intensive care unit and hospital, and, in the subgroup with hypercapnia, a lower hospital mortality rate.41

NIPPV to facilitate weaning

In several studies, mechanically ventilated patients who had failed a trial of spontaneous breathing were randomized to undergo either accelerated weaning, extubation, and NIPPV or conventional weaning with pressure support via mechanical ventilation.42–46 Most patients developed hypercapnia during the spontaneous breathing trials, and most of the patients had COPD.

A meta-analysis47 of the randomized trials of this approach concluded that, compared with continued invasive ventilation, NIPPV decreased the risk of death (relative risk 0.41) and of ventilator-associated pneumonia (relative risk 0.28) and reduced the total duration of mechanical ventilation by a weighted mean difference of 7.33 days. The benefits appeared to be most significant in patients with COPD.

NIPPV IN ASTHMA AND STATUS ASTHMATICUS

Noninvasive ventilation is an attractive alternative to intubation for patients with status asthmaticus, given the challenges and conflicting demands of maintaining ventilation despite severe airway obstruction.

In a 1996 prospective study of 17 episodes of asthma associated with acute respiratory failure, Meduri et al48 showed that NIPPV could progressively improve the pH and the Paco2 over 12 to 24 hours and reduce the respiratory rate.

In a subsequent controlled trial, Soroksky et al49 randomized 30 patients presenting to an emergency room with a severe asthma attack to NIPPV with conventional therapy vs conventional therapy only. The study group had a significantly greater increase in the forced expiratory volume in 1 second compared with the control group (54% vs 29%, respectively) and a lower hospitalization rate (18% vs 63%).

Another randomized trial of NIPPV, in patients with status asthmaticus presenting to an emergency room, was prematurely terminated due to a physician treatment bias that favored NIPPV.50 The preliminary results of that study showed a 7.3% higher intubation rate in the control group than in the NIPPV group, along with trends toward a lower intubation rate, a shorter length of hospital stay, and lower hospital charges in the NIPPV group.

Despite these initial favorable results, a Cochrane review concluded that the use of NIPPV in patients with status asthmaticus is controversial.51 NIPPV can be tried in selected patients such as those with mild to moderate respiratory distress (respiratory rate greater than 25 breaths per minute, use of accessory muscles to breathe, difficulty speaking), an arterial pH of 7.25 to 7.35, and a Paco2 of 45 to 55 mm Hg.52 Patients with impending respiratory failure or the inability to protect the airway should probably not be considered for NIPPV.52

IN ACUTE LUNG INJURY AND ACUTE RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME

The most challenging application of NIPPV may be in patients with acute lung injury and the acute respiratory distress syndrome.

Initial trials of NIPPV in this setting have been disappointing, and a meta-analysis of the topic concluded that NIPPV was unlikely to have any significant benefit.53 An earlier study that used CPAP in patients with acute respiratory failure predominantly due to acute lung injury showed early physiologic improvements but no reduction in the need for intubation, no improvement in outcomes, and a higher rate of adverse events, including cardiac arrest, in those randomized to CPAP.54

A subsequent observational cohort specifically identified shock, metabolic acidosis, and severe hypoxemia as predictors of NIPPV failure.55

A more recent prospective study demonstrated that NIPPV improved gas exchange and obviated intubation in 54% of patients, with a consequent reduction in ventilator-associated pneumonia and a lower rate of death in the intensive care unit.56 A Simplified Acute Physiology Score (SAPS) II greater than 34 and a Pao2/Fio2 ratio less than 175 after 1 hour of NIPPV were identified as predicting that NIPPV would fail.56

 

 

MISCELLANEOUS APPLICATIONS

The more widespread use of NIPPV has encouraged its use in other acute situations, including during procedures such as percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG)57,58 or bronchoscopy,59,60 for palliative use in patients listed as “do-not-intubate,”61–63 and for oxygenation before intubation.64

NIPPV during PEG tube insertion

NIPPV during PEG tube placement is particularly useful for patients with neuromuscular diseases who are at a combined risk of aspiration, poor oral intake, and respiratory failure during procedures. The experience with patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis58 and Duchenne muscular dystrophy57 indicates that even patients at high risk of respiratory failure during procedures can be successfully managed with NIPPV. The most recent practice parameters for patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis propose that patients with dysphagia may be exposed to less risk if the PEG procedure is performed when the forced vital capacity is greater than 50% of predicted.65

In randomized trials of CPAP59 or pressure-support NIPPV60 in high-risk hypoxemic patients who needed diagnostic bronchoscopy, patients in the intervention groups fared better than those who received oxygen alone, with better oxygenation during and after the procedure and a lower risk of postprocedure respiratory failure. Improved hemodynamics with a lower mean heart rate and a stable mean arterial pressure were also reported in one of those studies.60

Palliative use in ‘do-not-intubate’ patients

In patients who decline intubation, NIPPV appears to be most effective in reversing acute respiratory failure and improving mortality rates in those with COPD or with cardiogenic pulmonary edema.61,62 Controversy surrounding the use of NIPPV in “do-not-intubate” patients, particularly as a potentially uncomfortable life support technique, has been addressed by a task force of the Society of Critical Care Medicine, which recommends that it be applied only after careful discussion of goals of care and parameters of treatment with patients and their families.63

Oxygenation before intubation

In a prospective randomized study of oxygenation before rapid-sequence intubation via either a nonrebreather bag-valve mask or NIPPV, the NIPPV group had a higher oxygen saturation rate before, during, and after the intubation procedure.64
 


Acknowledgment: The authors wish to thank Jodith Janes of the Cleveland Clinic Alumni Library for her help with reference citations and with locating articles.

Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)—delivered via a tight-fitting mask rather than via an endotracheal tube or tracheostomy—is one of the most important advances in the management of acute respiratory failure to emerge in the past 2 decades. It is now recommended as the first choice for ventilatory support in selected patients, such as those with exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or with cardiogenic pulmonary edema.1–3 In fact, some authors suggest that using NIPPV in more than 20% of COPD patients is a characteristic of respiratory care departments that are “avid for change”4—change being a good thing.

However, NIPPV has not been universally accepted, with wide variations in its utilization. In a 2006 survey, it was being used in only 33% of patients with COPD or congestive heart failure, for which it might be indicated. 5 Some potential reasons for the low rate are that physicians do not know about it, respiratory therapists are not sufficiently trained in it, and hospitals lack the equipment to do it.5

Our goal in this review is to familiarize the reader with how NIPPV has evolved and with its indications and contraindications in specific acute care conditions.

FROM A VACUUM CLEANER TO THE INTENSIVE CARE UNIT

NIPPV appears to have been first tried in 1870 by Chaussier, who used a bag and face mask to resuscitate neonates.6

In 1936, Poulton and Oxon7 described their “pulmonary plus pressure machine,” which used a vacuum cleaner blower and a mask to increase the alveolar pressure and thus counteract the increased intrapulmonary pressure in patients with heart failure, pulmonary edema, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, and asthma.

In the 1940s, intermittent positive pressure breathing devices were developed for use in high-altitude aviation. Motley, Werko, and Cournand8,9 subsequently used these devices to treat acute respiratory failure in pneumonia, pulmonary edema, near-drowning, Guillain-Barré syndrome, and acute severe asthma.

Although NIPPV was shown to be effective for acute conditions, invasive ventilation became preferred, particularly as blood gas analysis and ventilator technologies simultaneously matured, spurred at least in part by the polio epidemics of the 1950s.10

NIPPV reemerged in the 1980s for use in chronic conditions. First, continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) came into use for obstructive sleep apnea,11 followed by noninvasive positive-pressure volume ventilation in neuromuscular diseases.12 Bilevel positive pressure devices (ie, with separate inspiratory and expiratory pressures) soon followed, again initially for obstructive sleep apnea13 and then for diverse neuromuscular diseases.14

NIPPV is now a mainstream therapy for diverse conditions in acute and chronic care.3 One reason we now use it in acute conditions is to avoid the complications associated with intubation.

Some clinicians initially resisted using NIPPV, concerned that it demanded too much of the nurses’ time15 and was costly.16 However, in a 1997 study in patients with COPD and acute respiratory failure, Nava et al17 found that NIPPV was no more expensive and no more demanding of staff resources than invasive mechanical ventilation in the first 48 hours of ventilation. Further, after the first few days of ventilation, NIPPV put fewer time demands on physicians and nurses than did invasive mechanical ventilation.

THREE MODES: CPAP, PRESSURE-LIMITED, VOLUME-LIMITED

The term “noninvasive ventilation” generally encompasses various forms of positive pressure ventilation. However, negative pressure ventilation, in the form of diaphragm pacing, may regain a foothold in the devices used for respiratory support.18 We therefore favor the term “NIPPV” in this review.

The different modes of NIPPV—ie, CPAP, pressure-limited, and volume-limited—are compared in Table 1. Of these, the pressure-limited mode is most commonly used.2,19–21 Though there are several NIPPV-only devices, machines for invasive ventilation can also provide NIPPV.

NIPPV IN ACUTE RESPIRATORY FAILURE

The main reasons to use NIPPV instead of invasive ventilation in acute care are to avoid the complications of invasive ventilation, to improve outcomes (eg, reduce mortality rates, decrease hospital length of stay), and to decrease the cost of care.

The decision whether to initiate noninvasive support and where to provide it (ie, in a regular hospital ward, intensive care unit, or respiratory care unit) is best made by following the indications for and contraindications to NIPPV (Table 2), considering the specific disease, the strength of the recommendation (Table 3), and the expertise and skill of the staff.1,2,19 In general, NIPPV is more likely to fail in patients with more severe disease and lower arterial pH.3 It should not be applied indiscriminately, as it may simply delay a necessary intubation and raise the concomitant risks of such a delay, including death.22

NIPPV is the standard of care for acute exacerbations of COPD

NIPPV is currently considered the standard of care for patients who have acute exacerbations of COPD.23–26

In a meta-analysis of eight randomized controlled trials,24 the specific advantages of NIPPV compared with usual care in acute exacerbations of COPD included:

  • A lower risk of treatment failure, defined as death, need for intubation, or inability to tolerate the treatment (relative risk [RR] 0.51, number needed to treat [NNT] to prevent one treatment failure = 5)
  • A lower risk of intubation (RR 0.43, NNT = 5)
  • A lower mortality rate (RR 0.41, NNT = 8)
  • A lower risk of complications (RR 0.32, NNT = 3)
  • A shorter hospital length of stay (by about 3 days).

Mechanisms by which NIPPV may impart these benefits include reducing the work of breathing, unloading the respiratory muscles, lessening diaphragmatic pressure swings, reducing the respiratory rate, eliminating diaphragmatic work, and counteracting the threshold loading effects of auto-positive end-expiratory pressure (auto-PEEP).24–26

Also, if a patient with COPD is intubated, NIPPV seems to help after the tube is removed, preventing postextubation respiratory failure and facilitating weaning from invasive ventilation.27 These topics are discussed below.

A Cochrane systematic review24 concluded that NIPPV should be tried early in the course of respiratory failure, before severe acidosis develops. The patients in the studies in this review all had partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (Paco2) levels greater than 45 mm Hg.

In patients with severe respiratory acidosis (pH < 7.25), NIPPV failure rates are greater than 50%. However, trying NIPPV may still be justified, even in the presence of hypercapnic encephalopathy, as long as no other indications for invasive support and facilities for prompt endotracheal intubation are available. 1

However, in another systematic review,26 in patients with mild COPD exacerbations (pH > 7.35), NIPPV was no more effective than standard medical therapy in preventing acute respiratory failure, preventing death, or reducing length of hospitalization. Moreover, nearly 50% of the patients could not tolerate NIPPV.

 

 

Rapid improvement in cardiogenic pulmonary edema, but possibly no lower mortality rate

The Three Interventions in Cardiogenic Pulmonary Oedema (3CPO) trial,28 with 1,156 patients, was the largest randomized trial to compare NIPPV and standard oxygen therapy for acute pulmonary edema. It found that NIPPV (either CPAP or noninvasive intermittent positive pressure ventilation) was significantly better than standard oxygen therapy (through a variable-delivery oxygen mask with a reservoir) in the first hour of treatment in terms of the dyspnea score, heart rate, acidosis, and hypercapnia. However, there were no significant differences between groups in the 7- or 30-day mortality rates, the rates of intubation, rates of admission to the critical care unit, or in the mean length of hospital stay.

In contrast, several smaller randomized trials and meta-analyses showed lower intubation and mortality rates with NIPPV.29,30 Factors that may account for those differences include a much lower intubation rate in the 3CPO trial (2.9% overall, compared with 20% with conventional therapy in other trials), a higher mortality rate in the 3CPO trial, and methodologic differences (eg, patients for whom standard therapy failed in the 3CPO trial received rescue NIPPV).

If NIPPV is beneficial in cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the mechanisms are probably its favorable hemodynamic effects and its positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) effect on flooded alveoli. Specifically, positive intrathoracic pressure can be expected to reduce both preload and afterload, with improvement in the cardiac index and reduced work of breathing. 31,32

Notwithstanding the possible lack of impact of NIPPV on death or intubation rates in this setting, the intervention rapidly improves dyspnea and respiratory and metabolic abnormalities and should be considered for treatment of cardiogenic pulmonary edema associated with severe respiratory distress. A subgroup in which the NIPPV may reduce intubation rates is those with hypercapnia.33 A concern that NIPPV may increase the rate of myocardial infarction34 was not confirmed in the 3CPO trial.28 Interestingly, there were no differences in outcomes between CPAP and noninvasive intermittent positive pressure ventilation in this setting.28,34,35

Immunocompromised patients with acute respiratory failure

A particular challenge of NIPPV in immunocompromised patients, particularly compared with its use in COPD exacerbation or cardiogenic pulmonary edema, is that the underlying pathophysiology of respiratory dysfunction in immunocompromised patients may not be readily reversible. Therefore, its application in this group may need to follow clearly defined indications.

In one trial,20 inclusion criteria were:

  • Immune suppression (due to neutropenia after chemotherapy or bone marrow transplantation, immunosuppressive drugs for organ transplantation, corticosteroids, cytotoxic therapy for nonmalignant conditions, or the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)
  • Persistent pulmonary infiltrates
  • Fever (temperature > 38.3°C; 100.9°F)
  • A respiratory rate greater than 30 breaths per minute
  • Severe dyspnea at rest
  • Early hypoxemic acute respiratory failure, defined as a ratio of the partial pressure of arterial oxygen to the fraction of inspired oxygen (Pao2/Fio2 ratio) less than 200 while on oxygen.

Compared with patients who received conventional treatment, fewer of those randomized to additional intermittent noninvasive ventilation had to be intubated (46% vs 77%, P = .03), suffered serious complications (50% vs 81%, P = .02), or died in the intensive care unit (38% vs 69%, P = .03) or in the hospital (50% vs 81%, P = .02).

Similarly, in a randomized trial in 40 patients with acute respiratory failure after solid organ transplantation, more patients in the NIPPV group than in the control group had an improvement in the Pao2/Fio2 ratio within the first hour (70% vs 25%, P = .004) or a sustained improvement in the Pao2/Fio2 ratio (60% vs 25%, P = .03); fewer of them needed endotracheal intubation (20% vs 70%, P = .002); fewer of them died of complications (20% vs 50%, P = .05); they had a shorter length of stay in the intensive care unit (mean 5.5 vs 9 days, P = .03); and fewer of them died in the intensive care unit (20% vs 50%, P = .05). There was, however, no difference in the overall hospital mortality rate.36

MAY NOT HELP AFTER EXTUBATION, EXCEPT IN SPECIFIC CASES

NIPPV has been used to treat respiratory failure after extubation,22,37 to prevent acute respiratory failure after failure of weaning,38–41 and to support breathing in patients who failed a trial of spontaneous breathing.42–45

Unfortunately, the evidence for using NIPPV in respiratory failure after extubation, including unplanned extubation, appears to be unfavorable, except possibly in patients with chronic pulmonary disease (particularly COPD and possibly obesity) and hypercapnia. An international consensus report stated that NIPPV should be considered in patients with hypercapnic respiratory insufficiency, especially those with COPD, to shorten the duration of intubation, but that it should not be routinely used in extubation respiratory failure.46

Treatment of respiratory failure after extubation

Two recent randomized controlled trials compared NIPPV and standard care in patients who met the criteria for readiness for extubation but who developed respiratory failure after mechanical ventilation was discontinued. 22,37 Those two studies showed a longer time to reintubation for patients randomized to NIPPV but no differences in the rate of reintubation between the two groups and no difference in the lengths of stay in the intensive care unit.

Of greater concern, one study showed a higher rate of death in the intensive care unit in the NIPPV group than in the standard therapy group (25% vs 14%, respectively).22 This finding suggests that NIPPV delayed necessary reintubation in patients developing respiratory failure after extubation, with a consequent risk of fatal complications.

 

 

Prevention of respiratory failure after extubation

Other studies used NIPPV to prevent respiratory failure after extubation rather than wait to apply it after respiratory failure developed.38–41

Nava et al,40 in a trial in patients successfully weaned but considered to be at risk of reintubation, found that fewer of those randomized to NIPPV had to be reintubated than those who received standard care (8% vs 24%), and 10% fewer of them died in the intensive care unit. Risk factors for reintubation (and therefore eligibility criteria for this trial) included a Paco2 higher than 45 mm Hg, more than one consecutive failure of weaning, chronic heart failure, other comorbidity, weak cough, or stridor.

Extubated patients are a heterogeneous group, so if some subgroups benefit from a transition to NIPPV after extubation, it will be important to identify them. For instance, a subgroup analysis of a study by Ferrer et al38 indicated the survival benefit of NIPPV after extubation was limited to patients with chronic respiratory disorders and hypercapnia during a trial of spontaneous breathing.

In a subsequent successful test of this hypothesis, a randomized trial showed that the early use of noninvasive ventilation in patients with hypercapnia after a trial of spontaneous breathing and with chronic respiratory disorders (COPD, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis, obesity-hypoventilation, sequelae of tuberculosis, chest wall deformity, or chronic persistent asthma) reduced the risk of respiratory failure after extubation and the risk of death within the first 90 days.39

Others in which this approach may be helpful are obese patients who have high Paco2 levels. Compared with historical controls, 62 patients with a body mass index greater than 35 kg/m2 who received NIPPV in the 48 hours after extubation had a lower rate of respiratory failure, shorter lengths of stay in the intensive care unit and hospital, and, in the subgroup with hypercapnia, a lower hospital mortality rate.41

NIPPV to facilitate weaning

In several studies, mechanically ventilated patients who had failed a trial of spontaneous breathing were randomized to undergo either accelerated weaning, extubation, and NIPPV or conventional weaning with pressure support via mechanical ventilation.42–46 Most patients developed hypercapnia during the spontaneous breathing trials, and most of the patients had COPD.

A meta-analysis47 of the randomized trials of this approach concluded that, compared with continued invasive ventilation, NIPPV decreased the risk of death (relative risk 0.41) and of ventilator-associated pneumonia (relative risk 0.28) and reduced the total duration of mechanical ventilation by a weighted mean difference of 7.33 days. The benefits appeared to be most significant in patients with COPD.

NIPPV IN ASTHMA AND STATUS ASTHMATICUS

Noninvasive ventilation is an attractive alternative to intubation for patients with status asthmaticus, given the challenges and conflicting demands of maintaining ventilation despite severe airway obstruction.

In a 1996 prospective study of 17 episodes of asthma associated with acute respiratory failure, Meduri et al48 showed that NIPPV could progressively improve the pH and the Paco2 over 12 to 24 hours and reduce the respiratory rate.

In a subsequent controlled trial, Soroksky et al49 randomized 30 patients presenting to an emergency room with a severe asthma attack to NIPPV with conventional therapy vs conventional therapy only. The study group had a significantly greater increase in the forced expiratory volume in 1 second compared with the control group (54% vs 29%, respectively) and a lower hospitalization rate (18% vs 63%).

Another randomized trial of NIPPV, in patients with status asthmaticus presenting to an emergency room, was prematurely terminated due to a physician treatment bias that favored NIPPV.50 The preliminary results of that study showed a 7.3% higher intubation rate in the control group than in the NIPPV group, along with trends toward a lower intubation rate, a shorter length of hospital stay, and lower hospital charges in the NIPPV group.

Despite these initial favorable results, a Cochrane review concluded that the use of NIPPV in patients with status asthmaticus is controversial.51 NIPPV can be tried in selected patients such as those with mild to moderate respiratory distress (respiratory rate greater than 25 breaths per minute, use of accessory muscles to breathe, difficulty speaking), an arterial pH of 7.25 to 7.35, and a Paco2 of 45 to 55 mm Hg.52 Patients with impending respiratory failure or the inability to protect the airway should probably not be considered for NIPPV.52

IN ACUTE LUNG INJURY AND ACUTE RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME

The most challenging application of NIPPV may be in patients with acute lung injury and the acute respiratory distress syndrome.

Initial trials of NIPPV in this setting have been disappointing, and a meta-analysis of the topic concluded that NIPPV was unlikely to have any significant benefit.53 An earlier study that used CPAP in patients with acute respiratory failure predominantly due to acute lung injury showed early physiologic improvements but no reduction in the need for intubation, no improvement in outcomes, and a higher rate of adverse events, including cardiac arrest, in those randomized to CPAP.54

A subsequent observational cohort specifically identified shock, metabolic acidosis, and severe hypoxemia as predictors of NIPPV failure.55

A more recent prospective study demonstrated that NIPPV improved gas exchange and obviated intubation in 54% of patients, with a consequent reduction in ventilator-associated pneumonia and a lower rate of death in the intensive care unit.56 A Simplified Acute Physiology Score (SAPS) II greater than 34 and a Pao2/Fio2 ratio less than 175 after 1 hour of NIPPV were identified as predicting that NIPPV would fail.56

 

 

MISCELLANEOUS APPLICATIONS

The more widespread use of NIPPV has encouraged its use in other acute situations, including during procedures such as percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG)57,58 or bronchoscopy,59,60 for palliative use in patients listed as “do-not-intubate,”61–63 and for oxygenation before intubation.64

NIPPV during PEG tube insertion

NIPPV during PEG tube placement is particularly useful for patients with neuromuscular diseases who are at a combined risk of aspiration, poor oral intake, and respiratory failure during procedures. The experience with patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis58 and Duchenne muscular dystrophy57 indicates that even patients at high risk of respiratory failure during procedures can be successfully managed with NIPPV. The most recent practice parameters for patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis propose that patients with dysphagia may be exposed to less risk if the PEG procedure is performed when the forced vital capacity is greater than 50% of predicted.65

In randomized trials of CPAP59 or pressure-support NIPPV60 in high-risk hypoxemic patients who needed diagnostic bronchoscopy, patients in the intervention groups fared better than those who received oxygen alone, with better oxygenation during and after the procedure and a lower risk of postprocedure respiratory failure. Improved hemodynamics with a lower mean heart rate and a stable mean arterial pressure were also reported in one of those studies.60

Palliative use in ‘do-not-intubate’ patients

In patients who decline intubation, NIPPV appears to be most effective in reversing acute respiratory failure and improving mortality rates in those with COPD or with cardiogenic pulmonary edema.61,62 Controversy surrounding the use of NIPPV in “do-not-intubate” patients, particularly as a potentially uncomfortable life support technique, has been addressed by a task force of the Society of Critical Care Medicine, which recommends that it be applied only after careful discussion of goals of care and parameters of treatment with patients and their families.63

Oxygenation before intubation

In a prospective randomized study of oxygenation before rapid-sequence intubation via either a nonrebreather bag-valve mask or NIPPV, the NIPPV group had a higher oxygen saturation rate before, during, and after the intubation procedure.64
 


Acknowledgment: The authors wish to thank Jodith Janes of the Cleveland Clinic Alumni Library for her help with reference citations and with locating articles.

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References
  1. Ambrosino N, Vagheggini G. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation in the acute care setting: where are we? Eur Respir J 2008; 31:874886.
  2. Hill NS, Brennan J, Garpestad E, Nava S. Noninvasive ventilation in acute respiratory failure. Crit Care Med 2007; 35:24022407.
  3. Nava S, Navalesi P, Conti G. Time of non-invasive ventilation. Intensive Care Med 2006; 32:361370.
  4. Stoller JK, Kester L, Roberts VT, et al; An analysis of features of respiratory therapy departments that are avid for change. Respir Care 2008; 53:871884.
  5. Maheshwari V, Paioli D, Rothaar R, Hill NS. Utilization of noninvasive ventilation in acute care hospitals: a regional survey. Chest 2006; 129:12261233.
  6. Obladen M. History of neonatal resuscitation. Part 1: Artificial ventilation. Neonatology 2008; 94:144149.
  7. Poulton EP, Oxon DM. Left-sided heart failure with pulmonary oedema: its treatment with the “pulmonary plus” pressure machine. Lancet 1936; 228:981983.
  8. Motley HL, Werko L. Observations on the clinical use of intermittent positive pressure. J Aviat Med 1947; 18:417435.
  9. Cournand A, Motley HL. Physiological studies of the effects of intermittent positive pressure breathing on cardiac output in man. Am J Physiol 1948; 152:162174.
  10. Severinghaus JW, Astrup P, Murray JF. Blood gas analysis and critical care medicine. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 1998; 157:S114S122.
  11. Sullivan CE, Berthon-Jones M, Issa FG. Remission of severe obesity-hypoventilation syndrome after short-term treatment during sleep with nasal continuous positive airway pressure. Am Rev Respir Dis 1983; 128:177181.
  12. Ellis ER, Bye PT, Bruderer JW, Sullivan CE. Treatment of respiratory failure during sleep in patients with neuromuscular disease. Positive-pressure ventilation through a nose mask. Am Rev Respir Dis 1987; 135:148152.
  13. Sanders MH, Kern N. Obstructive sleep apnea treated by independently adjusted inspiratory and expiratory positive airway pressures via nasal mask. Physiologic and clinical implications. Chest 1990; 98:317324.
  14. Bach JR. Mechanical exsufflation, noninvasive ventilation, and new strategies for pulmonary rehabilitation and sleep disordered breathing. Bull N Y Acad Med 1992; 68:321340.
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  22. Esteban A, Frutos-Vivar F, Ferguson ND, et al. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation for respiratory failure after extubation. N Engl J Med 2004; 350:24522460.
  23. Hill NS. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation for respiratory failure caused by exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: a standard of care? Crit Care 2003; 7:400401.
  24. Lightowler JV, Wedzicha JA, Elliott MW, Ram FS. Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation to treat respiratory failure resulting from exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: Cochrane systematic review and meta-analysis. BMJ 2003; 326:185187.
  25. Brochard L, Mancebo J, Wysocki M, et al. Noninvasive ventilation for acute exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. N Engl J Med 1995; 333:817822.
  26. Keenan SP, Sinuff T, Cook DJ, Hill NS. Which patients with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease benefit from noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation? A systematic review of the literature. Ann Intern Med 2003; 138:861870.
  27. Epstein SK. Noninvasive ventilation to shorten the duration of mechanical ventilation. Respir Care 2009; 54:198208.
  28. Gray A, Goodacre S, Newby DE, Masson M, Sampson F, Nicholl J; 3CPO Trialists. Noninvasive ventilation in acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema. N Engl J Med 2008; 359:142151.
  29. Collins SP, Mielniczuk LM, Whittingham HA, Boseley ME, Schramm DR, Storrow AB. The use of noninvasive ventilation in emergency department patients with acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema: a systematic review. Ann Emerg Med 2006; 48:260269.
  30. Masip J, Roque M, Sánchez B, Fernández R, Subirana M, Expósito JA. Noninvasive ventilation in acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema: systematic review and meta-analysis. JAMA 2005; 294:31243130.
  31. Baratz DM, Westbrook PR, Shah PK, Mohsenifar Z. Effect of nasal continuous positive airway pressure on cardiac output and oxygen delivery in patients with congestive heart failure. Chest 1992; 102:13971401.
  32. Naughton MT, Rahman MA, Hara K, Floras JS, Bradley TD. Effect of continuous positive airway pressure on intrathoracic and left ventricular transmural pressures in patients with congestive heart failure. Circulation 1995; 91:17251731.
  33. Nava S, Carbone G, DiBattista N, et al. Noninvasive ventilation in cardiogenic pulmonary edema: a multicenter randomized trial. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 2003; 168:14321437.
  34. Mehta S, Jay GD, Woolard RH, et al. Randomized, prospective trial of bilevel versus continuous positive airway pressure in acute pulmonary edema. Crit Care Med 1997; 25:620628.
  35. Ho KM, Wong K. A comparison of continuous and bi-level positive airway pressure non-invasive ventilation in patients with acute cardiogenic pulmonary oedema: a meta-analysis. Crit Care 2006; 10:R49.
  36. Antonelli M, Conti G, Bufi M, et al. Noninvasive ventilation for treatment of acute respiratory failure in patients undergoing solid organ transplantation: a randomized trial. JAMA 2000; 283:235241.
  37. Keenan SP, Powers C, McCormack DG, Block G. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation for postextubation respiratory distress: a randomized controlled trial. JAMA 2002; 287:32383244.
  38. Ferrer M, Valencia M, Nicolas JM, Bernadich O, Badia JR, Torres A. Early noninvasive ventilation averts extubation failure in patients at risk: a randomized trial. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 2006; 173:164170.
  39. Ferrer M, Sellarés J, Valencia M, et al. Non-invasive ventilation after extubation in hypercapnic patients with chronic respiratory disorders: randomised controlled trial. Lancet 2009; 374:10821088.
  40. Nava S, Gregoretti C, Fanfulla F, et al. Noninvasive ventilation to prevent respiratory failure after extubation in high-risk patients. Crit Care Med 2005; 33:24652470.
  41. El-Solh AA, Aquilina A, Pineda L, Dhanvantri V, Grant B, Bouquin P. Noninvasive ventilation for prevention of post-extubation respiratory failure in obese patients. Eur Respir J 2006; 28:588595.
  42. Ferrer M, Esquinas A, Arancibia F, et al. Noninvasive ventilation during persistent weaning failure: a randomized controlled trial. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 2003; 168:7076.
  43. Girault C, Daudenthun I, Chevron V, Tamion F, Leroy J, Bonmarchand G. Noninvasive ventilation as a systematic extubation and weaning technique in acute-on-chronic respiratory failure: a prospective, randomized controlled study. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 1999; 160:8692.
  44. Nava S, Ambrosino N, Clini E, et al. Noninvasive mechanical ventilation in the weaning of patients with respiratory failure due to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A randomized, controlled trial. Ann Intern Med 1998; 128:721728.
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  65. Miller RG, Jackson CE, Kasarskis EJ, et al; Quality Standards Subcommittee of the American Academy of Neurology. Practice parameter update: the care of the patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis: drug, nutritional, and respiratory therapies (an evidence-based review): report of the Quality Standards Subcommittee of the American Academy of Neurology. Neurology 2009; 73:12181226.
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KEY POINTS

  • The advantages of NIPPV over invasive ventilation are that it preserves normal physiologic functions such as coughing, swallowing, feeding, and speech and avoids the risks of tracheal and laryngeal injury and respiratory tract infections.
  • The best level of evidence for the efficacy of NIPPV is in acute hypercarbic or hypoxemic respiratory failure during exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, in cardiogenic pulmonary edema, and in immunocompromised patients.
  • NIPPV should not be applied indiscriminately for lessestablished indications (such as in unconscious patients, respiratory failure after extubation, acute lung injury, or acute respiratory distress syndrome), in severe hypoxemia or acidemia, or after failure to improve dyspnea or gas exchange. The use of NIPPV in these situations may delay a necessary intubation and increase the risks of such a delay, including death.
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Preventing and treating orthostatic hypotension: As easy as A, B, C

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Preventing and treating orthostatic hypotension: As easy as A, B, C

Orthostatic hypotension is a chronic, debilitating illness associated with common neurologic conditions (eg, diabetic neuropathy, Parkinson disease). It is common in the elderly, especially in those who are institutionalized and are using multiple medications.

Treatment can be challenging, especially if the problem is neurogenic. This condition has no cure, symptoms vary in different circumstances, treatment is nonspecific, and aggressive treatment can lead to marked supine hypertension.

This review focuses on the prevention and treatment of neurogenic causes of orthostatic hypotension. We emphasize a simple but effective patient-oriented approach to management, using a combination of nonpharmacologic strategies and drugs clinically proven to be efficacious. The recommendations and their rationale are organized in a practical and easy-to-remember format for both physicians and patients.

WHAT HAPPENS WHEN WE STAND UP?

When we stand up, the blood goes down from the chest to the distensible venous capacitance system below the diaphragm. This fluid shift produces a decrease in venous return, ventricular filling, cardiac output, and blood pressure.1

This gravity-induced drop in blood pressure, detected by arterial baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus, triggers a compensatory reflex tachycardia and vasoconstriction that restores normotension in the upright position. This compensatory mechanism is termed a baroreflex; it is mediated by afferent and efferent autonomic peripheral nerves and is integrated in autonomic centers in the brainstem.2

Orthostatic hypotension is the result of baroreflex failure (autonomic failure), end-organ dysfunction, or volume depletion. Injury to any limb of the baroreflex causes neurogenic orthostatic hypotension, although with afferent lesions alone, the hypotension tends to be modest and accompanied by wide fluctuations in blood pressure, including severe hypertension. Drugs can produce orthostatic hypotension by interfering with the autonomic pathways or their target end-organs or by affecting intravascular volume. Brain hypoperfusion, resulting from orthostatic hypotension from any cause, can lead to symptoms of orthostatic intolerance (eg, lightheadedness) and falls, and if the hypotension is severe, to syncope.

A DECREASE OF 20 MM HG SYSTOLIC OR 10 MM HG DIASTOLIC

The consensus definition of orthostatic hypotension is a reduction of systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mm Hg or a reduction of diastolic blood pressure of at least 10 mm Hg within 3 minutes of erect standing.3 A transient drop that occurs with abrupt standing and resolves rapidly suggests a benign condition, such as dehydration, rather than autonomic failure.

In the laboratory, patients are placed on a tilt table in the head-up position at an angle of at least 60 degrees to detect orthostatic changes in blood pressure. In the office, 1 minute of standing probably detects nearly all cases of orthostatic hypotension; however, standing beyond 2 minutes helps establish the severity (a further drop in blood pressure).4 Orthostatic hypotension developing after 3 minutes of standing is uncommon and may represent a reflex presyncope (eg, vasovagal) or a mild or early form of sympathetic adrenergic dysfunction.4, 5

NEUROGENIC AND NONNEUROGENIC CAUSES

Orthostatic hypotension may result from neurogenic and nonneurogenic causes.

Neurogenic orthostatic hypotension can be due to neuropathy (eg, diabetic or autoimmune neuropathies) or to central lesions (eg, Parkinson disease or multiple system atrophy). Its presence, severity, and temporal course can be important clues in diagnosing Parkinson disease and differentiating it from other parkinsonian syndromes with a more ominous prognosis, such as multiple system atrophy and Lewy body dementia.

Nonneurogenic causes include cardiac impairment (eg, from myocardial infarction or aortic stenosis), reduced intravascular volume (eg, from dehydration, adrenal insufficiency), and vasodilation (eg, from fever, systemic mastocytosis).

Common drugs that cause orthostatic hypotension are diuretics, alpha-adrenoceptor blockers for prostatic hypertrophy, antihypertensive drugs, and calcium channel blockers. Insulin, levodopa, and tricyclic antidepressants can also cause vasodilation and orthostatic hypotension in predisposed patients. Poon and Braun,6 in a retrospective study in elderly veterans, identified hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), trazodone (Desyrel), furosemide (Lasix), and terazosin (Hytrin) as the most common culprits.

ORTHOSTATIC HYPOTENSION IS COMMON IN THE ELDERLY

The prevalence of orthostatic hypotension is high in the elderly and depends on the characteristics of the population studied, such as age, use of medications, and comorbidities known to be associated with this problem. Orthostatic hypotension is more common in institutionalized elderly people (up to 68%)7 than in those living in the community (6%).8 The high prevalence among institutionalized patients likely reflects multiple disease processes, including neurologic and cardiac conditions, as well as medications associated with orthostatic hypotension.

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS ARE DUE TO HYPOPERFUSION, OVERCOMPENSATION

Symptoms are related to cerebral hypoperfusion, with resulting lack of cerebral oxygenation (causing lightheadedness, dizziness, weakness, difficulty thinking, headache, syncope, or feeling faint) and a compensatory autonomic overreaction (causing palpitations, tremulousness, nausea, coldness of extremities, chest pain, and syncope).

Lightheadedness is a common symptom, but subtler issues such as difficulty thinking, weakness, and neck discomfort are also common in the elderly. Recurrent or unexplained falls in older adults may be a manifestation of syncope due to orthostatic hypotension.

 

 

PROGNOSIS DEPENDS ON CAUSE

Orthostatic hypotension is a syndrome, and its prognosis depends on its specific cause, its severity, and the distribution of its autonomic and nonautonomic involvement. In patients who have extrapyramidal and cerebellar disorders (eg, Parkinson disease, multiple system atrophy), the earlier and the more severe the involvement of the autonomic nervous system, the poorer the prognosis.9,10

In hypertensive patients with diabetes mellitus, the risk of death is higher if they have orthostatic hypotension.11 Diastolic orthostatic hypotension is associated with a higher risk of vascular death in older persons.12

MANAGEMENT: FROM A TO F

The goal of management of orthostatic hypotension is to raise the patient’s standing blood pressure without also raising his or her supine blood pressure, and specifically to reduce orthostatic symptoms, increase the time the patient can stand, and improve his or her ability to perform daily activities. No specific treatment is currently available that achieves all these goals, and drugs alone are never completely adequate.

Therapies primarily consist of a combination of vasoconstrictor drugs, volume expansion, compression garments, and postural adjustment. Education about orthostatic stressors and warning symptoms empowers the patient to adopt easy lifestyle changes to minimize and handle orthostatic stress.

Because the mainstays of treatment are volume expansion and vasoconstriction, it is difficult to improve the symptoms of orthostatic hypotension without inducing some degree of supine hypertension. Strategies to minimize nocturnal hypertension and to treat orthostatic hypotension in special circumstances are summarized in Table 1.

Treatment should always start with identifying and, if possible, reducing or discontinuing drugs that may be causing or exacerbating the problem (Table 2). Similarly, conditions that may exacerbate it (eg, anemia13) should be identified and minimized (Table 3).

Nonpharmacologic interventions should then be considered. They can be tried in any order or combination based on the patient’s convenience or safety. They work by expanding blood volume (taking in extra fluid and salt), decreasing nocturia (raising the head of the bed), decreasing venous pooling (wearing an abdominal binder, performing countermaneuvers, engaging in physical activity), or inducing a pressor response (drinking a bolus of cold water).

If hypovolemia is playing a major role, and the patient cannot ingest enough salt or plasma volume fails to increase despite salt supplementation, fludrocortisone (Florinef) should be considered. Untreated hypovolemia will decrease the efficacy of vasoconstrictor drugs.

Pyridostigmine (Mestinon) has a putative vasoconstrictor effect only during standing, but because its effect is modest it should be used in mild orthostatic hypotension that does not improve with nonpharmacologic measures and in moderate cases. Its effect can be enhanced with additional low doses of midodrine (ProAmatine). Midodrine with or without fludrocortisone should be used in severe orthostatic hypotension.

We use an A-to-F mnemonic to highlight management strategies (see below and Table 4). The alphabetic order is not meant to represent a sequential approach to management, but rather to facilitate consideration of all the available treatments.

A: Abdominal compression

In conditions in which there is adrenergic denervation of vascular beds, there is an increase in vascular capacitance and peripheral venous pooling. Compression of capacitance beds (ie, the legs and abdomen) improves orthostatic symptoms.14 The improvement is due to a reduction of venous capacitance and an increase in total peripheral resistance.14

On standing, healthy adults experience an orthostatic shift of approximately 500 mL of blood to the lower extremities15 that, when added to an increased vascular capacitance in those with orthostatic hypotension, results in a relative state of hypovolemia.

Compression of the legs alone is not as beneficial as compression of the abdomen because the venous capacitance of the calves and thighs is relatively small compared with that of the splanchnic mesenteric bed, which accounts for 20% to 30% of total blood volume.16 Moreover, compression garments and stockings that are strong enough to produce a measurable effect on orthostatic hypotension are cumbersome to put on and uncomfortable to wear. Because some patients gain significant benefit from abdominal compression alone, this should be considered the first step in reducing venous capacitance.

In a laboratory experiment, Smit et al17 found that an elastic abdominal binder that exerted 15 to 20 mm Hg of pressure on the abdomen raised the standing blood pressure by about 11/6 mmHg, which was comparable to the effect of a gravity suit (such as those worn by fighter pilots to prevent syncope during violent aircraft maneuvers) inflated to 20 mm Hg—an increase of about 17/8 mm Hg. Higher gravity-suit pressures had a greater effect.

In practical terms, the binder should be tight enough to exert gentle pressure. It should be put on before rising from bed in the morning and taken off when lying supine, to avoid supine hypertension. Advantages are that a binder’s effects are immediate, its benefits can be easily assessed, and it can be used on an as-needed basis by patients who need it only during periods of prolonged orthostatic stress. Binders are also easy to fit and are available in most sporting good stores and on the Web (try searching for “abdominal binder”).

When abdominal compression alone is not enough, the addition of compression of the lower extremities can result in further benefits. This can be achieved by using compression garments that ideally extend to the waist or, at the least, to the proximal thigh.

 

 

B: Boluses of water

Rapidly drinking two 8-oz (500-mL) glasses of cold water helps expand plasma volume. It also, within a few minutes, elicits a significant pressor effect that is in part norepinephrine-mediated,18,19 increasing the standing systolic blood pressure by more than 20 mm Hg for about 2 hours and improving symptoms and orthostatic endurance.18,20 This easy technique can be used when prolonged standing is expected (eg, shopping).

B (continued): Bed up

The head of the bed of a patient with orthostatic hypotension should be elevated by 10 to 20 degrees or 4 inches (10 cm) to decrease nocturnal hypertension and nocturnal diuresis.21 During the day, adequate orthostatic stress, ie, upright activity, should be maintained. If patients are repeatedly tilted up, their orthostatic hypotension is gradually attenuated, presumably by increasing venomotor tone.22

C: Countermaneuvers

Physical countermaneuvers involve isometrically contracting the muscles below the waist for about 30 seconds at a time, which reduces venous capacitance, increases total peripheral resistance, and augments venous return to the heart.23,24 These countermeasures can help maintain blood pressure during daily activities and should be considered at the first symptoms of orthostatic intolerance and in situations of orthostatic stress (eg, standing for prolonged periods).

Specific techniques include23:

  • Toe-raising
  • Leg-crossing and contraction
  • Thigh muscle co-contraction
  • Bending at the waist
  • Slow marching in place
  • Leg elevation.

D: Drugs

Midodrine, a vasopressor, is effective and safe when used for treating neurogenic orthostatic hypotension.25 It has been shown to increase standing systolic blood pressure, reduce orthostatic lightheadedness, and increase standing and walking time.

A common starting dose is 5 mg three times a day; most patients respond best to 10 mg three times a day. As its duration of action is short (2 to 4 hours),25–27 it should be taken before arising in the morning, before lunch, and in the midafternoon. To avoid nocturnal supine hypertension, doses should not be taken after the midafternoon, and a dose should be omitted if the supine or sitting blood pressure is greater than 180/100 mm Hg.

Midodrine’s main side effects are supine hypertension, scalp paresthesias, and pilomotor reactions (goosebumps). Vasoconstrictors such as midodrine are ineffective when plasma volume is reduced.

Fludrocortisone is a synthetic mineralocorticoid that has a pressor effect as a result of its ability to expand plasma volume and increase vascular alpha-adrenoceptor sensitivity.28–30 This medication is helpful when plasma volume fails to adequately increase with salt supplementation31 and for patients who cannot ingest enough salt or do not respond adequately to midodrine.

The usual dose is 0.1 to 0.2 mg/day, but it may be increased to 0.4 to 0.6 mg/day in patients with refractory orthostatic hypotension.

If the patient gains 3 to 5 pounds (1.2–2.3 kg) and develops mild dependent edema, you can infer that the plasma volume has expanded adequately. However, in view of these effects, fludrocortisone is contraindicated in congestive heart failure and chronic renal failure. The potential risks are severe hypokalemia and excessive supine hypertension. Frequent monitoring of serum potassium, a diet high in potassium, and regular checks of supine blood pressure are advised, especially at higher doses, when added to midodrine, or in elderly patients who tend to poorly tolerate the medication.28,29,32

Pyridostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that improves ganglionic neurotransmission in the sympathetic baroreflex pathway. Because this pathway is activated primarily during standing, this drug improves orthostatic hypotension and total peripheral resistance without aggravating supine hypertension. Because the pressor effect is modest, it is most adequate for patients with mild to moderate orthostatic hypotension.33,34

Dosing is started at 30 mg two to three times a day and is gradually increased to 60 mg three times a day. The drug’s effectiveness can be enhanced by combining each dose of pyridostigmine with 5 mg of midodrine without occurrence of supine hypertension.34 Mestinon Timespan, a 180-mg slow-release pyridostigmine tablet, can be taken once a day and may be a convenient alternative.

The main side effects are cholinergic (abdominal colic, diarrhea).

Review the patient’s medications. If he or she is taking any drug that may cause orthostatic hypotension, consider discontinuing it, substituting another drug, or changing the dosage (Table 2). In the elderly, antiparkinsonian, nitrate, antidepressant, diuretic, prostate, and antihypertensive medications35 may be particularly suspect.

E: Education

Education is probably the single most important factor in the proper control of orthostatic hypotension. A number of issues should be considered.

  • Patients should be taught, in simple terms, the mechanisms that maintain postural normotension and how to recognize the onset of orthostatic symptoms.
  • They must realize that there is no specific treatment of the underlying cause and that drug treatment alone is not adequate.
  • They should be taught nonpharmacologic approaches and be aware that other drugs they start may worsen symptoms.

It is also important that the patient learn the conditions (and their mechanisms) that can lower blood pressure (Table 3). Such conditions include prolonged or motionless standing, alcohol ingestion (causing vasodilation), carbohydrate-heavy meals (causing postprandial orthostatic hypotension related to an increase in the splanchnic-mesenteric venous capacitance), early morning orthostatic hypotension related to nocturnal diuresis and arising from bed, physical activity sufficient to cause muscle vasodilation, heat exposure (eg, hot weather or a hot bath or shower) producing skin vessel vasodilation, sudden postural changes, and prolonged recumbency. Once these stressors are explained, patients have no difficulty recognizing them.

The patient should also be instructed in how to manage situations of increased orthostatic stress and periods of orthostatic decompensation, to minimize nocturnal hypertension, and to modify their activities of daily living. Keeping a log of supine and upright blood pressures (taken with an automated sphygmomanometer) during situations of orthostatic stress can help establish whether worsening symptoms are related to orthostatic hypotension or to another mechanism. Once patients discover that they can actively deal with these situations, they develop a great sense of empowerment.

E (continued): Exercise

Mild physical exercise improves orthostatic tolerance by reducing venous pooling and increasing plasma volume.36 Deconditioning from lack of exercise exacerbates orthostatic hypotension.37 Because upright exercise may increase the orthostatic drop in blood pressure, training in a supine or sitting position (eg, swimming, recumbent biking) is advisable. Isotonic exercise (eg, light weight-lifting) is recommended because the incorrect straining and breath-holding during isometric exercise (eg, holding weights in the same position) may decrease venous return.

 

 

F: Fluid and salt (volume expansion)

Maintaining an adequate plasma volume is crucial. Patients should drink five to eight 8-ounce glasses (1.25 to 2.5 L) of water or other fluid per day. Many elderly people do not take in this much. The patient should have at least 1 glass or cup of fluid with meals and at least twice at other times of each day to obtain 1 L/day.

Salt intake should be between 150 and 250 mmol of sodium (10 to 20 g of salt) per day. Sodium helps with retention of ingested fluids and should be maximized if tolerated. However, caution should be exercised in patients who have severe refractory supine hypertension, uncontrolled hypertension, or comorbidities characterized by insterstitial edema (eg, heart failure, liver failure). Some patients are very sensitive to sodium supplementation and can fine-tune their orthostatic control with salt alone. If salting food is not desired, prepared soups, pretzels, potato chips, and 0.5- or 1.0-g salt tablets can be an option.

Patients need to maintain a high-potassium diet, as the high sodium intake combined with fludrocortisone promotes potassium loss. Fruits (especially bananas) and vegetables have high potassium content.

The combination of fludrocortisone and a high-salt diet can also cause sustained supine hypertension, which can be minimized by the interventions noted in Table 2.

Appropriate salt supplementation and fluid intake leading to an adequate volume expansion can be verified by checking the 24-hour urinary sodium content: patients who excrete less than 170 mmol can be treated with 1 to 2 g of supplemental sodium three times a day.38

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  11. Davis BR, Langford HG, Blaufox MD, Curb JD, Polk BF, Shulman NB. The association of postural changes in systolic blood pressure and mortality in persons with hypertension: the Hypertension Detection and Follow-up Program experience. Circulation 1987; 75:340346.
  12. Luukinen H, Koski K, Laippala P, Kivelä SL. Prognosis of diastolic and systolic orthostatic hypotension in older persons. Arch Intern Med 1999; 159:273280.
  13. Hoeldtke RD, Streeten DH. Treatment of orthostatic hypotension with erythropoietin. N Engl J Med 1993; 329:611615.
  14. Denq JC, Opfer-Gehrking TL, Giuliani M, Felten J, Convertino VA, Low PA. Efficacy of compression of different capacitance beds in the amelioration of orthostatic hypotension. Clin Auton Res 1997; 7:321326.
  15. Sjostrand T. Volume and distribution of blood and their significance in regulating the circulation. Physiol Rev 1953; 33:202228.
  16. Rowell LB, Detry JM, Blackmon JR, Wyss C. Importance of the splanchnic vascular bed in human blood pressure regulation. J Appl Physiol 1972; 32:213220.
  17. Smit AA, Wieling W, Fujimura J, et al. Use of lower abdominal compression to combat orthostatic hypotension in patients with autonomic dysfunction. Clin Auton Res 2004; 14:167175.
  18. Jordan J, Shannon JR, Black BK, et al. The pressor response to water drinking in humans: a sympathetic reflex? Circulation 2000; 101:504509.
  19. Shannon JR, Diedrich A, Biaggioni I, et al. Water drinking as a treatment for orthostatic syndromes. Am J Med 2002; 112:355360.
  20. Jordan J, Shannon JR, Grogan E, Biaggioni I, Robertson D. A potent pressor response elicited by drinking water [letter]. Lancet 1999; 353:723.
  21. MacLean AR, Allen EV. Orthostatic hypotension and orthostatic tachycardia: treatment with the “head-up” bed. JAMA 1940; 115:21622167.
  22. Ector H, Reybrouck T, Heidbüchel H, Gewillig M, Van de Werf F. Tilt training: a new treatment for recurrent neurocardiogenic syncope and severe orthostatic intolerance. Pacing Clin Electrophysiol 1998; 21:193196.
  23. Bouvette CM, McPhee BR, Opfer-Gehrking TL, Low PA. Role of physical countermaneuvers in the management of orthostatic hypotension: efficacy and biofeedback augmentation. Mayo Clin Proc 1996; 71:847853.
  24. Ten Harkel AD, van Lieshout JJ, Wieling W. Effects of leg muscle pumping and tensing on orthostatic arterial pressure: a study in normal subjects and patients with autonomic failure. Clin Sci (Lond) 1994; 87:553558.
  25. Low PA, Gilden JL, Freeman R, Sheng KN, McElligott MA. Efficacy of midodrine vs placebo in neurogenic orthostatic hypotension. A randomized, double-blind multicenter study. Midodrine Study Group. JAMA 1997; 277:10461051.
  26. Jankovic J, Gilden JL, Hiner BC, et al. Neurogenic orthostatic hypotension: a double-blind, placebo-controlled study with midodrine. Am J Med 1993; 95:3848.
  27. Fouad-Tarazi FM, Okabe M, Goren H. Alpha sympathomimetic treatment of autonomic insufficiency with orthostatic hypotension. Am J Med 1995; 99:604610.
  28. Maule S, Papotti G, Naso D, Magnino C, Testa E, Veglio F. Orthostatic hypotension: evaluation and treatment. Cardiovasc Hematol Disord Drug Targets 2007; 7:6370.
  29. Axelrod FB, Goldberg JD, Rolnitzky L, et al. Fludrocortisone in patients with familial dysautonomia—assessing effect on clinical parameters and gene expression. Clin Auton Res 2005; 15:284291.
  30. Chobanian AV, Volicer L, Tifft CP, Gavras H, Liang CS, Faxon D. Mineralocorticoid-induced hypertension in patients with orthostatic hypotension. N Engl J Med 1979; 301:6873.
  31. van Lieshout JJ, Ten Harkel AD, Wieling W. Fludrocortisone and sleeping in the head-up position limit the postural decrease in cardiac output in autonomic failure. Clin Auton Res 2000; 10:3542.
  32. Hussain RM, McIntosh SJ, Lawson J, Kenny RA. Fludrocortisone in the treatment of hypotensive disorders in the elderly. Heart 1996; 76:507509.
  33. Singer W, Opfer-Gehrking TL, McPhee BR, Hilz MJ, Bharucha AE, Low PA. Acetylcholinesterase inhibition: a novel approach in the treatment of neurogenic orthostatic hypotension. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 2003; 74:12941298.
  34. Singer W, Sandroni P, Opfer-Gehrking TL, et al. Pyridostigmine treatment trial in neurogenic orthostatic hypotension. Arch Neurol 2006; 63:513518.
  35. Lipsitz LA, Pluchino FC, Wei JY, Rowe JW. Syncope in institutionalized elderly: the impact of multiple pathological conditions and situational stress. J Chronic Dis 1986; 39:619630.
  36. Mtinangi BL, Hainsworth R. Effects of moderate exercise training on plasma volume, baroreceptor sensitivity and orthostatic tolerance in healthy subjects. Exp Physiol 1999; 84:121130.
  37. Bonnin P, Ben Driss A, Benessiano J, Maillet A, Pavy le Traon A, Levy BI. Enhanced flow-dependent vasodilatation after bed rest, a possible mechanism for orthostatic intolerance in humans. Eur J Appl Physiol 2001; 85:420426.
  38. El-Sayed H, Hainsworth R. Salt supplementation increases plasma volume and orthostatic tolerance in patients with unexplained syncope. Heart 1996; 75:134140.
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Phillip A. Low, MD
Department of Neurology, Mayo Clinic, Rochester, MN

Address: Phillip A. Low, MD, Mayo Clinic, 200 First Street SW, Rochester, MN 55905; e-mail [email protected]

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Department of Neurology, Mayo Clinic, Rochester, MN

Address: Phillip A. Low, MD, Mayo Clinic, 200 First Street SW, Rochester, MN 55905; e-mail [email protected]

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Department of Neurology, Mayo Clinic, Rochester, MN

Address: Phillip A. Low, MD, Mayo Clinic, 200 First Street SW, Rochester, MN 55905; e-mail [email protected]

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Orthostatic hypotension is a chronic, debilitating illness associated with common neurologic conditions (eg, diabetic neuropathy, Parkinson disease). It is common in the elderly, especially in those who are institutionalized and are using multiple medications.

Treatment can be challenging, especially if the problem is neurogenic. This condition has no cure, symptoms vary in different circumstances, treatment is nonspecific, and aggressive treatment can lead to marked supine hypertension.

This review focuses on the prevention and treatment of neurogenic causes of orthostatic hypotension. We emphasize a simple but effective patient-oriented approach to management, using a combination of nonpharmacologic strategies and drugs clinically proven to be efficacious. The recommendations and their rationale are organized in a practical and easy-to-remember format for both physicians and patients.

WHAT HAPPENS WHEN WE STAND UP?

When we stand up, the blood goes down from the chest to the distensible venous capacitance system below the diaphragm. This fluid shift produces a decrease in venous return, ventricular filling, cardiac output, and blood pressure.1

This gravity-induced drop in blood pressure, detected by arterial baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus, triggers a compensatory reflex tachycardia and vasoconstriction that restores normotension in the upright position. This compensatory mechanism is termed a baroreflex; it is mediated by afferent and efferent autonomic peripheral nerves and is integrated in autonomic centers in the brainstem.2

Orthostatic hypotension is the result of baroreflex failure (autonomic failure), end-organ dysfunction, or volume depletion. Injury to any limb of the baroreflex causes neurogenic orthostatic hypotension, although with afferent lesions alone, the hypotension tends to be modest and accompanied by wide fluctuations in blood pressure, including severe hypertension. Drugs can produce orthostatic hypotension by interfering with the autonomic pathways or their target end-organs or by affecting intravascular volume. Brain hypoperfusion, resulting from orthostatic hypotension from any cause, can lead to symptoms of orthostatic intolerance (eg, lightheadedness) and falls, and if the hypotension is severe, to syncope.

A DECREASE OF 20 MM HG SYSTOLIC OR 10 MM HG DIASTOLIC

The consensus definition of orthostatic hypotension is a reduction of systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mm Hg or a reduction of diastolic blood pressure of at least 10 mm Hg within 3 minutes of erect standing.3 A transient drop that occurs with abrupt standing and resolves rapidly suggests a benign condition, such as dehydration, rather than autonomic failure.

In the laboratory, patients are placed on a tilt table in the head-up position at an angle of at least 60 degrees to detect orthostatic changes in blood pressure. In the office, 1 minute of standing probably detects nearly all cases of orthostatic hypotension; however, standing beyond 2 minutes helps establish the severity (a further drop in blood pressure).4 Orthostatic hypotension developing after 3 minutes of standing is uncommon and may represent a reflex presyncope (eg, vasovagal) or a mild or early form of sympathetic adrenergic dysfunction.4, 5

NEUROGENIC AND NONNEUROGENIC CAUSES

Orthostatic hypotension may result from neurogenic and nonneurogenic causes.

Neurogenic orthostatic hypotension can be due to neuropathy (eg, diabetic or autoimmune neuropathies) or to central lesions (eg, Parkinson disease or multiple system atrophy). Its presence, severity, and temporal course can be important clues in diagnosing Parkinson disease and differentiating it from other parkinsonian syndromes with a more ominous prognosis, such as multiple system atrophy and Lewy body dementia.

Nonneurogenic causes include cardiac impairment (eg, from myocardial infarction or aortic stenosis), reduced intravascular volume (eg, from dehydration, adrenal insufficiency), and vasodilation (eg, from fever, systemic mastocytosis).

Common drugs that cause orthostatic hypotension are diuretics, alpha-adrenoceptor blockers for prostatic hypertrophy, antihypertensive drugs, and calcium channel blockers. Insulin, levodopa, and tricyclic antidepressants can also cause vasodilation and orthostatic hypotension in predisposed patients. Poon and Braun,6 in a retrospective study in elderly veterans, identified hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), trazodone (Desyrel), furosemide (Lasix), and terazosin (Hytrin) as the most common culprits.

ORTHOSTATIC HYPOTENSION IS COMMON IN THE ELDERLY

The prevalence of orthostatic hypotension is high in the elderly and depends on the characteristics of the population studied, such as age, use of medications, and comorbidities known to be associated with this problem. Orthostatic hypotension is more common in institutionalized elderly people (up to 68%)7 than in those living in the community (6%).8 The high prevalence among institutionalized patients likely reflects multiple disease processes, including neurologic and cardiac conditions, as well as medications associated with orthostatic hypotension.

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS ARE DUE TO HYPOPERFUSION, OVERCOMPENSATION

Symptoms are related to cerebral hypoperfusion, with resulting lack of cerebral oxygenation (causing lightheadedness, dizziness, weakness, difficulty thinking, headache, syncope, or feeling faint) and a compensatory autonomic overreaction (causing palpitations, tremulousness, nausea, coldness of extremities, chest pain, and syncope).

Lightheadedness is a common symptom, but subtler issues such as difficulty thinking, weakness, and neck discomfort are also common in the elderly. Recurrent or unexplained falls in older adults may be a manifestation of syncope due to orthostatic hypotension.

 

 

PROGNOSIS DEPENDS ON CAUSE

Orthostatic hypotension is a syndrome, and its prognosis depends on its specific cause, its severity, and the distribution of its autonomic and nonautonomic involvement. In patients who have extrapyramidal and cerebellar disorders (eg, Parkinson disease, multiple system atrophy), the earlier and the more severe the involvement of the autonomic nervous system, the poorer the prognosis.9,10

In hypertensive patients with diabetes mellitus, the risk of death is higher if they have orthostatic hypotension.11 Diastolic orthostatic hypotension is associated with a higher risk of vascular death in older persons.12

MANAGEMENT: FROM A TO F

The goal of management of orthostatic hypotension is to raise the patient’s standing blood pressure without also raising his or her supine blood pressure, and specifically to reduce orthostatic symptoms, increase the time the patient can stand, and improve his or her ability to perform daily activities. No specific treatment is currently available that achieves all these goals, and drugs alone are never completely adequate.

Therapies primarily consist of a combination of vasoconstrictor drugs, volume expansion, compression garments, and postural adjustment. Education about orthostatic stressors and warning symptoms empowers the patient to adopt easy lifestyle changes to minimize and handle orthostatic stress.

Because the mainstays of treatment are volume expansion and vasoconstriction, it is difficult to improve the symptoms of orthostatic hypotension without inducing some degree of supine hypertension. Strategies to minimize nocturnal hypertension and to treat orthostatic hypotension in special circumstances are summarized in Table 1.

Treatment should always start with identifying and, if possible, reducing or discontinuing drugs that may be causing or exacerbating the problem (Table 2). Similarly, conditions that may exacerbate it (eg, anemia13) should be identified and minimized (Table 3).

Nonpharmacologic interventions should then be considered. They can be tried in any order or combination based on the patient’s convenience or safety. They work by expanding blood volume (taking in extra fluid and salt), decreasing nocturia (raising the head of the bed), decreasing venous pooling (wearing an abdominal binder, performing countermaneuvers, engaging in physical activity), or inducing a pressor response (drinking a bolus of cold water).

If hypovolemia is playing a major role, and the patient cannot ingest enough salt or plasma volume fails to increase despite salt supplementation, fludrocortisone (Florinef) should be considered. Untreated hypovolemia will decrease the efficacy of vasoconstrictor drugs.

Pyridostigmine (Mestinon) has a putative vasoconstrictor effect only during standing, but because its effect is modest it should be used in mild orthostatic hypotension that does not improve with nonpharmacologic measures and in moderate cases. Its effect can be enhanced with additional low doses of midodrine (ProAmatine). Midodrine with or without fludrocortisone should be used in severe orthostatic hypotension.

We use an A-to-F mnemonic to highlight management strategies (see below and Table 4). The alphabetic order is not meant to represent a sequential approach to management, but rather to facilitate consideration of all the available treatments.

A: Abdominal compression

In conditions in which there is adrenergic denervation of vascular beds, there is an increase in vascular capacitance and peripheral venous pooling. Compression of capacitance beds (ie, the legs and abdomen) improves orthostatic symptoms.14 The improvement is due to a reduction of venous capacitance and an increase in total peripheral resistance.14

On standing, healthy adults experience an orthostatic shift of approximately 500 mL of blood to the lower extremities15 that, when added to an increased vascular capacitance in those with orthostatic hypotension, results in a relative state of hypovolemia.

Compression of the legs alone is not as beneficial as compression of the abdomen because the venous capacitance of the calves and thighs is relatively small compared with that of the splanchnic mesenteric bed, which accounts for 20% to 30% of total blood volume.16 Moreover, compression garments and stockings that are strong enough to produce a measurable effect on orthostatic hypotension are cumbersome to put on and uncomfortable to wear. Because some patients gain significant benefit from abdominal compression alone, this should be considered the first step in reducing venous capacitance.

In a laboratory experiment, Smit et al17 found that an elastic abdominal binder that exerted 15 to 20 mm Hg of pressure on the abdomen raised the standing blood pressure by about 11/6 mmHg, which was comparable to the effect of a gravity suit (such as those worn by fighter pilots to prevent syncope during violent aircraft maneuvers) inflated to 20 mm Hg—an increase of about 17/8 mm Hg. Higher gravity-suit pressures had a greater effect.

In practical terms, the binder should be tight enough to exert gentle pressure. It should be put on before rising from bed in the morning and taken off when lying supine, to avoid supine hypertension. Advantages are that a binder’s effects are immediate, its benefits can be easily assessed, and it can be used on an as-needed basis by patients who need it only during periods of prolonged orthostatic stress. Binders are also easy to fit and are available in most sporting good stores and on the Web (try searching for “abdominal binder”).

When abdominal compression alone is not enough, the addition of compression of the lower extremities can result in further benefits. This can be achieved by using compression garments that ideally extend to the waist or, at the least, to the proximal thigh.

 

 

B: Boluses of water

Rapidly drinking two 8-oz (500-mL) glasses of cold water helps expand plasma volume. It also, within a few minutes, elicits a significant pressor effect that is in part norepinephrine-mediated,18,19 increasing the standing systolic blood pressure by more than 20 mm Hg for about 2 hours and improving symptoms and orthostatic endurance.18,20 This easy technique can be used when prolonged standing is expected (eg, shopping).

B (continued): Bed up

The head of the bed of a patient with orthostatic hypotension should be elevated by 10 to 20 degrees or 4 inches (10 cm) to decrease nocturnal hypertension and nocturnal diuresis.21 During the day, adequate orthostatic stress, ie, upright activity, should be maintained. If patients are repeatedly tilted up, their orthostatic hypotension is gradually attenuated, presumably by increasing venomotor tone.22

C: Countermaneuvers

Physical countermaneuvers involve isometrically contracting the muscles below the waist for about 30 seconds at a time, which reduces venous capacitance, increases total peripheral resistance, and augments venous return to the heart.23,24 These countermeasures can help maintain blood pressure during daily activities and should be considered at the first symptoms of orthostatic intolerance and in situations of orthostatic stress (eg, standing for prolonged periods).

Specific techniques include23:

  • Toe-raising
  • Leg-crossing and contraction
  • Thigh muscle co-contraction
  • Bending at the waist
  • Slow marching in place
  • Leg elevation.

D: Drugs

Midodrine, a vasopressor, is effective and safe when used for treating neurogenic orthostatic hypotension.25 It has been shown to increase standing systolic blood pressure, reduce orthostatic lightheadedness, and increase standing and walking time.

A common starting dose is 5 mg three times a day; most patients respond best to 10 mg three times a day. As its duration of action is short (2 to 4 hours),25–27 it should be taken before arising in the morning, before lunch, and in the midafternoon. To avoid nocturnal supine hypertension, doses should not be taken after the midafternoon, and a dose should be omitted if the supine or sitting blood pressure is greater than 180/100 mm Hg.

Midodrine’s main side effects are supine hypertension, scalp paresthesias, and pilomotor reactions (goosebumps). Vasoconstrictors such as midodrine are ineffective when plasma volume is reduced.

Fludrocortisone is a synthetic mineralocorticoid that has a pressor effect as a result of its ability to expand plasma volume and increase vascular alpha-adrenoceptor sensitivity.28–30 This medication is helpful when plasma volume fails to adequately increase with salt supplementation31 and for patients who cannot ingest enough salt or do not respond adequately to midodrine.

The usual dose is 0.1 to 0.2 mg/day, but it may be increased to 0.4 to 0.6 mg/day in patients with refractory orthostatic hypotension.

If the patient gains 3 to 5 pounds (1.2–2.3 kg) and develops mild dependent edema, you can infer that the plasma volume has expanded adequately. However, in view of these effects, fludrocortisone is contraindicated in congestive heart failure and chronic renal failure. The potential risks are severe hypokalemia and excessive supine hypertension. Frequent monitoring of serum potassium, a diet high in potassium, and regular checks of supine blood pressure are advised, especially at higher doses, when added to midodrine, or in elderly patients who tend to poorly tolerate the medication.28,29,32

Pyridostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that improves ganglionic neurotransmission in the sympathetic baroreflex pathway. Because this pathway is activated primarily during standing, this drug improves orthostatic hypotension and total peripheral resistance without aggravating supine hypertension. Because the pressor effect is modest, it is most adequate for patients with mild to moderate orthostatic hypotension.33,34

Dosing is started at 30 mg two to three times a day and is gradually increased to 60 mg three times a day. The drug’s effectiveness can be enhanced by combining each dose of pyridostigmine with 5 mg of midodrine without occurrence of supine hypertension.34 Mestinon Timespan, a 180-mg slow-release pyridostigmine tablet, can be taken once a day and may be a convenient alternative.

The main side effects are cholinergic (abdominal colic, diarrhea).

Review the patient’s medications. If he or she is taking any drug that may cause orthostatic hypotension, consider discontinuing it, substituting another drug, or changing the dosage (Table 2). In the elderly, antiparkinsonian, nitrate, antidepressant, diuretic, prostate, and antihypertensive medications35 may be particularly suspect.

E: Education

Education is probably the single most important factor in the proper control of orthostatic hypotension. A number of issues should be considered.

  • Patients should be taught, in simple terms, the mechanisms that maintain postural normotension and how to recognize the onset of orthostatic symptoms.
  • They must realize that there is no specific treatment of the underlying cause and that drug treatment alone is not adequate.
  • They should be taught nonpharmacologic approaches and be aware that other drugs they start may worsen symptoms.

It is also important that the patient learn the conditions (and their mechanisms) that can lower blood pressure (Table 3). Such conditions include prolonged or motionless standing, alcohol ingestion (causing vasodilation), carbohydrate-heavy meals (causing postprandial orthostatic hypotension related to an increase in the splanchnic-mesenteric venous capacitance), early morning orthostatic hypotension related to nocturnal diuresis and arising from bed, physical activity sufficient to cause muscle vasodilation, heat exposure (eg, hot weather or a hot bath or shower) producing skin vessel vasodilation, sudden postural changes, and prolonged recumbency. Once these stressors are explained, patients have no difficulty recognizing them.

The patient should also be instructed in how to manage situations of increased orthostatic stress and periods of orthostatic decompensation, to minimize nocturnal hypertension, and to modify their activities of daily living. Keeping a log of supine and upright blood pressures (taken with an automated sphygmomanometer) during situations of orthostatic stress can help establish whether worsening symptoms are related to orthostatic hypotension or to another mechanism. Once patients discover that they can actively deal with these situations, they develop a great sense of empowerment.

E (continued): Exercise

Mild physical exercise improves orthostatic tolerance by reducing venous pooling and increasing plasma volume.36 Deconditioning from lack of exercise exacerbates orthostatic hypotension.37 Because upright exercise may increase the orthostatic drop in blood pressure, training in a supine or sitting position (eg, swimming, recumbent biking) is advisable. Isotonic exercise (eg, light weight-lifting) is recommended because the incorrect straining and breath-holding during isometric exercise (eg, holding weights in the same position) may decrease venous return.

 

 

F: Fluid and salt (volume expansion)

Maintaining an adequate plasma volume is crucial. Patients should drink five to eight 8-ounce glasses (1.25 to 2.5 L) of water or other fluid per day. Many elderly people do not take in this much. The patient should have at least 1 glass or cup of fluid with meals and at least twice at other times of each day to obtain 1 L/day.

Salt intake should be between 150 and 250 mmol of sodium (10 to 20 g of salt) per day. Sodium helps with retention of ingested fluids and should be maximized if tolerated. However, caution should be exercised in patients who have severe refractory supine hypertension, uncontrolled hypertension, or comorbidities characterized by insterstitial edema (eg, heart failure, liver failure). Some patients are very sensitive to sodium supplementation and can fine-tune their orthostatic control with salt alone. If salting food is not desired, prepared soups, pretzels, potato chips, and 0.5- or 1.0-g salt tablets can be an option.

Patients need to maintain a high-potassium diet, as the high sodium intake combined with fludrocortisone promotes potassium loss. Fruits (especially bananas) and vegetables have high potassium content.

The combination of fludrocortisone and a high-salt diet can also cause sustained supine hypertension, which can be minimized by the interventions noted in Table 2.

Appropriate salt supplementation and fluid intake leading to an adequate volume expansion can be verified by checking the 24-hour urinary sodium content: patients who excrete less than 170 mmol can be treated with 1 to 2 g of supplemental sodium three times a day.38

Orthostatic hypotension is a chronic, debilitating illness associated with common neurologic conditions (eg, diabetic neuropathy, Parkinson disease). It is common in the elderly, especially in those who are institutionalized and are using multiple medications.

Treatment can be challenging, especially if the problem is neurogenic. This condition has no cure, symptoms vary in different circumstances, treatment is nonspecific, and aggressive treatment can lead to marked supine hypertension.

This review focuses on the prevention and treatment of neurogenic causes of orthostatic hypotension. We emphasize a simple but effective patient-oriented approach to management, using a combination of nonpharmacologic strategies and drugs clinically proven to be efficacious. The recommendations and their rationale are organized in a practical and easy-to-remember format for both physicians and patients.

WHAT HAPPENS WHEN WE STAND UP?

When we stand up, the blood goes down from the chest to the distensible venous capacitance system below the diaphragm. This fluid shift produces a decrease in venous return, ventricular filling, cardiac output, and blood pressure.1

This gravity-induced drop in blood pressure, detected by arterial baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus, triggers a compensatory reflex tachycardia and vasoconstriction that restores normotension in the upright position. This compensatory mechanism is termed a baroreflex; it is mediated by afferent and efferent autonomic peripheral nerves and is integrated in autonomic centers in the brainstem.2

Orthostatic hypotension is the result of baroreflex failure (autonomic failure), end-organ dysfunction, or volume depletion. Injury to any limb of the baroreflex causes neurogenic orthostatic hypotension, although with afferent lesions alone, the hypotension tends to be modest and accompanied by wide fluctuations in blood pressure, including severe hypertension. Drugs can produce orthostatic hypotension by interfering with the autonomic pathways or their target end-organs or by affecting intravascular volume. Brain hypoperfusion, resulting from orthostatic hypotension from any cause, can lead to symptoms of orthostatic intolerance (eg, lightheadedness) and falls, and if the hypotension is severe, to syncope.

A DECREASE OF 20 MM HG SYSTOLIC OR 10 MM HG DIASTOLIC

The consensus definition of orthostatic hypotension is a reduction of systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mm Hg or a reduction of diastolic blood pressure of at least 10 mm Hg within 3 minutes of erect standing.3 A transient drop that occurs with abrupt standing and resolves rapidly suggests a benign condition, such as dehydration, rather than autonomic failure.

In the laboratory, patients are placed on a tilt table in the head-up position at an angle of at least 60 degrees to detect orthostatic changes in blood pressure. In the office, 1 minute of standing probably detects nearly all cases of orthostatic hypotension; however, standing beyond 2 minutes helps establish the severity (a further drop in blood pressure).4 Orthostatic hypotension developing after 3 minutes of standing is uncommon and may represent a reflex presyncope (eg, vasovagal) or a mild or early form of sympathetic adrenergic dysfunction.4, 5

NEUROGENIC AND NONNEUROGENIC CAUSES

Orthostatic hypotension may result from neurogenic and nonneurogenic causes.

Neurogenic orthostatic hypotension can be due to neuropathy (eg, diabetic or autoimmune neuropathies) or to central lesions (eg, Parkinson disease or multiple system atrophy). Its presence, severity, and temporal course can be important clues in diagnosing Parkinson disease and differentiating it from other parkinsonian syndromes with a more ominous prognosis, such as multiple system atrophy and Lewy body dementia.

Nonneurogenic causes include cardiac impairment (eg, from myocardial infarction or aortic stenosis), reduced intravascular volume (eg, from dehydration, adrenal insufficiency), and vasodilation (eg, from fever, systemic mastocytosis).

Common drugs that cause orthostatic hypotension are diuretics, alpha-adrenoceptor blockers for prostatic hypertrophy, antihypertensive drugs, and calcium channel blockers. Insulin, levodopa, and tricyclic antidepressants can also cause vasodilation and orthostatic hypotension in predisposed patients. Poon and Braun,6 in a retrospective study in elderly veterans, identified hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), trazodone (Desyrel), furosemide (Lasix), and terazosin (Hytrin) as the most common culprits.

ORTHOSTATIC HYPOTENSION IS COMMON IN THE ELDERLY

The prevalence of orthostatic hypotension is high in the elderly and depends on the characteristics of the population studied, such as age, use of medications, and comorbidities known to be associated with this problem. Orthostatic hypotension is more common in institutionalized elderly people (up to 68%)7 than in those living in the community (6%).8 The high prevalence among institutionalized patients likely reflects multiple disease processes, including neurologic and cardiac conditions, as well as medications associated with orthostatic hypotension.

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS ARE DUE TO HYPOPERFUSION, OVERCOMPENSATION

Symptoms are related to cerebral hypoperfusion, with resulting lack of cerebral oxygenation (causing lightheadedness, dizziness, weakness, difficulty thinking, headache, syncope, or feeling faint) and a compensatory autonomic overreaction (causing palpitations, tremulousness, nausea, coldness of extremities, chest pain, and syncope).

Lightheadedness is a common symptom, but subtler issues such as difficulty thinking, weakness, and neck discomfort are also common in the elderly. Recurrent or unexplained falls in older adults may be a manifestation of syncope due to orthostatic hypotension.

 

 

PROGNOSIS DEPENDS ON CAUSE

Orthostatic hypotension is a syndrome, and its prognosis depends on its specific cause, its severity, and the distribution of its autonomic and nonautonomic involvement. In patients who have extrapyramidal and cerebellar disorders (eg, Parkinson disease, multiple system atrophy), the earlier and the more severe the involvement of the autonomic nervous system, the poorer the prognosis.9,10

In hypertensive patients with diabetes mellitus, the risk of death is higher if they have orthostatic hypotension.11 Diastolic orthostatic hypotension is associated with a higher risk of vascular death in older persons.12

MANAGEMENT: FROM A TO F

The goal of management of orthostatic hypotension is to raise the patient’s standing blood pressure without also raising his or her supine blood pressure, and specifically to reduce orthostatic symptoms, increase the time the patient can stand, and improve his or her ability to perform daily activities. No specific treatment is currently available that achieves all these goals, and drugs alone are never completely adequate.

Therapies primarily consist of a combination of vasoconstrictor drugs, volume expansion, compression garments, and postural adjustment. Education about orthostatic stressors and warning symptoms empowers the patient to adopt easy lifestyle changes to minimize and handle orthostatic stress.

Because the mainstays of treatment are volume expansion and vasoconstriction, it is difficult to improve the symptoms of orthostatic hypotension without inducing some degree of supine hypertension. Strategies to minimize nocturnal hypertension and to treat orthostatic hypotension in special circumstances are summarized in Table 1.

Treatment should always start with identifying and, if possible, reducing or discontinuing drugs that may be causing or exacerbating the problem (Table 2). Similarly, conditions that may exacerbate it (eg, anemia13) should be identified and minimized (Table 3).

Nonpharmacologic interventions should then be considered. They can be tried in any order or combination based on the patient’s convenience or safety. They work by expanding blood volume (taking in extra fluid and salt), decreasing nocturia (raising the head of the bed), decreasing venous pooling (wearing an abdominal binder, performing countermaneuvers, engaging in physical activity), or inducing a pressor response (drinking a bolus of cold water).

If hypovolemia is playing a major role, and the patient cannot ingest enough salt or plasma volume fails to increase despite salt supplementation, fludrocortisone (Florinef) should be considered. Untreated hypovolemia will decrease the efficacy of vasoconstrictor drugs.

Pyridostigmine (Mestinon) has a putative vasoconstrictor effect only during standing, but because its effect is modest it should be used in mild orthostatic hypotension that does not improve with nonpharmacologic measures and in moderate cases. Its effect can be enhanced with additional low doses of midodrine (ProAmatine). Midodrine with or without fludrocortisone should be used in severe orthostatic hypotension.

We use an A-to-F mnemonic to highlight management strategies (see below and Table 4). The alphabetic order is not meant to represent a sequential approach to management, but rather to facilitate consideration of all the available treatments.

A: Abdominal compression

In conditions in which there is adrenergic denervation of vascular beds, there is an increase in vascular capacitance and peripheral venous pooling. Compression of capacitance beds (ie, the legs and abdomen) improves orthostatic symptoms.14 The improvement is due to a reduction of venous capacitance and an increase in total peripheral resistance.14

On standing, healthy adults experience an orthostatic shift of approximately 500 mL of blood to the lower extremities15 that, when added to an increased vascular capacitance in those with orthostatic hypotension, results in a relative state of hypovolemia.

Compression of the legs alone is not as beneficial as compression of the abdomen because the venous capacitance of the calves and thighs is relatively small compared with that of the splanchnic mesenteric bed, which accounts for 20% to 30% of total blood volume.16 Moreover, compression garments and stockings that are strong enough to produce a measurable effect on orthostatic hypotension are cumbersome to put on and uncomfortable to wear. Because some patients gain significant benefit from abdominal compression alone, this should be considered the first step in reducing venous capacitance.

In a laboratory experiment, Smit et al17 found that an elastic abdominal binder that exerted 15 to 20 mm Hg of pressure on the abdomen raised the standing blood pressure by about 11/6 mmHg, which was comparable to the effect of a gravity suit (such as those worn by fighter pilots to prevent syncope during violent aircraft maneuvers) inflated to 20 mm Hg—an increase of about 17/8 mm Hg. Higher gravity-suit pressures had a greater effect.

In practical terms, the binder should be tight enough to exert gentle pressure. It should be put on before rising from bed in the morning and taken off when lying supine, to avoid supine hypertension. Advantages are that a binder’s effects are immediate, its benefits can be easily assessed, and it can be used on an as-needed basis by patients who need it only during periods of prolonged orthostatic stress. Binders are also easy to fit and are available in most sporting good stores and on the Web (try searching for “abdominal binder”).

When abdominal compression alone is not enough, the addition of compression of the lower extremities can result in further benefits. This can be achieved by using compression garments that ideally extend to the waist or, at the least, to the proximal thigh.

 

 

B: Boluses of water

Rapidly drinking two 8-oz (500-mL) glasses of cold water helps expand plasma volume. It also, within a few minutes, elicits a significant pressor effect that is in part norepinephrine-mediated,18,19 increasing the standing systolic blood pressure by more than 20 mm Hg for about 2 hours and improving symptoms and orthostatic endurance.18,20 This easy technique can be used when prolonged standing is expected (eg, shopping).

B (continued): Bed up

The head of the bed of a patient with orthostatic hypotension should be elevated by 10 to 20 degrees or 4 inches (10 cm) to decrease nocturnal hypertension and nocturnal diuresis.21 During the day, adequate orthostatic stress, ie, upright activity, should be maintained. If patients are repeatedly tilted up, their orthostatic hypotension is gradually attenuated, presumably by increasing venomotor tone.22

C: Countermaneuvers

Physical countermaneuvers involve isometrically contracting the muscles below the waist for about 30 seconds at a time, which reduces venous capacitance, increases total peripheral resistance, and augments venous return to the heart.23,24 These countermeasures can help maintain blood pressure during daily activities and should be considered at the first symptoms of orthostatic intolerance and in situations of orthostatic stress (eg, standing for prolonged periods).

Specific techniques include23:

  • Toe-raising
  • Leg-crossing and contraction
  • Thigh muscle co-contraction
  • Bending at the waist
  • Slow marching in place
  • Leg elevation.

D: Drugs

Midodrine, a vasopressor, is effective and safe when used for treating neurogenic orthostatic hypotension.25 It has been shown to increase standing systolic blood pressure, reduce orthostatic lightheadedness, and increase standing and walking time.

A common starting dose is 5 mg three times a day; most patients respond best to 10 mg three times a day. As its duration of action is short (2 to 4 hours),25–27 it should be taken before arising in the morning, before lunch, and in the midafternoon. To avoid nocturnal supine hypertension, doses should not be taken after the midafternoon, and a dose should be omitted if the supine or sitting blood pressure is greater than 180/100 mm Hg.

Midodrine’s main side effects are supine hypertension, scalp paresthesias, and pilomotor reactions (goosebumps). Vasoconstrictors such as midodrine are ineffective when plasma volume is reduced.

Fludrocortisone is a synthetic mineralocorticoid that has a pressor effect as a result of its ability to expand plasma volume and increase vascular alpha-adrenoceptor sensitivity.28–30 This medication is helpful when plasma volume fails to adequately increase with salt supplementation31 and for patients who cannot ingest enough salt or do not respond adequately to midodrine.

The usual dose is 0.1 to 0.2 mg/day, but it may be increased to 0.4 to 0.6 mg/day in patients with refractory orthostatic hypotension.

If the patient gains 3 to 5 pounds (1.2–2.3 kg) and develops mild dependent edema, you can infer that the plasma volume has expanded adequately. However, in view of these effects, fludrocortisone is contraindicated in congestive heart failure and chronic renal failure. The potential risks are severe hypokalemia and excessive supine hypertension. Frequent monitoring of serum potassium, a diet high in potassium, and regular checks of supine blood pressure are advised, especially at higher doses, when added to midodrine, or in elderly patients who tend to poorly tolerate the medication.28,29,32

Pyridostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that improves ganglionic neurotransmission in the sympathetic baroreflex pathway. Because this pathway is activated primarily during standing, this drug improves orthostatic hypotension and total peripheral resistance without aggravating supine hypertension. Because the pressor effect is modest, it is most adequate for patients with mild to moderate orthostatic hypotension.33,34

Dosing is started at 30 mg two to three times a day and is gradually increased to 60 mg three times a day. The drug’s effectiveness can be enhanced by combining each dose of pyridostigmine with 5 mg of midodrine without occurrence of supine hypertension.34 Mestinon Timespan, a 180-mg slow-release pyridostigmine tablet, can be taken once a day and may be a convenient alternative.

The main side effects are cholinergic (abdominal colic, diarrhea).

Review the patient’s medications. If he or she is taking any drug that may cause orthostatic hypotension, consider discontinuing it, substituting another drug, or changing the dosage (Table 2). In the elderly, antiparkinsonian, nitrate, antidepressant, diuretic, prostate, and antihypertensive medications35 may be particularly suspect.

E: Education

Education is probably the single most important factor in the proper control of orthostatic hypotension. A number of issues should be considered.

  • Patients should be taught, in simple terms, the mechanisms that maintain postural normotension and how to recognize the onset of orthostatic symptoms.
  • They must realize that there is no specific treatment of the underlying cause and that drug treatment alone is not adequate.
  • They should be taught nonpharmacologic approaches and be aware that other drugs they start may worsen symptoms.

It is also important that the patient learn the conditions (and their mechanisms) that can lower blood pressure (Table 3). Such conditions include prolonged or motionless standing, alcohol ingestion (causing vasodilation), carbohydrate-heavy meals (causing postprandial orthostatic hypotension related to an increase in the splanchnic-mesenteric venous capacitance), early morning orthostatic hypotension related to nocturnal diuresis and arising from bed, physical activity sufficient to cause muscle vasodilation, heat exposure (eg, hot weather or a hot bath or shower) producing skin vessel vasodilation, sudden postural changes, and prolonged recumbency. Once these stressors are explained, patients have no difficulty recognizing them.

The patient should also be instructed in how to manage situations of increased orthostatic stress and periods of orthostatic decompensation, to minimize nocturnal hypertension, and to modify their activities of daily living. Keeping a log of supine and upright blood pressures (taken with an automated sphygmomanometer) during situations of orthostatic stress can help establish whether worsening symptoms are related to orthostatic hypotension or to another mechanism. Once patients discover that they can actively deal with these situations, they develop a great sense of empowerment.

E (continued): Exercise

Mild physical exercise improves orthostatic tolerance by reducing venous pooling and increasing plasma volume.36 Deconditioning from lack of exercise exacerbates orthostatic hypotension.37 Because upright exercise may increase the orthostatic drop in blood pressure, training in a supine or sitting position (eg, swimming, recumbent biking) is advisable. Isotonic exercise (eg, light weight-lifting) is recommended because the incorrect straining and breath-holding during isometric exercise (eg, holding weights in the same position) may decrease venous return.

 

 

F: Fluid and salt (volume expansion)

Maintaining an adequate plasma volume is crucial. Patients should drink five to eight 8-ounce glasses (1.25 to 2.5 L) of water or other fluid per day. Many elderly people do not take in this much. The patient should have at least 1 glass or cup of fluid with meals and at least twice at other times of each day to obtain 1 L/day.

Salt intake should be between 150 and 250 mmol of sodium (10 to 20 g of salt) per day. Sodium helps with retention of ingested fluids and should be maximized if tolerated. However, caution should be exercised in patients who have severe refractory supine hypertension, uncontrolled hypertension, or comorbidities characterized by insterstitial edema (eg, heart failure, liver failure). Some patients are very sensitive to sodium supplementation and can fine-tune their orthostatic control with salt alone. If salting food is not desired, prepared soups, pretzels, potato chips, and 0.5- or 1.0-g salt tablets can be an option.

Patients need to maintain a high-potassium diet, as the high sodium intake combined with fludrocortisone promotes potassium loss. Fruits (especially bananas) and vegetables have high potassium content.

The combination of fludrocortisone and a high-salt diet can also cause sustained supine hypertension, which can be minimized by the interventions noted in Table 2.

Appropriate salt supplementation and fluid intake leading to an adequate volume expansion can be verified by checking the 24-hour urinary sodium content: patients who excrete less than 170 mmol can be treated with 1 to 2 g of supplemental sodium three times a day.38

References
  1. Sjostrand T. The regulation of the blood distribution in man. Acta Physiol Scand 1952; 26:312327.
  2. Ziegler MG, Lake CR, Kopin IJ. The sympathetic-nervous-system defect in primary orthostatic hypotension. N Engl J Med 1977; 296:293297.
  3. The Consensus Committee of the American Autonomic Society and the American Academy of Neurology. Consensus statement on the definition of orthostatic hypotension, pure autonomic failure, and multiple system atrophy. Neurology 1996; 46:1470.
  4. Gehrking JA, Hines SM, Benrud-Larson LM, Opher-Gehrking TL, Low PA. What is the minimum duration of head-up tilt necessary to detect orthostatic hypotension? Clin Auton Res 2005; 15:7175.
  5. Gibbons CH, Freeman R. Delayed orthostatic hypotension: a frequent cause of orthostatic intolerance. Neurology 2006; 67:2832.
  6. Poon IO, Braun U. High prevalence of orthostatic hypotension and its correlation with potentially causative medications among elderly veterans. J Clin Pharm Ther 2005; 30:173178.
  7. Weiss A, Grossman E, Beloosesky Y, Grinblat J. Orthostatic hypotension in acute geriatric ward: is it a consistent finding? Arch Intern Med 2002; 162:23692374.
  8. Mader SL, Josephson KR, Rubenstein LZ. Low prevalence of postural hypotension among community-dwelling elderly. JAMA 1987; 258:15111514.
  9. Sandroni P, Ahlskog JE, Fealey RD, Low PA. Autonomic involvement in extrapyramidal and cerebellar disorders. Clin Auton Res 1991; 1:147155.
  10. Saito Y, Matsuoka Y, Takahashi A, Ohno Y. Survival of patients with multiple system atrophy. Intern Med 1994; 33:321325.
  11. Davis BR, Langford HG, Blaufox MD, Curb JD, Polk BF, Shulman NB. The association of postural changes in systolic blood pressure and mortality in persons with hypertension: the Hypertension Detection and Follow-up Program experience. Circulation 1987; 75:340346.
  12. Luukinen H, Koski K, Laippala P, Kivelä SL. Prognosis of diastolic and systolic orthostatic hypotension in older persons. Arch Intern Med 1999; 159:273280.
  13. Hoeldtke RD, Streeten DH. Treatment of orthostatic hypotension with erythropoietin. N Engl J Med 1993; 329:611615.
  14. Denq JC, Opfer-Gehrking TL, Giuliani M, Felten J, Convertino VA, Low PA. Efficacy of compression of different capacitance beds in the amelioration of orthostatic hypotension. Clin Auton Res 1997; 7:321326.
  15. Sjostrand T. Volume and distribution of blood and their significance in regulating the circulation. Physiol Rev 1953; 33:202228.
  16. Rowell LB, Detry JM, Blackmon JR, Wyss C. Importance of the splanchnic vascular bed in human blood pressure regulation. J Appl Physiol 1972; 32:213220.
  17. Smit AA, Wieling W, Fujimura J, et al. Use of lower abdominal compression to combat orthostatic hypotension in patients with autonomic dysfunction. Clin Auton Res 2004; 14:167175.
  18. Jordan J, Shannon JR, Black BK, et al. The pressor response to water drinking in humans: a sympathetic reflex? Circulation 2000; 101:504509.
  19. Shannon JR, Diedrich A, Biaggioni I, et al. Water drinking as a treatment for orthostatic syndromes. Am J Med 2002; 112:355360.
  20. Jordan J, Shannon JR, Grogan E, Biaggioni I, Robertson D. A potent pressor response elicited by drinking water [letter]. Lancet 1999; 353:723.
  21. MacLean AR, Allen EV. Orthostatic hypotension and orthostatic tachycardia: treatment with the “head-up” bed. JAMA 1940; 115:21622167.
  22. Ector H, Reybrouck T, Heidbüchel H, Gewillig M, Van de Werf F. Tilt training: a new treatment for recurrent neurocardiogenic syncope and severe orthostatic intolerance. Pacing Clin Electrophysiol 1998; 21:193196.
  23. Bouvette CM, McPhee BR, Opfer-Gehrking TL, Low PA. Role of physical countermaneuvers in the management of orthostatic hypotension: efficacy and biofeedback augmentation. Mayo Clin Proc 1996; 71:847853.
  24. Ten Harkel AD, van Lieshout JJ, Wieling W. Effects of leg muscle pumping and tensing on orthostatic arterial pressure: a study in normal subjects and patients with autonomic failure. Clin Sci (Lond) 1994; 87:553558.
  25. Low PA, Gilden JL, Freeman R, Sheng KN, McElligott MA. Efficacy of midodrine vs placebo in neurogenic orthostatic hypotension. A randomized, double-blind multicenter study. Midodrine Study Group. JAMA 1997; 277:10461051.
  26. Jankovic J, Gilden JL, Hiner BC, et al. Neurogenic orthostatic hypotension: a double-blind, placebo-controlled study with midodrine. Am J Med 1993; 95:3848.
  27. Fouad-Tarazi FM, Okabe M, Goren H. Alpha sympathomimetic treatment of autonomic insufficiency with orthostatic hypotension. Am J Med 1995; 99:604610.
  28. Maule S, Papotti G, Naso D, Magnino C, Testa E, Veglio F. Orthostatic hypotension: evaluation and treatment. Cardiovasc Hematol Disord Drug Targets 2007; 7:6370.
  29. Axelrod FB, Goldberg JD, Rolnitzky L, et al. Fludrocortisone in patients with familial dysautonomia—assessing effect on clinical parameters and gene expression. Clin Auton Res 2005; 15:284291.
  30. Chobanian AV, Volicer L, Tifft CP, Gavras H, Liang CS, Faxon D. Mineralocorticoid-induced hypertension in patients with orthostatic hypotension. N Engl J Med 1979; 301:6873.
  31. van Lieshout JJ, Ten Harkel AD, Wieling W. Fludrocortisone and sleeping in the head-up position limit the postural decrease in cardiac output in autonomic failure. Clin Auton Res 2000; 10:3542.
  32. Hussain RM, McIntosh SJ, Lawson J, Kenny RA. Fludrocortisone in the treatment of hypotensive disorders in the elderly. Heart 1996; 76:507509.
  33. Singer W, Opfer-Gehrking TL, McPhee BR, Hilz MJ, Bharucha AE, Low PA. Acetylcholinesterase inhibition: a novel approach in the treatment of neurogenic orthostatic hypotension. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 2003; 74:12941298.
  34. Singer W, Sandroni P, Opfer-Gehrking TL, et al. Pyridostigmine treatment trial in neurogenic orthostatic hypotension. Arch Neurol 2006; 63:513518.
  35. Lipsitz LA, Pluchino FC, Wei JY, Rowe JW. Syncope in institutionalized elderly: the impact of multiple pathological conditions and situational stress. J Chronic Dis 1986; 39:619630.
  36. Mtinangi BL, Hainsworth R. Effects of moderate exercise training on plasma volume, baroreceptor sensitivity and orthostatic tolerance in healthy subjects. Exp Physiol 1999; 84:121130.
  37. Bonnin P, Ben Driss A, Benessiano J, Maillet A, Pavy le Traon A, Levy BI. Enhanced flow-dependent vasodilatation after bed rest, a possible mechanism for orthostatic intolerance in humans. Eur J Appl Physiol 2001; 85:420426.
  38. El-Sayed H, Hainsworth R. Salt supplementation increases plasma volume and orthostatic tolerance in patients with unexplained syncope. Heart 1996; 75:134140.
References
  1. Sjostrand T. The regulation of the blood distribution in man. Acta Physiol Scand 1952; 26:312327.
  2. Ziegler MG, Lake CR, Kopin IJ. The sympathetic-nervous-system defect in primary orthostatic hypotension. N Engl J Med 1977; 296:293297.
  3. The Consensus Committee of the American Autonomic Society and the American Academy of Neurology. Consensus statement on the definition of orthostatic hypotension, pure autonomic failure, and multiple system atrophy. Neurology 1996; 46:1470.
  4. Gehrking JA, Hines SM, Benrud-Larson LM, Opher-Gehrking TL, Low PA. What is the minimum duration of head-up tilt necessary to detect orthostatic hypotension? Clin Auton Res 2005; 15:7175.
  5. Gibbons CH, Freeman R. Delayed orthostatic hypotension: a frequent cause of orthostatic intolerance. Neurology 2006; 67:2832.
  6. Poon IO, Braun U. High prevalence of orthostatic hypotension and its correlation with potentially causative medications among elderly veterans. J Clin Pharm Ther 2005; 30:173178.
  7. Weiss A, Grossman E, Beloosesky Y, Grinblat J. Orthostatic hypotension in acute geriatric ward: is it a consistent finding? Arch Intern Med 2002; 162:23692374.
  8. Mader SL, Josephson KR, Rubenstein LZ. Low prevalence of postural hypotension among community-dwelling elderly. JAMA 1987; 258:15111514.
  9. Sandroni P, Ahlskog JE, Fealey RD, Low PA. Autonomic involvement in extrapyramidal and cerebellar disorders. Clin Auton Res 1991; 1:147155.
  10. Saito Y, Matsuoka Y, Takahashi A, Ohno Y. Survival of patients with multiple system atrophy. Intern Med 1994; 33:321325.
  11. Davis BR, Langford HG, Blaufox MD, Curb JD, Polk BF, Shulman NB. The association of postural changes in systolic blood pressure and mortality in persons with hypertension: the Hypertension Detection and Follow-up Program experience. Circulation 1987; 75:340346.
  12. Luukinen H, Koski K, Laippala P, Kivelä SL. Prognosis of diastolic and systolic orthostatic hypotension in older persons. Arch Intern Med 1999; 159:273280.
  13. Hoeldtke RD, Streeten DH. Treatment of orthostatic hypotension with erythropoietin. N Engl J Med 1993; 329:611615.
  14. Denq JC, Opfer-Gehrking TL, Giuliani M, Felten J, Convertino VA, Low PA. Efficacy of compression of different capacitance beds in the amelioration of orthostatic hypotension. Clin Auton Res 1997; 7:321326.
  15. Sjostrand T. Volume and distribution of blood and their significance in regulating the circulation. Physiol Rev 1953; 33:202228.
  16. Rowell LB, Detry JM, Blackmon JR, Wyss C. Importance of the splanchnic vascular bed in human blood pressure regulation. J Appl Physiol 1972; 32:213220.
  17. Smit AA, Wieling W, Fujimura J, et al. Use of lower abdominal compression to combat orthostatic hypotension in patients with autonomic dysfunction. Clin Auton Res 2004; 14:167175.
  18. Jordan J, Shannon JR, Black BK, et al. The pressor response to water drinking in humans: a sympathetic reflex? Circulation 2000; 101:504509.
  19. Shannon JR, Diedrich A, Biaggioni I, et al. Water drinking as a treatment for orthostatic syndromes. Am J Med 2002; 112:355360.
  20. Jordan J, Shannon JR, Grogan E, Biaggioni I, Robertson D. A potent pressor response elicited by drinking water [letter]. Lancet 1999; 353:723.
  21. MacLean AR, Allen EV. Orthostatic hypotension and orthostatic tachycardia: treatment with the “head-up” bed. JAMA 1940; 115:21622167.
  22. Ector H, Reybrouck T, Heidbüchel H, Gewillig M, Van de Werf F. Tilt training: a new treatment for recurrent neurocardiogenic syncope and severe orthostatic intolerance. Pacing Clin Electrophysiol 1998; 21:193196.
  23. Bouvette CM, McPhee BR, Opfer-Gehrking TL, Low PA. Role of physical countermaneuvers in the management of orthostatic hypotension: efficacy and biofeedback augmentation. Mayo Clin Proc 1996; 71:847853.
  24. Ten Harkel AD, van Lieshout JJ, Wieling W. Effects of leg muscle pumping and tensing on orthostatic arterial pressure: a study in normal subjects and patients with autonomic failure. Clin Sci (Lond) 1994; 87:553558.
  25. Low PA, Gilden JL, Freeman R, Sheng KN, McElligott MA. Efficacy of midodrine vs placebo in neurogenic orthostatic hypotension. A randomized, double-blind multicenter study. Midodrine Study Group. JAMA 1997; 277:10461051.
  26. Jankovic J, Gilden JL, Hiner BC, et al. Neurogenic orthostatic hypotension: a double-blind, placebo-controlled study with midodrine. Am J Med 1993; 95:3848.
  27. Fouad-Tarazi FM, Okabe M, Goren H. Alpha sympathomimetic treatment of autonomic insufficiency with orthostatic hypotension. Am J Med 1995; 99:604610.
  28. Maule S, Papotti G, Naso D, Magnino C, Testa E, Veglio F. Orthostatic hypotension: evaluation and treatment. Cardiovasc Hematol Disord Drug Targets 2007; 7:6370.
  29. Axelrod FB, Goldberg JD, Rolnitzky L, et al. Fludrocortisone in patients with familial dysautonomia—assessing effect on clinical parameters and gene expression. Clin Auton Res 2005; 15:284291.
  30. Chobanian AV, Volicer L, Tifft CP, Gavras H, Liang CS, Faxon D. Mineralocorticoid-induced hypertension in patients with orthostatic hypotension. N Engl J Med 1979; 301:6873.
  31. van Lieshout JJ, Ten Harkel AD, Wieling W. Fludrocortisone and sleeping in the head-up position limit the postural decrease in cardiac output in autonomic failure. Clin Auton Res 2000; 10:3542.
  32. Hussain RM, McIntosh SJ, Lawson J, Kenny RA. Fludrocortisone in the treatment of hypotensive disorders in the elderly. Heart 1996; 76:507509.
  33. Singer W, Opfer-Gehrking TL, McPhee BR, Hilz MJ, Bharucha AE, Low PA. Acetylcholinesterase inhibition: a novel approach in the treatment of neurogenic orthostatic hypotension. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 2003; 74:12941298.
  34. Singer W, Sandroni P, Opfer-Gehrking TL, et al. Pyridostigmine treatment trial in neurogenic orthostatic hypotension. Arch Neurol 2006; 63:513518.
  35. Lipsitz LA, Pluchino FC, Wei JY, Rowe JW. Syncope in institutionalized elderly: the impact of multiple pathological conditions and situational stress. J Chronic Dis 1986; 39:619630.
  36. Mtinangi BL, Hainsworth R. Effects of moderate exercise training on plasma volume, baroreceptor sensitivity and orthostatic tolerance in healthy subjects. Exp Physiol 1999; 84:121130.
  37. Bonnin P, Ben Driss A, Benessiano J, Maillet A, Pavy le Traon A, Levy BI. Enhanced flow-dependent vasodilatation after bed rest, a possible mechanism for orthostatic intolerance in humans. Eur J Appl Physiol 2001; 85:420426.
  38. El-Sayed H, Hainsworth R. Salt supplementation increases plasma volume and orthostatic tolerance in patients with unexplained syncope. Heart 1996; 75:134140.
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KEY POINTS

  • Treatment is directed at increasing blood volume, decreasing venous pooling, and increasing vasoconstriction while minimizing supine hypertension.
  • Patient education and nondrug strategies alone can be effective in mild cases. Examples: consuming extra fluids and salt, wearing an abdominal binder, drinking boluses of water, raising the head of the bed, and performing countermaneuvers and physical activity.
  • Moderate and severe cases require additional drug treatment. Pyridostigmine (Mestinon) is helpful in moderate cases. Fludrocortisone (Florinef) and midodrine (ProAmatine) are indicated in more severe cases.
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A rare complication of infective endocarditis

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A rare complication of infective endocarditis

An 85-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of dyspnea, dizziness, generalized weakness, nausea, and diaphoresis. Her medical history included hypertension, end-stage renal disease with hemodialysis, and atrial fibrillation.

She had an arteriovenous fistula for dialysis access in her right upper arm, with erythema around the site.

Her creatine kinase level was 1,434 U/L (normal range 30–220), creatine kinase MB 143.4 ng/mL (0.0–8.8 ng/mL), and troponin T 0.1 ng/mL (0.0–0.1 ng/mL). She had ST elevation in leads I and aVL. She was taken for emergency cardiac catheterization.

Figure 1. Diagnostic catheterization shows 99% embolic stenosis (arrow) of the first diagonal branch of the left anterior descending artery.
Angiography showed 99% stenosis of the first diagonal branch of the left anterior descending (LAD) artery (Figure 1). No evidence of underlying atherosclerotic disease was seen, suggesting that the obstruction was due to embolism rather than to in situ thrombosis occurring after plaque rupture. The thrombus was aspirated from the vessel. Stenting was not needed, as there was no residual stenosis (Figure 2).

Figure 2. First diagonal branch of the left anterior descending artery after aspiration of the embolus shows no atherosclerosis (arrow).
Transesophageal echocardiography, done to find the source of the embolus, showed a small, mobile echo-density on the anterior mitral valve leaflet, with no apparent thrombus or patent foramen ovale.

Three blood cultures were drawn on the day of cardiac catheterization. Two grew gram-positive organisms: one grew coagulase-negative Staphylococcus, and the other grew gram-positive bacilli (anaerobic, non-sporeforming). On the basis of these findings, intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) was started. Seventy-two hours later, one of two blood cultures again grew coagulase-negative Staphylococcus. Five days after the start of antibiotic treatment, blood cultures were negative, and the patient received intravenous vancomycin for 4 weeks (from the time the blood cultures became negative) for native mitral valve endocarditis.

EMBOLISM AND ENDOCARDITIS: KEY FEATURES

An embolic event occurs in 22% to 50% of cases of infective endocarditis and can involve the lungs, bowel, other organs, or extremities.1 The incidence of embolization of the coronary arteries in patients with infective endocarditis is unknown, but in one case series2 it occurred in 8 (7.5%) of 107 cases. The most common site of coronary embolism is the LAD.3

Myocardial infarction is a rare complication of coronary artery embolization.2 It was reported in 17 (2.9%) of 586 consecutive patients with infective endocarditis.4 In patients with infectious endocarditis complicated by myocardial infarction, the death rate was nearly double that seen in patients with infective endocarditis without myocardial infarction (64% vs 33%).4

TREATMENT

The best treatment for this complication of infective endocarditis is not known, as it has not been well studied. The high death rate in these patients makes restoration of coronary perfusion essential.

Thrombolytics are usually avoided in patients with septic embolization because of concerns about concurrent intracerebral mycotic aneurysms and the risk of hemorrhage.

Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty carries a risk of distal mobilization of emboli, development of mycotic aneurysm at the balloon dilation site, or reocclusion due to a mobile embolus.5 Stent placement may improve vessel patency but carries a theoretic risk of infection in bacteremic patients. Percutaneous embolectomy has also been used either prior to or instead of stent placement.6 Surgical options include embolectomy in patients who may require surgery, and coronary artery bypass grafting for patients with chronic embolization.7

References
  1. Baddour LM, Wilson WR, Bayer AS, et al; Committee on Rheumatic Fever, Endocarditis, and Kawasaki Disease; Council on Cardiovascular Disease in the Young; Councils on Clinical Cardiology, Stroke, and Cardiovascular Surgery and Anesthesia; American Heart Association; Infectious Diseases Society of America. Infective endocarditis: diagnosis, antimicrobial therapy, and management of complications: a statement for healthcare professionals from the Committee on Rheumatic Fever, Endocarditis, and Kawasaki Disease, Council on Cardiovascular Disease in the Young, and the Councils on Clinical Cardiology, Stroke, and Cardiovascular Surgery and Anesthesia, American Heart Association: endorsed by the Infectious Diseases Society of America. Circulation 2005; 111:e394e434.
  2. Garvey GJ, Neu HC. Infective endocarditis—an evolving disease. A review of endocarditis at Columbia-Presbyterian Medical Center, 1968–1973. Medicine (Baltimore) 1978; 57:105127.
  3. Glazier JJ. Interventional treatment of septic coronary embolism: sailing into uncharted and dangerous waters. J Interv Cardiol 2002; 15:305307.
  4. Manzano MC, Vilacosta I, San Roman JA, et al. Acute cornary syndrome in infective endocarditis. Rev Esp Cardiol 2007; 60:2431.
  5. Khan F, Khakoo R, Failinger C. Managing embolic myocardial infarction in infective endocarditis: current options. J Infect 2005; 51:e101105.
  6. Glazier JJ, McGinnity JG, Spears JR. Coronary embolism complicating aortic valve endocarditis: treatment with placement of an intracoronary stent. Clin Cardiol 1997; 20:885888.
  7. Baek MJ, Kim HK, Yu CW, Na CY. Surgery with surgical embolectomy for mitral valve endocarditis complicated by septic coronary embolism. Eur J Cardiothorac Surg 2008; 33:116118.
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Address: Megan DeKam, DO, Department of Internal Medicine, G10, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Address: Megan DeKam, DO, Department of Internal Medicine, G10, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Address: Megan DeKam, DO, Department of Internal Medicine, G10, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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An 85-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of dyspnea, dizziness, generalized weakness, nausea, and diaphoresis. Her medical history included hypertension, end-stage renal disease with hemodialysis, and atrial fibrillation.

She had an arteriovenous fistula for dialysis access in her right upper arm, with erythema around the site.

Her creatine kinase level was 1,434 U/L (normal range 30–220), creatine kinase MB 143.4 ng/mL (0.0–8.8 ng/mL), and troponin T 0.1 ng/mL (0.0–0.1 ng/mL). She had ST elevation in leads I and aVL. She was taken for emergency cardiac catheterization.

Figure 1. Diagnostic catheterization shows 99% embolic stenosis (arrow) of the first diagonal branch of the left anterior descending artery.
Angiography showed 99% stenosis of the first diagonal branch of the left anterior descending (LAD) artery (Figure 1). No evidence of underlying atherosclerotic disease was seen, suggesting that the obstruction was due to embolism rather than to in situ thrombosis occurring after plaque rupture. The thrombus was aspirated from the vessel. Stenting was not needed, as there was no residual stenosis (Figure 2).

Figure 2. First diagonal branch of the left anterior descending artery after aspiration of the embolus shows no atherosclerosis (arrow).
Transesophageal echocardiography, done to find the source of the embolus, showed a small, mobile echo-density on the anterior mitral valve leaflet, with no apparent thrombus or patent foramen ovale.

Three blood cultures were drawn on the day of cardiac catheterization. Two grew gram-positive organisms: one grew coagulase-negative Staphylococcus, and the other grew gram-positive bacilli (anaerobic, non-sporeforming). On the basis of these findings, intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) was started. Seventy-two hours later, one of two blood cultures again grew coagulase-negative Staphylococcus. Five days after the start of antibiotic treatment, blood cultures were negative, and the patient received intravenous vancomycin for 4 weeks (from the time the blood cultures became negative) for native mitral valve endocarditis.

EMBOLISM AND ENDOCARDITIS: KEY FEATURES

An embolic event occurs in 22% to 50% of cases of infective endocarditis and can involve the lungs, bowel, other organs, or extremities.1 The incidence of embolization of the coronary arteries in patients with infective endocarditis is unknown, but in one case series2 it occurred in 8 (7.5%) of 107 cases. The most common site of coronary embolism is the LAD.3

Myocardial infarction is a rare complication of coronary artery embolization.2 It was reported in 17 (2.9%) of 586 consecutive patients with infective endocarditis.4 In patients with infectious endocarditis complicated by myocardial infarction, the death rate was nearly double that seen in patients with infective endocarditis without myocardial infarction (64% vs 33%).4

TREATMENT

The best treatment for this complication of infective endocarditis is not known, as it has not been well studied. The high death rate in these patients makes restoration of coronary perfusion essential.

Thrombolytics are usually avoided in patients with septic embolization because of concerns about concurrent intracerebral mycotic aneurysms and the risk of hemorrhage.

Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty carries a risk of distal mobilization of emboli, development of mycotic aneurysm at the balloon dilation site, or reocclusion due to a mobile embolus.5 Stent placement may improve vessel patency but carries a theoretic risk of infection in bacteremic patients. Percutaneous embolectomy has also been used either prior to or instead of stent placement.6 Surgical options include embolectomy in patients who may require surgery, and coronary artery bypass grafting for patients with chronic embolization.7

An 85-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of dyspnea, dizziness, generalized weakness, nausea, and diaphoresis. Her medical history included hypertension, end-stage renal disease with hemodialysis, and atrial fibrillation.

She had an arteriovenous fistula for dialysis access in her right upper arm, with erythema around the site.

Her creatine kinase level was 1,434 U/L (normal range 30–220), creatine kinase MB 143.4 ng/mL (0.0–8.8 ng/mL), and troponin T 0.1 ng/mL (0.0–0.1 ng/mL). She had ST elevation in leads I and aVL. She was taken for emergency cardiac catheterization.

Figure 1. Diagnostic catheterization shows 99% embolic stenosis (arrow) of the first diagonal branch of the left anterior descending artery.
Angiography showed 99% stenosis of the first diagonal branch of the left anterior descending (LAD) artery (Figure 1). No evidence of underlying atherosclerotic disease was seen, suggesting that the obstruction was due to embolism rather than to in situ thrombosis occurring after plaque rupture. The thrombus was aspirated from the vessel. Stenting was not needed, as there was no residual stenosis (Figure 2).

Figure 2. First diagonal branch of the left anterior descending artery after aspiration of the embolus shows no atherosclerosis (arrow).
Transesophageal echocardiography, done to find the source of the embolus, showed a small, mobile echo-density on the anterior mitral valve leaflet, with no apparent thrombus or patent foramen ovale.

Three blood cultures were drawn on the day of cardiac catheterization. Two grew gram-positive organisms: one grew coagulase-negative Staphylococcus, and the other grew gram-positive bacilli (anaerobic, non-sporeforming). On the basis of these findings, intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) was started. Seventy-two hours later, one of two blood cultures again grew coagulase-negative Staphylococcus. Five days after the start of antibiotic treatment, blood cultures were negative, and the patient received intravenous vancomycin for 4 weeks (from the time the blood cultures became negative) for native mitral valve endocarditis.

EMBOLISM AND ENDOCARDITIS: KEY FEATURES

An embolic event occurs in 22% to 50% of cases of infective endocarditis and can involve the lungs, bowel, other organs, or extremities.1 The incidence of embolization of the coronary arteries in patients with infective endocarditis is unknown, but in one case series2 it occurred in 8 (7.5%) of 107 cases. The most common site of coronary embolism is the LAD.3

Myocardial infarction is a rare complication of coronary artery embolization.2 It was reported in 17 (2.9%) of 586 consecutive patients with infective endocarditis.4 In patients with infectious endocarditis complicated by myocardial infarction, the death rate was nearly double that seen in patients with infective endocarditis without myocardial infarction (64% vs 33%).4

TREATMENT

The best treatment for this complication of infective endocarditis is not known, as it has not been well studied. The high death rate in these patients makes restoration of coronary perfusion essential.

Thrombolytics are usually avoided in patients with septic embolization because of concerns about concurrent intracerebral mycotic aneurysms and the risk of hemorrhage.

Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty carries a risk of distal mobilization of emboli, development of mycotic aneurysm at the balloon dilation site, or reocclusion due to a mobile embolus.5 Stent placement may improve vessel patency but carries a theoretic risk of infection in bacteremic patients. Percutaneous embolectomy has also been used either prior to or instead of stent placement.6 Surgical options include embolectomy in patients who may require surgery, and coronary artery bypass grafting for patients with chronic embolization.7

References
  1. Baddour LM, Wilson WR, Bayer AS, et al; Committee on Rheumatic Fever, Endocarditis, and Kawasaki Disease; Council on Cardiovascular Disease in the Young; Councils on Clinical Cardiology, Stroke, and Cardiovascular Surgery and Anesthesia; American Heart Association; Infectious Diseases Society of America. Infective endocarditis: diagnosis, antimicrobial therapy, and management of complications: a statement for healthcare professionals from the Committee on Rheumatic Fever, Endocarditis, and Kawasaki Disease, Council on Cardiovascular Disease in the Young, and the Councils on Clinical Cardiology, Stroke, and Cardiovascular Surgery and Anesthesia, American Heart Association: endorsed by the Infectious Diseases Society of America. Circulation 2005; 111:e394e434.
  2. Garvey GJ, Neu HC. Infective endocarditis—an evolving disease. A review of endocarditis at Columbia-Presbyterian Medical Center, 1968–1973. Medicine (Baltimore) 1978; 57:105127.
  3. Glazier JJ. Interventional treatment of septic coronary embolism: sailing into uncharted and dangerous waters. J Interv Cardiol 2002; 15:305307.
  4. Manzano MC, Vilacosta I, San Roman JA, et al. Acute cornary syndrome in infective endocarditis. Rev Esp Cardiol 2007; 60:2431.
  5. Khan F, Khakoo R, Failinger C. Managing embolic myocardial infarction in infective endocarditis: current options. J Infect 2005; 51:e101105.
  6. Glazier JJ, McGinnity JG, Spears JR. Coronary embolism complicating aortic valve endocarditis: treatment with placement of an intracoronary stent. Clin Cardiol 1997; 20:885888.
  7. Baek MJ, Kim HK, Yu CW, Na CY. Surgery with surgical embolectomy for mitral valve endocarditis complicated by septic coronary embolism. Eur J Cardiothorac Surg 2008; 33:116118.
References
  1. Baddour LM, Wilson WR, Bayer AS, et al; Committee on Rheumatic Fever, Endocarditis, and Kawasaki Disease; Council on Cardiovascular Disease in the Young; Councils on Clinical Cardiology, Stroke, and Cardiovascular Surgery and Anesthesia; American Heart Association; Infectious Diseases Society of America. Infective endocarditis: diagnosis, antimicrobial therapy, and management of complications: a statement for healthcare professionals from the Committee on Rheumatic Fever, Endocarditis, and Kawasaki Disease, Council on Cardiovascular Disease in the Young, and the Councils on Clinical Cardiology, Stroke, and Cardiovascular Surgery and Anesthesia, American Heart Association: endorsed by the Infectious Diseases Society of America. Circulation 2005; 111:e394e434.
  2. Garvey GJ, Neu HC. Infective endocarditis—an evolving disease. A review of endocarditis at Columbia-Presbyterian Medical Center, 1968–1973. Medicine (Baltimore) 1978; 57:105127.
  3. Glazier JJ. Interventional treatment of septic coronary embolism: sailing into uncharted and dangerous waters. J Interv Cardiol 2002; 15:305307.
  4. Manzano MC, Vilacosta I, San Roman JA, et al. Acute cornary syndrome in infective endocarditis. Rev Esp Cardiol 2007; 60:2431.
  5. Khan F, Khakoo R, Failinger C. Managing embolic myocardial infarction in infective endocarditis: current options. J Infect 2005; 51:e101105.
  6. Glazier JJ, McGinnity JG, Spears JR. Coronary embolism complicating aortic valve endocarditis: treatment with placement of an intracoronary stent. Clin Cardiol 1997; 20:885888.
  7. Baek MJ, Kim HK, Yu CW, Na CY. Surgery with surgical embolectomy for mitral valve endocarditis complicated by septic coronary embolism. Eur J Cardiothorac Surg 2008; 33:116118.
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A rash on the legs and palms

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Figure 1.
Figure 2.
A 39-year-old woman has had a rash on her legs and palms (Figures 1 and 2) for 8 weeks. She has been treated with a midpotency topical steroid, the high-potency topical corticosteroid fluocinonide (Vanos), an oral prednisone taper over 12 days, and loratadine (Claritin), with no improvement. Intermittently, the rash is moderately itchy. Biopsy reveals a psoriasiform hyperplasia with alternating orthokeratosis and parakeratosis.

Q: Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Psoriasis
  • Pityriasis rubra pilaris
  • Dyshidrotic eczema
  • Keratoderma
  • Contact dermatitis

A: The diagnosis is pityriasis rubra pilaris, a rare condition with a prevalence of 1 in 5,000 to 50,000 new dermatology patient visits.1 It is a papulosquamous disorder that presents with areas of hyperkeratosis on an erythematous base. Large red plaques often coalesce, leaving areas of uninvolved skin (“islands of sparing”). The palms and soles often reveal a distinctive orange-red waxy keratoderma.1

Clinically, pityriasis rubra pilaris can be difficult to differentiate from psoriasis, and it can progress to disabling palmoplantar keratoderma and erythroderma.

BASIS OF THE DIAGNOSIS

The diagnosis is based on characteristic findings supported by classic features on skin biopsy. Microscopic study shows a psoriasiform dermatitis with alternating vertical and horizontal orthokeratosis and parakeratosis (the “checkerboard pattern”).

Although an underlying dysfunction in vitamin A metabolism has been suggested, the exact cause and pathogenesis of pityriasis rubra pilaris are not known.

TREATMENT

Treatment of pityriasis rubra pilaris can be difficult, as no one single treatment works for all patients. Systemic retinoids, methotrexate, phototherapy, and cyclosporine are commonly used. Recent reports have shown the effectiveness of infliximab (Remicade), a chimeric monoclonal antibody that binds to soluble and membrane-bound forms of tumor necrosis factor alpha.2,3

In our patient, after a 2-month course of acitretin (Soriatane) failed, three treatments with infliximab—5 mg/kg at baseline, at 2 weeks, and at 6 weeks—led to complete resolution of the condition.

References
  1. Selvaag E, Haedersdal M, Thomsen K. Pityriasis rubra pilaris: a retrospective study of 12 patients. J Eur Acad Dermatol Venereol 2000; 14:514515.
  2. Liao WC, Mutasim DF. Infliximab for the treatment of adult-onset pityriasis rubra pilaris. Arch Dermatol 2005; 141:423425.
  3. Müller H, Gattringer C, Zelger B, Höpfl R, Eisendle K. Infliximab monotherapy as first-line treatment for adultonset pityriasis rubra pilaris: case report and review of the literature on biologic therapy. J Am Acad Dermatol 2008; 59( suppl 5):S65S70.
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Address: Joshua M. Berlin, MD, 10301 Hagen Ranch Road, Suite 930, Boynton Beach, FL 33437; e-mail [email protected]

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Address: Joshua M. Berlin, MD, 10301 Hagen Ranch Road, Suite 930, Boynton Beach, FL 33437; e-mail [email protected]

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Sandra M. Goldberg, MMS, PA-C
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Address: Joshua M. Berlin, MD, 10301 Hagen Ranch Road, Suite 930, Boynton Beach, FL 33437; e-mail [email protected]

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Figure 1.
Figure 2.
A 39-year-old woman has had a rash on her legs and palms (Figures 1 and 2) for 8 weeks. She has been treated with a midpotency topical steroid, the high-potency topical corticosteroid fluocinonide (Vanos), an oral prednisone taper over 12 days, and loratadine (Claritin), with no improvement. Intermittently, the rash is moderately itchy. Biopsy reveals a psoriasiform hyperplasia with alternating orthokeratosis and parakeratosis.

Q: Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Psoriasis
  • Pityriasis rubra pilaris
  • Dyshidrotic eczema
  • Keratoderma
  • Contact dermatitis

A: The diagnosis is pityriasis rubra pilaris, a rare condition with a prevalence of 1 in 5,000 to 50,000 new dermatology patient visits.1 It is a papulosquamous disorder that presents with areas of hyperkeratosis on an erythematous base. Large red plaques often coalesce, leaving areas of uninvolved skin (“islands of sparing”). The palms and soles often reveal a distinctive orange-red waxy keratoderma.1

Clinically, pityriasis rubra pilaris can be difficult to differentiate from psoriasis, and it can progress to disabling palmoplantar keratoderma and erythroderma.

BASIS OF THE DIAGNOSIS

The diagnosis is based on characteristic findings supported by classic features on skin biopsy. Microscopic study shows a psoriasiform dermatitis with alternating vertical and horizontal orthokeratosis and parakeratosis (the “checkerboard pattern”).

Although an underlying dysfunction in vitamin A metabolism has been suggested, the exact cause and pathogenesis of pityriasis rubra pilaris are not known.

TREATMENT

Treatment of pityriasis rubra pilaris can be difficult, as no one single treatment works for all patients. Systemic retinoids, methotrexate, phototherapy, and cyclosporine are commonly used. Recent reports have shown the effectiveness of infliximab (Remicade), a chimeric monoclonal antibody that binds to soluble and membrane-bound forms of tumor necrosis factor alpha.2,3

In our patient, after a 2-month course of acitretin (Soriatane) failed, three treatments with infliximab—5 mg/kg at baseline, at 2 weeks, and at 6 weeks—led to complete resolution of the condition.

Figure 1.
Figure 2.
A 39-year-old woman has had a rash on her legs and palms (Figures 1 and 2) for 8 weeks. She has been treated with a midpotency topical steroid, the high-potency topical corticosteroid fluocinonide (Vanos), an oral prednisone taper over 12 days, and loratadine (Claritin), with no improvement. Intermittently, the rash is moderately itchy. Biopsy reveals a psoriasiform hyperplasia with alternating orthokeratosis and parakeratosis.

Q: Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Psoriasis
  • Pityriasis rubra pilaris
  • Dyshidrotic eczema
  • Keratoderma
  • Contact dermatitis

A: The diagnosis is pityriasis rubra pilaris, a rare condition with a prevalence of 1 in 5,000 to 50,000 new dermatology patient visits.1 It is a papulosquamous disorder that presents with areas of hyperkeratosis on an erythematous base. Large red plaques often coalesce, leaving areas of uninvolved skin (“islands of sparing”). The palms and soles often reveal a distinctive orange-red waxy keratoderma.1

Clinically, pityriasis rubra pilaris can be difficult to differentiate from psoriasis, and it can progress to disabling palmoplantar keratoderma and erythroderma.

BASIS OF THE DIAGNOSIS

The diagnosis is based on characteristic findings supported by classic features on skin biopsy. Microscopic study shows a psoriasiform dermatitis with alternating vertical and horizontal orthokeratosis and parakeratosis (the “checkerboard pattern”).

Although an underlying dysfunction in vitamin A metabolism has been suggested, the exact cause and pathogenesis of pityriasis rubra pilaris are not known.

TREATMENT

Treatment of pityriasis rubra pilaris can be difficult, as no one single treatment works for all patients. Systemic retinoids, methotrexate, phototherapy, and cyclosporine are commonly used. Recent reports have shown the effectiveness of infliximab (Remicade), a chimeric monoclonal antibody that binds to soluble and membrane-bound forms of tumor necrosis factor alpha.2,3

In our patient, after a 2-month course of acitretin (Soriatane) failed, three treatments with infliximab—5 mg/kg at baseline, at 2 weeks, and at 6 weeks—led to complete resolution of the condition.

References
  1. Selvaag E, Haedersdal M, Thomsen K. Pityriasis rubra pilaris: a retrospective study of 12 patients. J Eur Acad Dermatol Venereol 2000; 14:514515.
  2. Liao WC, Mutasim DF. Infliximab for the treatment of adult-onset pityriasis rubra pilaris. Arch Dermatol 2005; 141:423425.
  3. Müller H, Gattringer C, Zelger B, Höpfl R, Eisendle K. Infliximab monotherapy as first-line treatment for adultonset pityriasis rubra pilaris: case report and review of the literature on biologic therapy. J Am Acad Dermatol 2008; 59( suppl 5):S65S70.
References
  1. Selvaag E, Haedersdal M, Thomsen K. Pityriasis rubra pilaris: a retrospective study of 12 patients. J Eur Acad Dermatol Venereol 2000; 14:514515.
  2. Liao WC, Mutasim DF. Infliximab for the treatment of adult-onset pityriasis rubra pilaris. Arch Dermatol 2005; 141:423425.
  3. Müller H, Gattringer C, Zelger B, Höpfl R, Eisendle K. Infliximab monotherapy as first-line treatment for adultonset pityriasis rubra pilaris: case report and review of the literature on biologic therapy. J Am Acad Dermatol 2008; 59( suppl 5):S65S70.
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The complexities of vitamin D

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It seems so simple. Almost half the US population has a low circulating level of vitamin D, and patients with conditions as diverse as systemic lupus erythematosus and congestive heart failure (as discussed by Hajjar et al in this issue of the Journal) seem to fare worse if they have lower vitamin D levels. But this seeming simplicity of association belies several levels of complexity, with resultant clinical controversy.

First, vitamin D behaves more like a hormone than a vitamin. With adequate sunlight exposure, most humans synthesize sufficient vitamin D without dietary supplementation. But, much of the year, those of us living in Cleveland and the northern United States do not get enough sun. Our 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels (the measured “storage” and substrate form of the vitamin) dip below what is considered normal. People with highly pigmented skin need additional sun exposure to activate the vitamin D precursors into the 25-hydroxy form. Those housebound with debilitating disorders (eg, heart failure) or told to limit their sun exposure (eg, patients with lupus) are at additional risk of having low circulating levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3.

But how should normal be defined, and will raising the level of circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 actually make any difference?

Plasma vitamin D levels vary with the season, and when considering nonacute effects on calcium and parathyroid hormone (both influenced in the short term by active vitamin D levels), we do not have the advantage of a biomarker analogous to hemoglobin A1C in diabetes that can give us a broader view of the effect of “low” vitamin D levels. Nor do we have biomarkers to reflect the effect of vitamin D supplementation on the cardiovascular and immune systems. Thus, we do not know with certainty how to define biologically normal with regard to the cardiovascular system or whether we should worry about isolated low levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3.

As for supplementation, from our experiences with estrogen replacement therapy, I hope we have learned that epidemiologic data cannot predict the outcome of clinical intervention trials. We cannot assume, based on epidemiologic data alone, that giving vitamin D supplements to patients with heart failure will lessen their risk of death or of cardiovascular events.

Once again, biologic complexity warrants placebo-controlled therapeutic trials. Epidemiologic data and assumptions are not enough to guide our prescribing decisions.

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It seems so simple. Almost half the US population has a low circulating level of vitamin D, and patients with conditions as diverse as systemic lupus erythematosus and congestive heart failure (as discussed by Hajjar et al in this issue of the Journal) seem to fare worse if they have lower vitamin D levels. But this seeming simplicity of association belies several levels of complexity, with resultant clinical controversy.

First, vitamin D behaves more like a hormone than a vitamin. With adequate sunlight exposure, most humans synthesize sufficient vitamin D without dietary supplementation. But, much of the year, those of us living in Cleveland and the northern United States do not get enough sun. Our 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels (the measured “storage” and substrate form of the vitamin) dip below what is considered normal. People with highly pigmented skin need additional sun exposure to activate the vitamin D precursors into the 25-hydroxy form. Those housebound with debilitating disorders (eg, heart failure) or told to limit their sun exposure (eg, patients with lupus) are at additional risk of having low circulating levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3.

But how should normal be defined, and will raising the level of circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 actually make any difference?

Plasma vitamin D levels vary with the season, and when considering nonacute effects on calcium and parathyroid hormone (both influenced in the short term by active vitamin D levels), we do not have the advantage of a biomarker analogous to hemoglobin A1C in diabetes that can give us a broader view of the effect of “low” vitamin D levels. Nor do we have biomarkers to reflect the effect of vitamin D supplementation on the cardiovascular and immune systems. Thus, we do not know with certainty how to define biologically normal with regard to the cardiovascular system or whether we should worry about isolated low levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3.

As for supplementation, from our experiences with estrogen replacement therapy, I hope we have learned that epidemiologic data cannot predict the outcome of clinical intervention trials. We cannot assume, based on epidemiologic data alone, that giving vitamin D supplements to patients with heart failure will lessen their risk of death or of cardiovascular events.

Once again, biologic complexity warrants placebo-controlled therapeutic trials. Epidemiologic data and assumptions are not enough to guide our prescribing decisions.

It seems so simple. Almost half the US population has a low circulating level of vitamin D, and patients with conditions as diverse as systemic lupus erythematosus and congestive heart failure (as discussed by Hajjar et al in this issue of the Journal) seem to fare worse if they have lower vitamin D levels. But this seeming simplicity of association belies several levels of complexity, with resultant clinical controversy.

First, vitamin D behaves more like a hormone than a vitamin. With adequate sunlight exposure, most humans synthesize sufficient vitamin D without dietary supplementation. But, much of the year, those of us living in Cleveland and the northern United States do not get enough sun. Our 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels (the measured “storage” and substrate form of the vitamin) dip below what is considered normal. People with highly pigmented skin need additional sun exposure to activate the vitamin D precursors into the 25-hydroxy form. Those housebound with debilitating disorders (eg, heart failure) or told to limit their sun exposure (eg, patients with lupus) are at additional risk of having low circulating levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3.

But how should normal be defined, and will raising the level of circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 actually make any difference?

Plasma vitamin D levels vary with the season, and when considering nonacute effects on calcium and parathyroid hormone (both influenced in the short term by active vitamin D levels), we do not have the advantage of a biomarker analogous to hemoglobin A1C in diabetes that can give us a broader view of the effect of “low” vitamin D levels. Nor do we have biomarkers to reflect the effect of vitamin D supplementation on the cardiovascular and immune systems. Thus, we do not know with certainty how to define biologically normal with regard to the cardiovascular system or whether we should worry about isolated low levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3.

As for supplementation, from our experiences with estrogen replacement therapy, I hope we have learned that epidemiologic data cannot predict the outcome of clinical intervention trials. We cannot assume, based on epidemiologic data alone, that giving vitamin D supplements to patients with heart failure will lessen their risk of death or of cardiovascular events.

Once again, biologic complexity warrants placebo-controlled therapeutic trials. Epidemiologic data and assumptions are not enough to guide our prescribing decisions.

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Does vitamin D deficiency play a role in the pathogenesis of chronic heart failure? Do supplements improve survival?

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Does vitamin D deficiency play a role in the pathogenesis of chronic heart failure? Do supplements improve survival?

Vitamin D deficiency may play a role in the pathogenesis of chronic heart failure, but whether giving patients supplements to raise their vitamin D levels into the normal range improves their survival is not clear.

ASSOCIATION BETWEEN VITAMIN D DEFICIENCY AND OTHER DISORDERS

In the mid-17th century, Whistler and Glisson independently described rickets as a severe bone-deforming disease characterized by growth retardation, bending of the spine, deformities of the legs, and weak and toneless muscles. Histologically, rickets is characterized by impaired mineralization of the cartilage in the epiphyseal growth plates in children. In 1919, Sir Edward Mellanby identified vitamin D deficiency as the cause.

Osteomalacia, another disease caused by vitamin D deficiency, is a disorder of mineralization of newly formed bone matrix in adults. Vitamin D, therefore, has well-known roles in maintaining bone health and calcium and phosphorus homeostasis.

In addition, vitamin D deficiency has been shown in recent years to be associated with myocardial dysfunction.1,2

VITAMIN D METABOLISM IS COMPLEX

Figure 1.
Vitamin D’s metabolism is complex and involves many organ systems (Figure 1).

In skin exposed to ultraviolet B light, the provitamin 7-dehydrocholesterol is converted to vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol). Vitamin D3 is also obtained from dietary sources. However, many scientists consider vitamin D more a hormone than a classic vitamin, as adequate exposure to sunlight may negate the need for dietary supplements.

The active form of vitamin D is synthesized by hydroxylation in the liver and kidney. In the liver, hepatic enzymes add a hydroxyl (OH) group to vitamin D3, changing it to 25-hydroxyvitamin D3. In the kidney, 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 receives another hydroxyl group, converting it to the biologically active metabolite 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol). This renal hydroxylation is via 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity and is directly under control of parathyroid hormone (PTH), and indirectly under control of the serum concentrations of calcium.

Interestingly, a number of different organ cells, including cardiomyocytes, also express 1-alpha-hydroxylase and therefore also convert 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3. Unlike the renal hydroxylation, this extrarenal process depends on cytokine activation and on serum levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3.3 Low levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 lead to alterations in cellular control over growth, differentiation, and function.

The active form of vitamin D is transported protein-bound in the blood to various target organs, where it is delivered in free form to cells. Specific nuclear receptor proteins are found in many organs not classically considered target organs for vitamin D, including the skin, brain, skeletal muscles, cardiomyocytes, vascular endothelial cells, circulating monocytes, and activated B and T lymphocytes. Vitamin D plays a significant role in the autocrine and paracrine regulation of cellular function, growth, and differentiation in various organs.3

MOST HEART FAILURE PATIENTS HAVE LOW VITAMIN D LEVELS

More than 40% of men and 50% of women in the United States have low vitamin D levels (< 30 ng/mL [75 nmol/L])—and low levels in adults are associated with both coronary artery disease and heart failure.4 Most patients with heart failure have low levels.5,6 Therefore, screening for vitamin D deficiency in patients with heart failure is appropriate and encouraged.

Low vitamin D levels carry a poor prognosis. Pilz et al5 measured baseline 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels in 3,299 patients referred for elective coronary angiography and followed them prospectively for a median of 7.7 years. Even after adjustment for cardiac risk factors, patients who had low 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels were more likely to die of heart failure or sudden cardiac death than patients with normal levels.

Boxer et al7 found an association between low 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels and low exercise capacity and frailty in patients with systolic heart failure.

 

 

LOW VITAMIN D CONTRIBUTES TO THE PATHOGENESIS OF HEART FAILURE

In recent years, ideas about the pathophysiology of heart failure have expanded from a purely hemodynamic view to a more complex concept involving inflammatory cytokines and neurohormonal overactivation.8

Animal studies first showed vitamin D to inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, activation of which contributes to the salt and water retention seen in heart failure.4,9

In addition, vitamin D has a number of effects that should help prevent hypertension, an important risk factor for heart failure. It protects the kidney by suppressing the reninangiotensin-aldosterone system, prevents secondary hyperparathyroidism and its effects on vascular stiffness, prevents insulin resistance, and suppresses inflammation, which protects vascular endothelial cells.10

The first studies to show a connection between cardiovascular homeostasis and vitamin D status were in animal models more than 20 years ago. These studies showed that 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 acts directly on cardiomyocyte vitamin D receptors, which are widely distributed throughout the body in several tissue types.11

Excess PTH levels associated with low vitamin D levels may play a role in cardiovascular disease by leading to cardiomyocyte hypertrophy and interstitial fibrosis of the heart.12 Animal studies have found that vitamin D suppresses cardiac hypertrophy.13 Vitamin D also plays a role in cardiomyocyte relaxation and may abrogate the hypercontractility associated with diastolic heart failure.2,14

Currently, it is unclear whether vitamin D deficiency is a causative risk factor for heart failure or simply a reflection of the poor functional status of patients with heart failure that leads to decreased exposure to sunlight. This debate will continue until further randomized clinical trials address this association.

VITAMIN D AND HEART TRANSPLANTATION

One would expect that patients with endstage organ failure would be at high risk of vitamin D deficiency because of limited sunlight exposure. However, few studies have evaluated the role of this vitamin in heart transplant recipients.

Stein and colleagues15 measured serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 immediately after transplantation in 46 heart and 23 liver transplant recipients. Levels were low in both types of transplant recipients, but liver transplant recipients had significantly lower levels than heart transplant patients. This could be explained by malabsorption and impaired synthesis of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in end-stage liver disease.

Also, an important point is that osteoporosis is prevalent in postcardiac transplant patients and likely related to the immunosuppressive agents these patients must take.16 In theory, increasing the body’s stores of vitamin D during the pretransplant period could lower the rate of bone loss and osteoporosis after cardiac transplantation.

Further investigation is needed to determine whether restoring adequate levels of vitamin D at the time of or after transplantation prevents graft rejection or improves survival.

VITAMIN D SUPPLEMENTATION AND SURVIVAL IN HEART FAILURE

Vitamin D requirements vary, depending in part on sun exposure and age, from 200 to 600 IU per day (Table 1). Currently, experts believe these recommendations are outdated and estimate that optimal amounts are closer to 1,000 IU daily.17,18 Further studies are needed to update the current guidelines on the optimal amount of vitamin D intake.

The best laboratory test to assess vitamin D levels is the serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 concentration. A level between 20 and 30 ng/mL (50–75 nmol/L) is considered insufficient, and a level below 20 ng/mL (50 nmol/L) represents vitamin D deficiency.4,5,11

Vitamin D insufficiency is typically treated with 800 to 1,000 IU of vitamin D3 daily, whereas deficiency requires 50,000 IU of vitamin D3 weekly for 6 to 8 weeks, followed by 800 to 1,000 IU daily.19 The goal of therapy is to increase the serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 level above 30 ng/mL.19

Currently, it is unknown if vitamin D supplementation improves survival in heart failure. We recommend testing for vitamin D deficiency in all patients with heart failure and treating them as described above. For heart failure patients that are not deficient, daily intake of 800 to 1,000 IU of vitamin D is reasonable. Our review underscores the need for more studies to evaluate the efficacy of vitamin D replacement in improving survival in patients with heart failure.

KEY POINTS

  • Screening for vitamin D deficiency in patients with heart failure is appropriate and encouraged.
  • Vitamin D deficiency is common in patients with heart failure and in heart transplant recipients.
  • In theory, achieving adequate levels of vitamin D would have a beneficial effect on patients with heart failure.
  • Randomized controlled trials are needed to determine if vitamin D supplementation confers a survival benefit in patients with heart failure who have deficient vitamin D levels.
References
  1. Nibbelink KA, Tishkoff DX, Hershey SD, Rahman A, Simpson RU. 1,25(OH)2-vitamin D3 actions on cell proliferation, size, gene expression, and receptor localization, in the HL-1 cardiac myocyte. J Steroid Biochem Mol Biol 2007; 103:533537.
  2. Tishkoff DX, Nibbelink KA, Holmberg KH, Dandu L, Simpson RU. Functional vitamin D receptor (VDR) in the t-tubules of cardiac myocytes: VDR knockout cardiomyocyte contractility. Endocrinology 2008; 149:558564.
  3. Peterlik M, Cross HS. Vitamin D and calcium deficits predispose for multiple chronic diseases. Eur J Clin Invest 2005; 35:290304.
  4. Kim DH, Sabour S, Sagar UN, Adams S, Whellan DJ. Prevalence of hypovitaminosis D in cardiovascular diseases (from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey 2001 to 2004). Am J Cardiol 2008; 102:15401544.
  5. Pilz S, März W, Wellnitz B, et al. Association of vitamin D deficiency with heart failure and sudden cardiac death in a large cross-sectional study of patients referred for coronary angiography. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2008; 93:39273935.
  6. Zittermann A, Schleithoff SS, Koerfer R. Vitamin D insufficiency in congestive heart failure: why and what to do about it? Heart Fail Rev 2006; 11:2533.
  7. Boxer RS, Dauser DA, Walsh SJ, Hager WD, Kenny AM. The association between vitamin D and inflammation with the 6-minute walk and frailty in patients with heart failure. J Am Geriatr Soc 2008; 56:454461.
  8. Schleithoff SS, Zittermann A, Tenderich G, Berthold HK, Stehle P, Koerfer R. Vitamin D supplementation improves cytokine profiles in patients with congestive heart failure: a double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial. Am J Clin Nutr 2006; 83:754759.
  9. Li YC, Kong J, Wei M, Chen ZF, Liu SQ, Cao LP. 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D(3) is a negative endocrine regulator of the renin-angiotensin system. J Clin Invest 2002; 110:229238.
  10. Pilz S, Tomaschitz A, Ritz E, Pieber TR; Medscape. Vitamin D status and arterial hypertension: a systematic review. Nat Rev Cardiol 2009; 6:621630.
  11. Nemerovski CW, Dorsch MP, Simpson RU, Bone HG, Aaronson KD, Bleske BE. Vitamin D and cardiovascular disease. Pharmacotherapy 2009; 29:691708.
  12. Rostand SG, Drüeke TB. Parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, and cardiovascular disease in chronic renal failure. Kidney Int 1999; 56:383392.
  13. Wu J, Garami M, Cheng T, Gardner DG. 1,25(OH)2 vitamin D3, and retinoic acid antagonize endothelin-stimulated hypertrophy of neonatal rat cardiac myocytes. J Clin Invest 1996; 97:15771588.
  14. Green JJ, Robinson DA, Wilson GE, Simpson RU, Westfall MV. Calcitriol modulation of cardiac contractile performance via protein kinase C. J Mol Cell Cardiol 2006; 41:350359.
  15. Stein EM, Cohen A, Freeby M, et al. Severe vitamin D deficiency among heart and liver transplant recipients. Clin Transplant 2009; (Epub ahead of print)
  16. Shane E, Rivas M, McMahon DJ, et al. Bone loss and turnover after cardiac transplantation. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 1997; 82:14971506.
  17. Norman AW, Bouillon R, Whiting SJ, Vieth R, Lips P. 13th Workshop consensus for vitamin D nutritional guidelines. J Steroid Biochem Mol Biol 2007; 103:204205.
  18. Vieth R, Bischoff-Ferrari H, Boucher BJ, et al. The urgent need to recommend an intake of vitamin D that is effective. Am J Clin Nutr 2007; 85:649650.
  19. Dawson-Hughes B, Heaney RP, Holick MF, Lips P, Meunier PJ, Vieth R. Estimates of optimal vitamin D status. Osteoporos Int 2005; 16:713716.
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Victor Hajjar, MD
Department of Hospital Medicine, Cleveland Clinic

Jeremiah P. Depta, MD
Department of Internal Medicine, Cleveland Clinic

Maria M. Mountis, DO
Section of Heart Failure and Transplant, Heart and Vascular Institute, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Victor Hajjar, MD, Department of Hospital Medicine, A13, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Department of Internal Medicine, Cleveland Clinic

Maria M. Mountis, DO
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Address: Victor Hajjar, MD, Department of Hospital Medicine, A13, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Victor Hajjar, MD
Department of Hospital Medicine, Cleveland Clinic

Jeremiah P. Depta, MD
Department of Internal Medicine, Cleveland Clinic

Maria M. Mountis, DO
Section of Heart Failure and Transplant, Heart and Vascular Institute, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Victor Hajjar, MD, Department of Hospital Medicine, A13, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Vitamin D deficiency may play a role in the pathogenesis of chronic heart failure, but whether giving patients supplements to raise their vitamin D levels into the normal range improves their survival is not clear.

ASSOCIATION BETWEEN VITAMIN D DEFICIENCY AND OTHER DISORDERS

In the mid-17th century, Whistler and Glisson independently described rickets as a severe bone-deforming disease characterized by growth retardation, bending of the spine, deformities of the legs, and weak and toneless muscles. Histologically, rickets is characterized by impaired mineralization of the cartilage in the epiphyseal growth plates in children. In 1919, Sir Edward Mellanby identified vitamin D deficiency as the cause.

Osteomalacia, another disease caused by vitamin D deficiency, is a disorder of mineralization of newly formed bone matrix in adults. Vitamin D, therefore, has well-known roles in maintaining bone health and calcium and phosphorus homeostasis.

In addition, vitamin D deficiency has been shown in recent years to be associated with myocardial dysfunction.1,2

VITAMIN D METABOLISM IS COMPLEX

Figure 1.
Vitamin D’s metabolism is complex and involves many organ systems (Figure 1).

In skin exposed to ultraviolet B light, the provitamin 7-dehydrocholesterol is converted to vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol). Vitamin D3 is also obtained from dietary sources. However, many scientists consider vitamin D more a hormone than a classic vitamin, as adequate exposure to sunlight may negate the need for dietary supplements.

The active form of vitamin D is synthesized by hydroxylation in the liver and kidney. In the liver, hepatic enzymes add a hydroxyl (OH) group to vitamin D3, changing it to 25-hydroxyvitamin D3. In the kidney, 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 receives another hydroxyl group, converting it to the biologically active metabolite 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol). This renal hydroxylation is via 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity and is directly under control of parathyroid hormone (PTH), and indirectly under control of the serum concentrations of calcium.

Interestingly, a number of different organ cells, including cardiomyocytes, also express 1-alpha-hydroxylase and therefore also convert 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3. Unlike the renal hydroxylation, this extrarenal process depends on cytokine activation and on serum levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3.3 Low levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 lead to alterations in cellular control over growth, differentiation, and function.

The active form of vitamin D is transported protein-bound in the blood to various target organs, where it is delivered in free form to cells. Specific nuclear receptor proteins are found in many organs not classically considered target organs for vitamin D, including the skin, brain, skeletal muscles, cardiomyocytes, vascular endothelial cells, circulating monocytes, and activated B and T lymphocytes. Vitamin D plays a significant role in the autocrine and paracrine regulation of cellular function, growth, and differentiation in various organs.3

MOST HEART FAILURE PATIENTS HAVE LOW VITAMIN D LEVELS

More than 40% of men and 50% of women in the United States have low vitamin D levels (< 30 ng/mL [75 nmol/L])—and low levels in adults are associated with both coronary artery disease and heart failure.4 Most patients with heart failure have low levels.5,6 Therefore, screening for vitamin D deficiency in patients with heart failure is appropriate and encouraged.

Low vitamin D levels carry a poor prognosis. Pilz et al5 measured baseline 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels in 3,299 patients referred for elective coronary angiography and followed them prospectively for a median of 7.7 years. Even after adjustment for cardiac risk factors, patients who had low 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels were more likely to die of heart failure or sudden cardiac death than patients with normal levels.

Boxer et al7 found an association between low 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels and low exercise capacity and frailty in patients with systolic heart failure.

 

 

LOW VITAMIN D CONTRIBUTES TO THE PATHOGENESIS OF HEART FAILURE

In recent years, ideas about the pathophysiology of heart failure have expanded from a purely hemodynamic view to a more complex concept involving inflammatory cytokines and neurohormonal overactivation.8

Animal studies first showed vitamin D to inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, activation of which contributes to the salt and water retention seen in heart failure.4,9

In addition, vitamin D has a number of effects that should help prevent hypertension, an important risk factor for heart failure. It protects the kidney by suppressing the reninangiotensin-aldosterone system, prevents secondary hyperparathyroidism and its effects on vascular stiffness, prevents insulin resistance, and suppresses inflammation, which protects vascular endothelial cells.10

The first studies to show a connection between cardiovascular homeostasis and vitamin D status were in animal models more than 20 years ago. These studies showed that 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 acts directly on cardiomyocyte vitamin D receptors, which are widely distributed throughout the body in several tissue types.11

Excess PTH levels associated with low vitamin D levels may play a role in cardiovascular disease by leading to cardiomyocyte hypertrophy and interstitial fibrosis of the heart.12 Animal studies have found that vitamin D suppresses cardiac hypertrophy.13 Vitamin D also plays a role in cardiomyocyte relaxation and may abrogate the hypercontractility associated with diastolic heart failure.2,14

Currently, it is unclear whether vitamin D deficiency is a causative risk factor for heart failure or simply a reflection of the poor functional status of patients with heart failure that leads to decreased exposure to sunlight. This debate will continue until further randomized clinical trials address this association.

VITAMIN D AND HEART TRANSPLANTATION

One would expect that patients with endstage organ failure would be at high risk of vitamin D deficiency because of limited sunlight exposure. However, few studies have evaluated the role of this vitamin in heart transplant recipients.

Stein and colleagues15 measured serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 immediately after transplantation in 46 heart and 23 liver transplant recipients. Levels were low in both types of transplant recipients, but liver transplant recipients had significantly lower levels than heart transplant patients. This could be explained by malabsorption and impaired synthesis of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in end-stage liver disease.

Also, an important point is that osteoporosis is prevalent in postcardiac transplant patients and likely related to the immunosuppressive agents these patients must take.16 In theory, increasing the body’s stores of vitamin D during the pretransplant period could lower the rate of bone loss and osteoporosis after cardiac transplantation.

Further investigation is needed to determine whether restoring adequate levels of vitamin D at the time of or after transplantation prevents graft rejection or improves survival.

VITAMIN D SUPPLEMENTATION AND SURVIVAL IN HEART FAILURE

Vitamin D requirements vary, depending in part on sun exposure and age, from 200 to 600 IU per day (Table 1). Currently, experts believe these recommendations are outdated and estimate that optimal amounts are closer to 1,000 IU daily.17,18 Further studies are needed to update the current guidelines on the optimal amount of vitamin D intake.

The best laboratory test to assess vitamin D levels is the serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 concentration. A level between 20 and 30 ng/mL (50–75 nmol/L) is considered insufficient, and a level below 20 ng/mL (50 nmol/L) represents vitamin D deficiency.4,5,11

Vitamin D insufficiency is typically treated with 800 to 1,000 IU of vitamin D3 daily, whereas deficiency requires 50,000 IU of vitamin D3 weekly for 6 to 8 weeks, followed by 800 to 1,000 IU daily.19 The goal of therapy is to increase the serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 level above 30 ng/mL.19

Currently, it is unknown if vitamin D supplementation improves survival in heart failure. We recommend testing for vitamin D deficiency in all patients with heart failure and treating them as described above. For heart failure patients that are not deficient, daily intake of 800 to 1,000 IU of vitamin D is reasonable. Our review underscores the need for more studies to evaluate the efficacy of vitamin D replacement in improving survival in patients with heart failure.

KEY POINTS

  • Screening for vitamin D deficiency in patients with heart failure is appropriate and encouraged.
  • Vitamin D deficiency is common in patients with heart failure and in heart transplant recipients.
  • In theory, achieving adequate levels of vitamin D would have a beneficial effect on patients with heart failure.
  • Randomized controlled trials are needed to determine if vitamin D supplementation confers a survival benefit in patients with heart failure who have deficient vitamin D levels.

Vitamin D deficiency may play a role in the pathogenesis of chronic heart failure, but whether giving patients supplements to raise their vitamin D levels into the normal range improves their survival is not clear.

ASSOCIATION BETWEEN VITAMIN D DEFICIENCY AND OTHER DISORDERS

In the mid-17th century, Whistler and Glisson independently described rickets as a severe bone-deforming disease characterized by growth retardation, bending of the spine, deformities of the legs, and weak and toneless muscles. Histologically, rickets is characterized by impaired mineralization of the cartilage in the epiphyseal growth plates in children. In 1919, Sir Edward Mellanby identified vitamin D deficiency as the cause.

Osteomalacia, another disease caused by vitamin D deficiency, is a disorder of mineralization of newly formed bone matrix in adults. Vitamin D, therefore, has well-known roles in maintaining bone health and calcium and phosphorus homeostasis.

In addition, vitamin D deficiency has been shown in recent years to be associated with myocardial dysfunction.1,2

VITAMIN D METABOLISM IS COMPLEX

Figure 1.
Vitamin D’s metabolism is complex and involves many organ systems (Figure 1).

In skin exposed to ultraviolet B light, the provitamin 7-dehydrocholesterol is converted to vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol). Vitamin D3 is also obtained from dietary sources. However, many scientists consider vitamin D more a hormone than a classic vitamin, as adequate exposure to sunlight may negate the need for dietary supplements.

The active form of vitamin D is synthesized by hydroxylation in the liver and kidney. In the liver, hepatic enzymes add a hydroxyl (OH) group to vitamin D3, changing it to 25-hydroxyvitamin D3. In the kidney, 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 receives another hydroxyl group, converting it to the biologically active metabolite 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol). This renal hydroxylation is via 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity and is directly under control of parathyroid hormone (PTH), and indirectly under control of the serum concentrations of calcium.

Interestingly, a number of different organ cells, including cardiomyocytes, also express 1-alpha-hydroxylase and therefore also convert 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3. Unlike the renal hydroxylation, this extrarenal process depends on cytokine activation and on serum levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3.3 Low levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 lead to alterations in cellular control over growth, differentiation, and function.

The active form of vitamin D is transported protein-bound in the blood to various target organs, where it is delivered in free form to cells. Specific nuclear receptor proteins are found in many organs not classically considered target organs for vitamin D, including the skin, brain, skeletal muscles, cardiomyocytes, vascular endothelial cells, circulating monocytes, and activated B and T lymphocytes. Vitamin D plays a significant role in the autocrine and paracrine regulation of cellular function, growth, and differentiation in various organs.3

MOST HEART FAILURE PATIENTS HAVE LOW VITAMIN D LEVELS

More than 40% of men and 50% of women in the United States have low vitamin D levels (< 30 ng/mL [75 nmol/L])—and low levels in adults are associated with both coronary artery disease and heart failure.4 Most patients with heart failure have low levels.5,6 Therefore, screening for vitamin D deficiency in patients with heart failure is appropriate and encouraged.

Low vitamin D levels carry a poor prognosis. Pilz et al5 measured baseline 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels in 3,299 patients referred for elective coronary angiography and followed them prospectively for a median of 7.7 years. Even after adjustment for cardiac risk factors, patients who had low 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels were more likely to die of heart failure or sudden cardiac death than patients with normal levels.

Boxer et al7 found an association between low 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels and low exercise capacity and frailty in patients with systolic heart failure.

 

 

LOW VITAMIN D CONTRIBUTES TO THE PATHOGENESIS OF HEART FAILURE

In recent years, ideas about the pathophysiology of heart failure have expanded from a purely hemodynamic view to a more complex concept involving inflammatory cytokines and neurohormonal overactivation.8

Animal studies first showed vitamin D to inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, activation of which contributes to the salt and water retention seen in heart failure.4,9

In addition, vitamin D has a number of effects that should help prevent hypertension, an important risk factor for heart failure. It protects the kidney by suppressing the reninangiotensin-aldosterone system, prevents secondary hyperparathyroidism and its effects on vascular stiffness, prevents insulin resistance, and suppresses inflammation, which protects vascular endothelial cells.10

The first studies to show a connection between cardiovascular homeostasis and vitamin D status were in animal models more than 20 years ago. These studies showed that 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 acts directly on cardiomyocyte vitamin D receptors, which are widely distributed throughout the body in several tissue types.11

Excess PTH levels associated with low vitamin D levels may play a role in cardiovascular disease by leading to cardiomyocyte hypertrophy and interstitial fibrosis of the heart.12 Animal studies have found that vitamin D suppresses cardiac hypertrophy.13 Vitamin D also plays a role in cardiomyocyte relaxation and may abrogate the hypercontractility associated with diastolic heart failure.2,14

Currently, it is unclear whether vitamin D deficiency is a causative risk factor for heart failure or simply a reflection of the poor functional status of patients with heart failure that leads to decreased exposure to sunlight. This debate will continue until further randomized clinical trials address this association.

VITAMIN D AND HEART TRANSPLANTATION

One would expect that patients with endstage organ failure would be at high risk of vitamin D deficiency because of limited sunlight exposure. However, few studies have evaluated the role of this vitamin in heart transplant recipients.

Stein and colleagues15 measured serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 immediately after transplantation in 46 heart and 23 liver transplant recipients. Levels were low in both types of transplant recipients, but liver transplant recipients had significantly lower levels than heart transplant patients. This could be explained by malabsorption and impaired synthesis of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in end-stage liver disease.

Also, an important point is that osteoporosis is prevalent in postcardiac transplant patients and likely related to the immunosuppressive agents these patients must take.16 In theory, increasing the body’s stores of vitamin D during the pretransplant period could lower the rate of bone loss and osteoporosis after cardiac transplantation.

Further investigation is needed to determine whether restoring adequate levels of vitamin D at the time of or after transplantation prevents graft rejection or improves survival.

VITAMIN D SUPPLEMENTATION AND SURVIVAL IN HEART FAILURE

Vitamin D requirements vary, depending in part on sun exposure and age, from 200 to 600 IU per day (Table 1). Currently, experts believe these recommendations are outdated and estimate that optimal amounts are closer to 1,000 IU daily.17,18 Further studies are needed to update the current guidelines on the optimal amount of vitamin D intake.

The best laboratory test to assess vitamin D levels is the serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 concentration. A level between 20 and 30 ng/mL (50–75 nmol/L) is considered insufficient, and a level below 20 ng/mL (50 nmol/L) represents vitamin D deficiency.4,5,11

Vitamin D insufficiency is typically treated with 800 to 1,000 IU of vitamin D3 daily, whereas deficiency requires 50,000 IU of vitamin D3 weekly for 6 to 8 weeks, followed by 800 to 1,000 IU daily.19 The goal of therapy is to increase the serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 level above 30 ng/mL.19

Currently, it is unknown if vitamin D supplementation improves survival in heart failure. We recommend testing for vitamin D deficiency in all patients with heart failure and treating them as described above. For heart failure patients that are not deficient, daily intake of 800 to 1,000 IU of vitamin D is reasonable. Our review underscores the need for more studies to evaluate the efficacy of vitamin D replacement in improving survival in patients with heart failure.

KEY POINTS

  • Screening for vitamin D deficiency in patients with heart failure is appropriate and encouraged.
  • Vitamin D deficiency is common in patients with heart failure and in heart transplant recipients.
  • In theory, achieving adequate levels of vitamin D would have a beneficial effect on patients with heart failure.
  • Randomized controlled trials are needed to determine if vitamin D supplementation confers a survival benefit in patients with heart failure who have deficient vitamin D levels.
References
  1. Nibbelink KA, Tishkoff DX, Hershey SD, Rahman A, Simpson RU. 1,25(OH)2-vitamin D3 actions on cell proliferation, size, gene expression, and receptor localization, in the HL-1 cardiac myocyte. J Steroid Biochem Mol Biol 2007; 103:533537.
  2. Tishkoff DX, Nibbelink KA, Holmberg KH, Dandu L, Simpson RU. Functional vitamin D receptor (VDR) in the t-tubules of cardiac myocytes: VDR knockout cardiomyocyte contractility. Endocrinology 2008; 149:558564.
  3. Peterlik M, Cross HS. Vitamin D and calcium deficits predispose for multiple chronic diseases. Eur J Clin Invest 2005; 35:290304.
  4. Kim DH, Sabour S, Sagar UN, Adams S, Whellan DJ. Prevalence of hypovitaminosis D in cardiovascular diseases (from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey 2001 to 2004). Am J Cardiol 2008; 102:15401544.
  5. Pilz S, März W, Wellnitz B, et al. Association of vitamin D deficiency with heart failure and sudden cardiac death in a large cross-sectional study of patients referred for coronary angiography. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2008; 93:39273935.
  6. Zittermann A, Schleithoff SS, Koerfer R. Vitamin D insufficiency in congestive heart failure: why and what to do about it? Heart Fail Rev 2006; 11:2533.
  7. Boxer RS, Dauser DA, Walsh SJ, Hager WD, Kenny AM. The association between vitamin D and inflammation with the 6-minute walk and frailty in patients with heart failure. J Am Geriatr Soc 2008; 56:454461.
  8. Schleithoff SS, Zittermann A, Tenderich G, Berthold HK, Stehle P, Koerfer R. Vitamin D supplementation improves cytokine profiles in patients with congestive heart failure: a double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial. Am J Clin Nutr 2006; 83:754759.
  9. Li YC, Kong J, Wei M, Chen ZF, Liu SQ, Cao LP. 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D(3) is a negative endocrine regulator of the renin-angiotensin system. J Clin Invest 2002; 110:229238.
  10. Pilz S, Tomaschitz A, Ritz E, Pieber TR; Medscape. Vitamin D status and arterial hypertension: a systematic review. Nat Rev Cardiol 2009; 6:621630.
  11. Nemerovski CW, Dorsch MP, Simpson RU, Bone HG, Aaronson KD, Bleske BE. Vitamin D and cardiovascular disease. Pharmacotherapy 2009; 29:691708.
  12. Rostand SG, Drüeke TB. Parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, and cardiovascular disease in chronic renal failure. Kidney Int 1999; 56:383392.
  13. Wu J, Garami M, Cheng T, Gardner DG. 1,25(OH)2 vitamin D3, and retinoic acid antagonize endothelin-stimulated hypertrophy of neonatal rat cardiac myocytes. J Clin Invest 1996; 97:15771588.
  14. Green JJ, Robinson DA, Wilson GE, Simpson RU, Westfall MV. Calcitriol modulation of cardiac contractile performance via protein kinase C. J Mol Cell Cardiol 2006; 41:350359.
  15. Stein EM, Cohen A, Freeby M, et al. Severe vitamin D deficiency among heart and liver transplant recipients. Clin Transplant 2009; (Epub ahead of print)
  16. Shane E, Rivas M, McMahon DJ, et al. Bone loss and turnover after cardiac transplantation. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 1997; 82:14971506.
  17. Norman AW, Bouillon R, Whiting SJ, Vieth R, Lips P. 13th Workshop consensus for vitamin D nutritional guidelines. J Steroid Biochem Mol Biol 2007; 103:204205.
  18. Vieth R, Bischoff-Ferrari H, Boucher BJ, et al. The urgent need to recommend an intake of vitamin D that is effective. Am J Clin Nutr 2007; 85:649650.
  19. Dawson-Hughes B, Heaney RP, Holick MF, Lips P, Meunier PJ, Vieth R. Estimates of optimal vitamin D status. Osteoporos Int 2005; 16:713716.
References
  1. Nibbelink KA, Tishkoff DX, Hershey SD, Rahman A, Simpson RU. 1,25(OH)2-vitamin D3 actions on cell proliferation, size, gene expression, and receptor localization, in the HL-1 cardiac myocyte. J Steroid Biochem Mol Biol 2007; 103:533537.
  2. Tishkoff DX, Nibbelink KA, Holmberg KH, Dandu L, Simpson RU. Functional vitamin D receptor (VDR) in the t-tubules of cardiac myocytes: VDR knockout cardiomyocyte contractility. Endocrinology 2008; 149:558564.
  3. Peterlik M, Cross HS. Vitamin D and calcium deficits predispose for multiple chronic diseases. Eur J Clin Invest 2005; 35:290304.
  4. Kim DH, Sabour S, Sagar UN, Adams S, Whellan DJ. Prevalence of hypovitaminosis D in cardiovascular diseases (from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey 2001 to 2004). Am J Cardiol 2008; 102:15401544.
  5. Pilz S, März W, Wellnitz B, et al. Association of vitamin D deficiency with heart failure and sudden cardiac death in a large cross-sectional study of patients referred for coronary angiography. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2008; 93:39273935.
  6. Zittermann A, Schleithoff SS, Koerfer R. Vitamin D insufficiency in congestive heart failure: why and what to do about it? Heart Fail Rev 2006; 11:2533.
  7. Boxer RS, Dauser DA, Walsh SJ, Hager WD, Kenny AM. The association between vitamin D and inflammation with the 6-minute walk and frailty in patients with heart failure. J Am Geriatr Soc 2008; 56:454461.
  8. Schleithoff SS, Zittermann A, Tenderich G, Berthold HK, Stehle P, Koerfer R. Vitamin D supplementation improves cytokine profiles in patients with congestive heart failure: a double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial. Am J Clin Nutr 2006; 83:754759.
  9. Li YC, Kong J, Wei M, Chen ZF, Liu SQ, Cao LP. 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D(3) is a negative endocrine regulator of the renin-angiotensin system. J Clin Invest 2002; 110:229238.
  10. Pilz S, Tomaschitz A, Ritz E, Pieber TR; Medscape. Vitamin D status and arterial hypertension: a systematic review. Nat Rev Cardiol 2009; 6:621630.
  11. Nemerovski CW, Dorsch MP, Simpson RU, Bone HG, Aaronson KD, Bleske BE. Vitamin D and cardiovascular disease. Pharmacotherapy 2009; 29:691708.
  12. Rostand SG, Drüeke TB. Parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, and cardiovascular disease in chronic renal failure. Kidney Int 1999; 56:383392.
  13. Wu J, Garami M, Cheng T, Gardner DG. 1,25(OH)2 vitamin D3, and retinoic acid antagonize endothelin-stimulated hypertrophy of neonatal rat cardiac myocytes. J Clin Invest 1996; 97:15771588.
  14. Green JJ, Robinson DA, Wilson GE, Simpson RU, Westfall MV. Calcitriol modulation of cardiac contractile performance via protein kinase C. J Mol Cell Cardiol 2006; 41:350359.
  15. Stein EM, Cohen A, Freeby M, et al. Severe vitamin D deficiency among heart and liver transplant recipients. Clin Transplant 2009; (Epub ahead of print)
  16. Shane E, Rivas M, McMahon DJ, et al. Bone loss and turnover after cardiac transplantation. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 1997; 82:14971506.
  17. Norman AW, Bouillon R, Whiting SJ, Vieth R, Lips P. 13th Workshop consensus for vitamin D nutritional guidelines. J Steroid Biochem Mol Biol 2007; 103:204205.
  18. Vieth R, Bischoff-Ferrari H, Boucher BJ, et al. The urgent need to recommend an intake of vitamin D that is effective. Am J Clin Nutr 2007; 85:649650.
  19. Dawson-Hughes B, Heaney RP, Holick MF, Lips P, Meunier PJ, Vieth R. Estimates of optimal vitamin D status. Osteoporos Int 2005; 16:713716.
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New tools for detecting occult monoclonal gammopathy, a cause of secondary osteoporosis

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New tools for detecting occult monoclonal gammopathy, a cause of secondary osteoporosis

Sometimes, osteoporosis can be the presenting sign of a monoclonal gammopathy, which in some people may precede a diagnosis of multiple myeloma.1

In this article, we use two cases to illustrate the challenges of detecting monoclonal gammopathies as the cause of secondary osteoporosis. We also discuss the diagnostic limitations of current tests and the advantages of a newer test—measuring the serum levels of free light chains—in the workup of these patients.

CASE 1: A 55-YEAR-OLD WOMAN WITH BACK PAIN

A 55-year-old woman develops back pain after walking her dog, and the pain worsens despite treatment with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug for 1 week.

The patient has a history of well-controlled hypertension. She went through menopause 5 years ago, and about 2 years ago she was started on oral calcium and vitamin D for low bone density. At that time she complained of mild fatigue, which she attributed to working overtime and to lack of sleep.

Figure 1. Case 1. Plain film x-ray of the thoracic spine shows osteopenia of the spinal segments and a T10 wedge compression fracture (arrow).
On physical examination, her back in the area of T10 is tender to palpation, and plain radiography shows a compression deformity there (Figure 1). Over the past 2 years, her bone mineral density—ie, T scores on dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)—has decreased 10% in the spine and 6% in the hip.

Laboratory data, other tests

  • Her white blood cell differential count is normal
  • Hemoglobin 11.8 g/dL (normal range 12–15)
  • Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL (0.5–1.4)
  • Calcium 8.2 mg/dL (8.0–10.0)
  • Albumin 4.5 g/dL (3.5–5.0)
  • Total protein 5.7 g/dL (6.0–8.4)
  • Serum and urine protein electrophoreses show no monoclonal spike (M-spike) or bands
  • Serum free kappa light chains 5,542 mg/L (normal range 3.3–19.4).

Based on the elevation of serum free kappa light chains, the patient undergoes bone marrow aspiration biopsy. Histologic analysis reveals plasmacytosis (60% of her marrow cells are plasma cells [normal is < 5%]) with kappa light chain restriction.

A complete x-ray survey of the skull and long bones reveals widespread lytic lesions, consistent with multiple myeloma.

CASE 2: AN 88-YEAR-OLD MAN WITH MALAISE AND BACK PAIN

An 88-year-old man sees his family doctor because of malaise and back pain. He was treated for bladder cancer several years ago. He is currently being treated for prostatic hyperplasia, hypertension, and arthritis. Spinal radiography shows a compression deformity at T12, for which he undergoes kyphoplasty.

His complete blood cell count, white blood cell differential count, and kidney and metabolic profiles are normal.

Urine protein electrophoresis is normal, but serum electrophoresis detects an M-spike. On DXA of the hip, his T score is −3.7 (normal ≥ −1.0), and his Z score is −2.4 (normal > −2.0); suspicion of a secondary cause may be raised with Z scores of −1.0 or −1.5. The level of urinary NTX (cross-linked N-telopeptide of type I collagen, a marker of bone turnover) is 190 nmol bone collagen equivalents/nmol creatinine (normal range for men < 75), indicating a high level of bone turnover.

A serum free light chain assay shows twice the normal concentration of kappa light chains. The patient is referred for hematologic study and undergoes bone marrrow aspiration biopsy, which shows an abnormally high number of monoclonal plasma cells.

LESSONS FROM THESE CASES

The cases presented above illustrate several key clinical points:

  • Minor back pain can be a symptom of a spinal compression fracture.
  • Declining bone density should raise the suspicion of secondary osteoporosis, as should an abnormally low Z score.
  • Markers of bone turnover are commonly elevated in secondary osteoporosis.
  • Routine laboratory tests often fail to detect multiple myeloma.

BACK PAIN AS A SYMPTOM OF SPINAL COMPRESSION FRACTURE

Back pain is a very common complaint, and fortunately, most cases are due to benign causes. However, serious causes such as cancer, infection, and fractures must be considered. The topic has been reviewed in detail by Siemionow et al.2

Osteoporotic compression fractures are common in the elderly and are associated with loss of height. They can occur spontaneously or from minimal trauma. The workup can start with plain anteroposterior and lateral radiographs and routine laboratory tests, as in the patients described above. This information, as well as DXA testing, may provide clues that suggest that the osteoporosis is secondary to an underlying problem, or that a coexisting bone condition caused the fracture.

 

 

DXA CAN SUGGEST SECONDARY OSTEOPOROSIS

Declining bone density

Standard DXA testing is used to identify patients at high risk of fragility fractures from osteoporosis. It is also the accepted way to monitor disease progression and efficacy of treatment.

However, when checking to see if a patient’s bone density has changed over time, one must recognize that variations in technique from center to center or operator to operator can produce false changes in DXA results. 3,4 The testing center should state its own level of variance (referred to as the least significant change) and should indicate whether changes in a patient’s follow-up test results are statistically significant (ie, exceed that level).

A significant decline in bone mineral density over time may indicate that the patient is either not taking his or her medications or is not taking them as directed, as often happens with oral bisphosphonates—which must be taken first thing in the morning, on an empty stomach, with only a glass of water, at least 30 minutes before breakfast, during which time the patient must remain in an upright position.5–7 But a decline also raises the suspicion of an underlying condition instead of or in addition to osteoporosis, as described in the cases above. The normal decline in bone mineral density due to aging is 0.1% to 0.2% per year. For women 5 years after menopause, the rate increases to 1% to 2% and then slows to the rate of decline due to aging. A decline in bone density to the degree seen in case 1 is more than that which could be attributed to primary osteoporosis, and so an underlying cause must be considered.

Abnormally low Z scores also raise the suspicion of secondary osteoporosis

The T score is the difference, in standard deviations, between the patient’s bone density and the mean value in a population of healthy young adults. Since bone density tends to decline with age, so does the T score.

In contrast, the Z score compares a patient’s bone density with the mean value in a population the same age and sex as the patient. When it is abnormally low, it implies greater bone loss than predicted by aging alone or greater than expected from primary disease, so a secondary disorder must be considered.8,9 This was the case in our second patient, who had a Z score of −2.4.

No specific Z score cutoff has been established. Rather, the physician should be suspicious when it is lower than about −1.0 and when something in the patient’s clinical presentation, history, or laboratory evaluation raises suspicion of an underlying condition. In other words, the Z score is useful not by itself, but in context with other information.

In a retrospective analysis of men and women with osteoporosis, Swaminathan et al9 reported that a Z score cutoff of −1.0 had a sensitivity of 87.5% for detecting an underlying cause of osteoporosis.

Again, we want to emphasize that a low Z score alone is not sufficient to make a diagnosis of a secondary cause of osteoporosis. But it is good to be suspicious when a Z score is as low as in our second case and when that suspicion is reinforced by other clinical data.

MARKERS OF BONE TURNOVER

Biochemical markers of bone resorption, such as urinary NTX and the cross-linked C-telopeptide of type I collagen (CTX), have been shown to predict fracture risk independent of bone density measurements. The evidence to date supports the use of these markers in conjunction with bone density measurements to ascertain early on whether osteoporosis is responding to treatment, but their use alone to screen for osteoporosis is not encouraged.10

The markedly high level of NTX in our second patient would be unusual in primary disease—it implies a high degree of bone turnover and, in concert with the clinical information, suggests secondary osteoporosis.

SOME CAUSES OF SECONDARY BONE LOSS

If a patient has a low Z score, a declining T score, or other clues, it is critical to evaluate for causes of secondary bone loss, such as8:

  • Endocrine disorders (Cushing syndrome, hyperparathyroidism, hypogonadism)
  • Gastrointestinal disorders (malabsorption, cirrhosis, gastric bypass surgery)
  • Renal insufficiency and failure
  • Pulmonary diseases and their treatment
  • Drug use (corticosteroids, antigonadotropins, anticonvulsants, aromatase inhibitors, antirejection drugs)
  • Nutritional factors (alcohol abuse, smoking, eating disorders)
  • Neurologic disease or its treatment
  • Transplantation
  • Genetic metabolic disorders
  • Malignancy.

As in the scenarios presented above, unexplained changes in bone mineral density and mild anemia may trigger an evaluation for a monoclonal gammopathy.

MULTIPLE MYELOMA

Multiple myeloma is a cancer of the immunoglobulin-producing plasma cells in the bone marrow. Since the cancerous cells are clones, they all produce the same immunoglobulin—thus, the distinctive M-spike on serum or urine protein electrophoresis. It affects about 50,000 people in the United States.

The typical features of multiple myeloma are hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, and bone lesions with or without osteoporosis. 11 Most patients have identifiable features of myeloma at the time of diagnosis, but perhaps 20% lack the characteristic symptoms of fatigue, back pain, or bone pain.

Most patients who eventually develop symptomatic multiple myeloma first present with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS), a disorder characterized by asymptomatic overproduction of an immunoglobulin. However, MGUS develops into multiple myeloma in only about 15% of cases.11

Widespread osteoporosis, due to cytokine-mediated osteoclast activation, is common in patients with multiple myeloma. As many as 90% of patients have lytic skeletal lesions or osteoporosis at the time of diagnosis.11,12

Myeloma-related osteoporosis can be difficult to differentiate from primary osteoporosis because not all patients secrete a monoclonal protein that standard urine or serum tests can detect.13 But new assays for serum free light chains can help resolve this diagnostic dilemma.14

 

 

WHEN IS TESTING FOR MONOCLONAL GAMMOPATHIES WARRANTED?

Screening for MGUS in the general osteoporotic population is not warranted, since its prevalence (2.1%) is similar to that in the general population (2.9%) of women age 50 or older and 5.3% to 7.5% of all persons age 70 years or older.15,16 However, testing for monoclonal gammopathies is warranted when clinical or laboratory findings—eg, subtle hints such as an unexplained elevation in the erythrocyte sedimentation rate or a low anion gap—trigger diagnostic suspicion. Unexplained hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, unexplained anemia, hypo- and hypergammaglobulinemia, skeletal problems (eg, widespread osteoporosis, unexplained back or bone pain), and distal, symmetric polyneuropathy are the usual signs of underlying plasma cell neoplasia.

Signs of multiple myeloma: the CRAB mnemonic

Patients should be screened for multiple myeloma if they have any of the following presenting features not attributable to another disorder, using the mnemonic CRAB17:

Calcium elevation (serum calcium ≥ 11.5 mg/dL)

Renal insufficiency (serum creatinine > 1.73 mmol/L)

Anemia (normochromic, normocytic anema, with a hemoglobin value lower than 10 g/dL or more than 2 g/dL below the lower limit of normal)

Bone disease (lytic lesions, widespread osteoporosis, or bone fractures on skeletal survey, or a decline in bone mineral density or evidence of osteoporosis on DXA).

For the diagnosis of multiple myeloma to be made, the patient must have at least 10% clonal bone marrow plasma cells, evidence of a monoclonal protein in the serum or urine, and CRAB-related organ damage. When in doubt, referral for a hematologic evaluation is advised. Patients with signs of myeloma-related organ damage warrant prompt treatment.

Electrophoresis is not 100% sensitive

As the clinical cases above illustrate, standard testing for the monoclonal protein is not 100% sensitive for multiple myeloma, as some patients do not secrete the protein in the serum or urine.

In more than 97% of patients, the plasma cells that proliferate clonally produce a measurable monoclonal protein, such as an intact immunoglobulin only (eg, IgG kappa, IgA lambda), a light chain only (kappa or lambda), or intact immunoglobulins and free light chains. In the rest, no detectable monoclonal protein is produced, a disease subtype called nonsecretory multiple myeloma.

Of patients who secrete an intact immunoglobulin, 90% to 95% also produce excess free light chains.18,19 From 15% to 20% of patients with multiple myeloma secrete only light chains.1,20

Classically, serum and urine protein electrophoreses are the diagnostic tools used to evaluate monoclonal gammopathy, but urine electrophoresis detects only about 50% of myelomas.19

WHEN TO CONSIDER FREE LIGHT CHAIN ANALYSIS

While serum and urine protein electrophoreses are still the standard for screening for MGUS or multiple myeloma if one strongly suspects it, additional testing with serum free light chain analysis should be considered if patients exhibit CRAB-related features of myeloma-related organ damage, such as hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, or bone loss.

Serum assays for free kappa and free lambda light chains can detect circulating clonal free light chains in most patients with nonsecretory multiple myeloma. In one study,21 elevated concentrations of either kappa or lambda free light chains (and abnormal kappa-lambda ratios) were detected in the sera of 19 of 28 patients with nonsecretory multiple myeloma, such that the diagnosis could be changed to oligosecretory disease.

Several studies have also found serum light chain panels to be highly sensitive for the diagnosis of MGUS or multiple myeloma.22–24 Clonal light chains must be present in a concentration of at least 500 mg/L to be detected by serum protein electrophoresis, or at least 150 mg/L to be detected by serum immunofixation. 25 In contrast, free light chain immunoassays can measure free light chain concentrations of 3 mg/L or lower, and can therefore detect light-chain-related disorders despite negative results on serum protein electrophoresis or immunofixation.14

Cost-effectiveness of free light chain analysis

Serum free light chain assays appear to be more cost-effective than urine tests in screening for monoclonal gammopathy: Medicare reimbursement is $38 for the serum free light chain assay vs $71 for the urine assay, which includes total urine protein, urine protein electrophoresis, and urine immunofixation electrophoresis.22

The kappa-lambda ratio

Normal values for serum free light chains are:

  • Kappa 3.3–19.4 mg/L
  • Lambda 5.7–26.3 mg/L
  • Kappa-lambda ratio 0.26–1.65.

The kappa-lambda ratio is an indication of clonality.26,27 A ratio greater than 1.65 suggests a kappa free light chain monoclonal gammopathy; a ratio less than 0.26 suggests a lambda free light chain monoclonal gammopathy.

Importantly, in patients with renal impairment but no monoclonal gammopathy, the kappa-lambda ratio is often slightly higher—up to 3:1 because of reduced renal light chain clearance.26

However, not all patients with a monoclonal gammopathy have an abnormal free light chain ratio. Only one-third of patients with MGUS do, and these patients are at greater risk of progression to other plasma cell dyscrasias. 28 The free light chain ratio is normal in 5% to 10% of patients with intact immunoglobulin multiple myeloma.29,30 In a study of 116 patients with plasmacytoma, serum protein electrophoresis demonstrated an M-spike in half of patients, serum immunofixation was abnormal in two-thirds, and the kappa-lambda ratio was abnormal in half.31

A risk exists that MGUS will progress to multiple myeloma in patients who have an abnormal free light chain ratio. Thus, patients should be referred to a hematologist-oncologist for evaluation and monitoring if an abnormal kappa-lambda ratio is detected by serum free light chain assay.

Patients with abnormalities in the kappa-lambda ratio and no other evidence of monoclonal protein may harbor light-chain-related diseases only (eg, light chain multiple myeloma, primary amyloidosis, or light chain deposition disease) or a newly described entity, free light chain MGUS.14,19,27 An abnormal kappa-lambda ratio has also been noted in variable percentages of patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia and malignant lymphoma.32

References
  1. Weiss BM, Abadie J, Verma P, Howard RS, Kuehl WM. A monoclonal gammopathy precedes multiple myeloma in most patients. Blood 2009; 113:54185422.
  2. Siemionow K, Steinmetz M, Bell G, Ilaslan H, McLain RF. Identifying serious causes of back pain: cancer, infection, fracture. Cleve Clin J Med 2008; 75:557566.
  3. Binkley N, Krueger D. What should DXA reports contain? P of ordering health care providers. J Clin Densitom 2009; 12:510.
  4. Bonnick SL, Johnston CC, Kleerekoper M, et al Importance of precision in bone density measurements. J Clin Densitom 2001; 4:105110.
  5. Gold DE, Alexander IM, Ettinger MP. How can osteoporosis patients benefit more from their therapy? Adherence issues with bisphosphonate therapy. Ann Pharmacother 2006; 40:11431150.
  6. Cremers SC, Pillai G, Papapoulos SE. Pharmacokinetics/pharmacodynamics of bisphosphonates: use for optimisation of intermittent therapy for osteoporosis. Clin Pharmacokinet 2005; 44:551570.
  7. Lin JT, Lane JM. Bisphosphonates. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2003; 11:14.
  8. Licata AA. Diagnosing primary osteoporosis: it’s more than a T score. Cleve Clin J Med 2006; 73:473476.
  9. Swaminathan K, Flynn K, Garton M, Paterson C, Leese G. Search for secondary osteoporosis: are Z scores useful predictors? Postgrad Med J 2009; 85:3839.
  10. Clowes JA, Eastell R. The role of bone turnover markers and risk factors in the assessment of osteoporosis and fracture risk. Baillieres Best Pract Res Clin Endocrinol Metab 2000; 14:213232.
  11. Kyle RA, Gertz MA, Witzig TE, et al Review of 1027 patients with newly diagnosed multiple myeloma. Mayo Clin Proc 2003; 78:2133.
  12. Hussein MA, Vrionis FD, Allison R, et al., International Myeloma Working Group. The role of vertebral augmentation in multiple myeloma: International Myeloma Working Group Consensus Statement. Leukemia 2008; 22:14791484.
  13. Blade J, Kyle RA. Nonsecretory myeloma, immunoglobulin D myeloma, and plasma cell leukemia. Hematol Oncol Clin North Am 1999; 13:12591272.
  14. Bradwell AR, Carr-Smith HD, Mead GP, Harvey TC, Drayson MT. Serum test for assessment of patients with Bence Jones myeloma. Lancet 2003; 361:489491.
  15. Tannenbaum C, Clark J, Schwartzman K, et al Yield of laboratory testing to identify secondary contributors to osteoporosis in otherwise healthy women. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2002; 87:44314437.
  16. Kyle RA, Therneau TM, Rajkumar SV, et al Prevalence of monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. N Engl J Med 2006; 354:13621369.
  17. International Myeloma Working Group. Criteria for the classification of monoclonal gammopathies, multiple myeloma and related disorders: a report of the International Myeloma Working Group. Br J Haematol 2003; 121:749757.
  18. Pepe J, Petrucci MT, Nofroni I, et al Lumbar bone mineral density as the major factor determining increased prevalence of vertebral fractures in monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Br J Haematol 2006; 134:485490.
  19. Berenson JR, Yellin O, Boccia RV, et al Zoledronic acid markedly improves bone mineral density for patients with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance and bone loss. Clin Cancer Res 2008; 14:62896295.
  20. Pepe J, Petrucci MT, Mascia ML, et al The effects of alendronate treatment in osteoporotic patients affected by monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Calcif Tissue Int 2008; 82:418426.
  21. Drayson M, Tang LX, Drew R, Mead GP, Carr-Smith H, Bradwell AR. Serum free light-chain measurements for identifying and monitoring patients with nonsecretory multiple myeloma. Blood 2001; 97:29002902.
  22. Katzmann JA, Dispenzieri A, Kyle RA, et al Elimination of the need for urine studies in the screening algorithm for monoclonal gammopathies by using serum immunofixation and free light chain assays. Mayo Clin Proc 2006; 81:15751578.
  23. Abadie JM, van Hoeven KH, Wells JM. Are renal reference intervals required when screening for plasma cell disorders with serum free light chains and serum protein electrophoresis? Am J Clin Pathol 2009; 131:166171.
  24. Abadie JM, Bankson DD. Assessment of serum free light chain assays for plasma cell disorder screening in a Veterans Affairs population. Ann Clin Lab Sci 2006; 36:157162.
  25. Shaw GR. Nonsecretory plasma cell myeloma—becoming even more rare with serum free light-chain assay: a brief review. Arch Pathol Lab Med 2006; 130:12121215.
  26. Hutchison CA, Harding S, Hewins P, et al Quantitative assessment of serum and urinary polyclonal free light chains in patients with chronic kidney disease. Clin J Am Soc Nephrol 2008; 3:16841690.
  27. Katzmann JA, Clark RJ, Abraham RS, et al Serum reference intervals and diagnostic ranges for free kappa and free lambda immunoglobulin light chains: relative sensitivity for detection of monoclonal light chains. Clin Chem 2002; 48:14371444.
  28. Rajkumar SV, Kyle RA, Therneau TM, et al Serum free light chain ratio is an independent risk factor for progression in monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Blood 2005; 106:812817.
  29. Mead GP, Carr-Smith HD, Drayson MT, Morgan GJ, Child JA, Bradwell AR. Serum free light chains for monitoring multiple myeloma. Br J Haematol 2004; 126:348354.
  30. Dispenzieri A, Zhang L, Katzmann JA, et al Appraisal of immunoglobulin free light chain as a marker of response. Blood 2008; 111:49084915.
  31. Dingli D, Kyle RA, Rajkumar SV, et al Immunoglobulin free light chains and solitary plasmacytoma of bone. Blood 2006; 108:19791983.
  32. Martin W, Abraham R, Shanafelt T, et al Serum-free light chain—a new biomarker for patients with B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Transl Res 2007; 149:231235.
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Angelo A. Licata, MD, PhD
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Address: Beth Faiman, MSN, CNP, Taussig Cancer Institute, R33, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Address: Beth Faiman, MSN, CNP, Taussig Cancer Institute, R33, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Address: Beth Faiman, MSN, CNP, Taussig Cancer Institute, R33, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Sometimes, osteoporosis can be the presenting sign of a monoclonal gammopathy, which in some people may precede a diagnosis of multiple myeloma.1

In this article, we use two cases to illustrate the challenges of detecting monoclonal gammopathies as the cause of secondary osteoporosis. We also discuss the diagnostic limitations of current tests and the advantages of a newer test—measuring the serum levels of free light chains—in the workup of these patients.

CASE 1: A 55-YEAR-OLD WOMAN WITH BACK PAIN

A 55-year-old woman develops back pain after walking her dog, and the pain worsens despite treatment with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug for 1 week.

The patient has a history of well-controlled hypertension. She went through menopause 5 years ago, and about 2 years ago she was started on oral calcium and vitamin D for low bone density. At that time she complained of mild fatigue, which she attributed to working overtime and to lack of sleep.

Figure 1. Case 1. Plain film x-ray of the thoracic spine shows osteopenia of the spinal segments and a T10 wedge compression fracture (arrow).
On physical examination, her back in the area of T10 is tender to palpation, and plain radiography shows a compression deformity there (Figure 1). Over the past 2 years, her bone mineral density—ie, T scores on dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)—has decreased 10% in the spine and 6% in the hip.

Laboratory data, other tests

  • Her white blood cell differential count is normal
  • Hemoglobin 11.8 g/dL (normal range 12–15)
  • Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL (0.5–1.4)
  • Calcium 8.2 mg/dL (8.0–10.0)
  • Albumin 4.5 g/dL (3.5–5.0)
  • Total protein 5.7 g/dL (6.0–8.4)
  • Serum and urine protein electrophoreses show no monoclonal spike (M-spike) or bands
  • Serum free kappa light chains 5,542 mg/L (normal range 3.3–19.4).

Based on the elevation of serum free kappa light chains, the patient undergoes bone marrow aspiration biopsy. Histologic analysis reveals plasmacytosis (60% of her marrow cells are plasma cells [normal is < 5%]) with kappa light chain restriction.

A complete x-ray survey of the skull and long bones reveals widespread lytic lesions, consistent with multiple myeloma.

CASE 2: AN 88-YEAR-OLD MAN WITH MALAISE AND BACK PAIN

An 88-year-old man sees his family doctor because of malaise and back pain. He was treated for bladder cancer several years ago. He is currently being treated for prostatic hyperplasia, hypertension, and arthritis. Spinal radiography shows a compression deformity at T12, for which he undergoes kyphoplasty.

His complete blood cell count, white blood cell differential count, and kidney and metabolic profiles are normal.

Urine protein electrophoresis is normal, but serum electrophoresis detects an M-spike. On DXA of the hip, his T score is −3.7 (normal ≥ −1.0), and his Z score is −2.4 (normal > −2.0); suspicion of a secondary cause may be raised with Z scores of −1.0 or −1.5. The level of urinary NTX (cross-linked N-telopeptide of type I collagen, a marker of bone turnover) is 190 nmol bone collagen equivalents/nmol creatinine (normal range for men < 75), indicating a high level of bone turnover.

A serum free light chain assay shows twice the normal concentration of kappa light chains. The patient is referred for hematologic study and undergoes bone marrrow aspiration biopsy, which shows an abnormally high number of monoclonal plasma cells.

LESSONS FROM THESE CASES

The cases presented above illustrate several key clinical points:

  • Minor back pain can be a symptom of a spinal compression fracture.
  • Declining bone density should raise the suspicion of secondary osteoporosis, as should an abnormally low Z score.
  • Markers of bone turnover are commonly elevated in secondary osteoporosis.
  • Routine laboratory tests often fail to detect multiple myeloma.

BACK PAIN AS A SYMPTOM OF SPINAL COMPRESSION FRACTURE

Back pain is a very common complaint, and fortunately, most cases are due to benign causes. However, serious causes such as cancer, infection, and fractures must be considered. The topic has been reviewed in detail by Siemionow et al.2

Osteoporotic compression fractures are common in the elderly and are associated with loss of height. They can occur spontaneously or from minimal trauma. The workup can start with plain anteroposterior and lateral radiographs and routine laboratory tests, as in the patients described above. This information, as well as DXA testing, may provide clues that suggest that the osteoporosis is secondary to an underlying problem, or that a coexisting bone condition caused the fracture.

 

 

DXA CAN SUGGEST SECONDARY OSTEOPOROSIS

Declining bone density

Standard DXA testing is used to identify patients at high risk of fragility fractures from osteoporosis. It is also the accepted way to monitor disease progression and efficacy of treatment.

However, when checking to see if a patient’s bone density has changed over time, one must recognize that variations in technique from center to center or operator to operator can produce false changes in DXA results. 3,4 The testing center should state its own level of variance (referred to as the least significant change) and should indicate whether changes in a patient’s follow-up test results are statistically significant (ie, exceed that level).

A significant decline in bone mineral density over time may indicate that the patient is either not taking his or her medications or is not taking them as directed, as often happens with oral bisphosphonates—which must be taken first thing in the morning, on an empty stomach, with only a glass of water, at least 30 minutes before breakfast, during which time the patient must remain in an upright position.5–7 But a decline also raises the suspicion of an underlying condition instead of or in addition to osteoporosis, as described in the cases above. The normal decline in bone mineral density due to aging is 0.1% to 0.2% per year. For women 5 years after menopause, the rate increases to 1% to 2% and then slows to the rate of decline due to aging. A decline in bone density to the degree seen in case 1 is more than that which could be attributed to primary osteoporosis, and so an underlying cause must be considered.

Abnormally low Z scores also raise the suspicion of secondary osteoporosis

The T score is the difference, in standard deviations, between the patient’s bone density and the mean value in a population of healthy young adults. Since bone density tends to decline with age, so does the T score.

In contrast, the Z score compares a patient’s bone density with the mean value in a population the same age and sex as the patient. When it is abnormally low, it implies greater bone loss than predicted by aging alone or greater than expected from primary disease, so a secondary disorder must be considered.8,9 This was the case in our second patient, who had a Z score of −2.4.

No specific Z score cutoff has been established. Rather, the physician should be suspicious when it is lower than about −1.0 and when something in the patient’s clinical presentation, history, or laboratory evaluation raises suspicion of an underlying condition. In other words, the Z score is useful not by itself, but in context with other information.

In a retrospective analysis of men and women with osteoporosis, Swaminathan et al9 reported that a Z score cutoff of −1.0 had a sensitivity of 87.5% for detecting an underlying cause of osteoporosis.

Again, we want to emphasize that a low Z score alone is not sufficient to make a diagnosis of a secondary cause of osteoporosis. But it is good to be suspicious when a Z score is as low as in our second case and when that suspicion is reinforced by other clinical data.

MARKERS OF BONE TURNOVER

Biochemical markers of bone resorption, such as urinary NTX and the cross-linked C-telopeptide of type I collagen (CTX), have been shown to predict fracture risk independent of bone density measurements. The evidence to date supports the use of these markers in conjunction with bone density measurements to ascertain early on whether osteoporosis is responding to treatment, but their use alone to screen for osteoporosis is not encouraged.10

The markedly high level of NTX in our second patient would be unusual in primary disease—it implies a high degree of bone turnover and, in concert with the clinical information, suggests secondary osteoporosis.

SOME CAUSES OF SECONDARY BONE LOSS

If a patient has a low Z score, a declining T score, or other clues, it is critical to evaluate for causes of secondary bone loss, such as8:

  • Endocrine disorders (Cushing syndrome, hyperparathyroidism, hypogonadism)
  • Gastrointestinal disorders (malabsorption, cirrhosis, gastric bypass surgery)
  • Renal insufficiency and failure
  • Pulmonary diseases and their treatment
  • Drug use (corticosteroids, antigonadotropins, anticonvulsants, aromatase inhibitors, antirejection drugs)
  • Nutritional factors (alcohol abuse, smoking, eating disorders)
  • Neurologic disease or its treatment
  • Transplantation
  • Genetic metabolic disorders
  • Malignancy.

As in the scenarios presented above, unexplained changes in bone mineral density and mild anemia may trigger an evaluation for a monoclonal gammopathy.

MULTIPLE MYELOMA

Multiple myeloma is a cancer of the immunoglobulin-producing plasma cells in the bone marrow. Since the cancerous cells are clones, they all produce the same immunoglobulin—thus, the distinctive M-spike on serum or urine protein electrophoresis. It affects about 50,000 people in the United States.

The typical features of multiple myeloma are hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, and bone lesions with or without osteoporosis. 11 Most patients have identifiable features of myeloma at the time of diagnosis, but perhaps 20% lack the characteristic symptoms of fatigue, back pain, or bone pain.

Most patients who eventually develop symptomatic multiple myeloma first present with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS), a disorder characterized by asymptomatic overproduction of an immunoglobulin. However, MGUS develops into multiple myeloma in only about 15% of cases.11

Widespread osteoporosis, due to cytokine-mediated osteoclast activation, is common in patients with multiple myeloma. As many as 90% of patients have lytic skeletal lesions or osteoporosis at the time of diagnosis.11,12

Myeloma-related osteoporosis can be difficult to differentiate from primary osteoporosis because not all patients secrete a monoclonal protein that standard urine or serum tests can detect.13 But new assays for serum free light chains can help resolve this diagnostic dilemma.14

 

 

WHEN IS TESTING FOR MONOCLONAL GAMMOPATHIES WARRANTED?

Screening for MGUS in the general osteoporotic population is not warranted, since its prevalence (2.1%) is similar to that in the general population (2.9%) of women age 50 or older and 5.3% to 7.5% of all persons age 70 years or older.15,16 However, testing for monoclonal gammopathies is warranted when clinical or laboratory findings—eg, subtle hints such as an unexplained elevation in the erythrocyte sedimentation rate or a low anion gap—trigger diagnostic suspicion. Unexplained hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, unexplained anemia, hypo- and hypergammaglobulinemia, skeletal problems (eg, widespread osteoporosis, unexplained back or bone pain), and distal, symmetric polyneuropathy are the usual signs of underlying plasma cell neoplasia.

Signs of multiple myeloma: the CRAB mnemonic

Patients should be screened for multiple myeloma if they have any of the following presenting features not attributable to another disorder, using the mnemonic CRAB17:

Calcium elevation (serum calcium ≥ 11.5 mg/dL)

Renal insufficiency (serum creatinine > 1.73 mmol/L)

Anemia (normochromic, normocytic anema, with a hemoglobin value lower than 10 g/dL or more than 2 g/dL below the lower limit of normal)

Bone disease (lytic lesions, widespread osteoporosis, or bone fractures on skeletal survey, or a decline in bone mineral density or evidence of osteoporosis on DXA).

For the diagnosis of multiple myeloma to be made, the patient must have at least 10% clonal bone marrow plasma cells, evidence of a monoclonal protein in the serum or urine, and CRAB-related organ damage. When in doubt, referral for a hematologic evaluation is advised. Patients with signs of myeloma-related organ damage warrant prompt treatment.

Electrophoresis is not 100% sensitive

As the clinical cases above illustrate, standard testing for the monoclonal protein is not 100% sensitive for multiple myeloma, as some patients do not secrete the protein in the serum or urine.

In more than 97% of patients, the plasma cells that proliferate clonally produce a measurable monoclonal protein, such as an intact immunoglobulin only (eg, IgG kappa, IgA lambda), a light chain only (kappa or lambda), or intact immunoglobulins and free light chains. In the rest, no detectable monoclonal protein is produced, a disease subtype called nonsecretory multiple myeloma.

Of patients who secrete an intact immunoglobulin, 90% to 95% also produce excess free light chains.18,19 From 15% to 20% of patients with multiple myeloma secrete only light chains.1,20

Classically, serum and urine protein electrophoreses are the diagnostic tools used to evaluate monoclonal gammopathy, but urine electrophoresis detects only about 50% of myelomas.19

WHEN TO CONSIDER FREE LIGHT CHAIN ANALYSIS

While serum and urine protein electrophoreses are still the standard for screening for MGUS or multiple myeloma if one strongly suspects it, additional testing with serum free light chain analysis should be considered if patients exhibit CRAB-related features of myeloma-related organ damage, such as hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, or bone loss.

Serum assays for free kappa and free lambda light chains can detect circulating clonal free light chains in most patients with nonsecretory multiple myeloma. In one study,21 elevated concentrations of either kappa or lambda free light chains (and abnormal kappa-lambda ratios) were detected in the sera of 19 of 28 patients with nonsecretory multiple myeloma, such that the diagnosis could be changed to oligosecretory disease.

Several studies have also found serum light chain panels to be highly sensitive for the diagnosis of MGUS or multiple myeloma.22–24 Clonal light chains must be present in a concentration of at least 500 mg/L to be detected by serum protein electrophoresis, or at least 150 mg/L to be detected by serum immunofixation. 25 In contrast, free light chain immunoassays can measure free light chain concentrations of 3 mg/L or lower, and can therefore detect light-chain-related disorders despite negative results on serum protein electrophoresis or immunofixation.14

Cost-effectiveness of free light chain analysis

Serum free light chain assays appear to be more cost-effective than urine tests in screening for monoclonal gammopathy: Medicare reimbursement is $38 for the serum free light chain assay vs $71 for the urine assay, which includes total urine protein, urine protein electrophoresis, and urine immunofixation electrophoresis.22

The kappa-lambda ratio

Normal values for serum free light chains are:

  • Kappa 3.3–19.4 mg/L
  • Lambda 5.7–26.3 mg/L
  • Kappa-lambda ratio 0.26–1.65.

The kappa-lambda ratio is an indication of clonality.26,27 A ratio greater than 1.65 suggests a kappa free light chain monoclonal gammopathy; a ratio less than 0.26 suggests a lambda free light chain monoclonal gammopathy.

Importantly, in patients with renal impairment but no monoclonal gammopathy, the kappa-lambda ratio is often slightly higher—up to 3:1 because of reduced renal light chain clearance.26

However, not all patients with a monoclonal gammopathy have an abnormal free light chain ratio. Only one-third of patients with MGUS do, and these patients are at greater risk of progression to other plasma cell dyscrasias. 28 The free light chain ratio is normal in 5% to 10% of patients with intact immunoglobulin multiple myeloma.29,30 In a study of 116 patients with plasmacytoma, serum protein electrophoresis demonstrated an M-spike in half of patients, serum immunofixation was abnormal in two-thirds, and the kappa-lambda ratio was abnormal in half.31

A risk exists that MGUS will progress to multiple myeloma in patients who have an abnormal free light chain ratio. Thus, patients should be referred to a hematologist-oncologist for evaluation and monitoring if an abnormal kappa-lambda ratio is detected by serum free light chain assay.

Patients with abnormalities in the kappa-lambda ratio and no other evidence of monoclonal protein may harbor light-chain-related diseases only (eg, light chain multiple myeloma, primary amyloidosis, or light chain deposition disease) or a newly described entity, free light chain MGUS.14,19,27 An abnormal kappa-lambda ratio has also been noted in variable percentages of patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia and malignant lymphoma.32

Sometimes, osteoporosis can be the presenting sign of a monoclonal gammopathy, which in some people may precede a diagnosis of multiple myeloma.1

In this article, we use two cases to illustrate the challenges of detecting monoclonal gammopathies as the cause of secondary osteoporosis. We also discuss the diagnostic limitations of current tests and the advantages of a newer test—measuring the serum levels of free light chains—in the workup of these patients.

CASE 1: A 55-YEAR-OLD WOMAN WITH BACK PAIN

A 55-year-old woman develops back pain after walking her dog, and the pain worsens despite treatment with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug for 1 week.

The patient has a history of well-controlled hypertension. She went through menopause 5 years ago, and about 2 years ago she was started on oral calcium and vitamin D for low bone density. At that time she complained of mild fatigue, which she attributed to working overtime and to lack of sleep.

Figure 1. Case 1. Plain film x-ray of the thoracic spine shows osteopenia of the spinal segments and a T10 wedge compression fracture (arrow).
On physical examination, her back in the area of T10 is tender to palpation, and plain radiography shows a compression deformity there (Figure 1). Over the past 2 years, her bone mineral density—ie, T scores on dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)—has decreased 10% in the spine and 6% in the hip.

Laboratory data, other tests

  • Her white blood cell differential count is normal
  • Hemoglobin 11.8 g/dL (normal range 12–15)
  • Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL (0.5–1.4)
  • Calcium 8.2 mg/dL (8.0–10.0)
  • Albumin 4.5 g/dL (3.5–5.0)
  • Total protein 5.7 g/dL (6.0–8.4)
  • Serum and urine protein electrophoreses show no monoclonal spike (M-spike) or bands
  • Serum free kappa light chains 5,542 mg/L (normal range 3.3–19.4).

Based on the elevation of serum free kappa light chains, the patient undergoes bone marrow aspiration biopsy. Histologic analysis reveals plasmacytosis (60% of her marrow cells are plasma cells [normal is < 5%]) with kappa light chain restriction.

A complete x-ray survey of the skull and long bones reveals widespread lytic lesions, consistent with multiple myeloma.

CASE 2: AN 88-YEAR-OLD MAN WITH MALAISE AND BACK PAIN

An 88-year-old man sees his family doctor because of malaise and back pain. He was treated for bladder cancer several years ago. He is currently being treated for prostatic hyperplasia, hypertension, and arthritis. Spinal radiography shows a compression deformity at T12, for which he undergoes kyphoplasty.

His complete blood cell count, white blood cell differential count, and kidney and metabolic profiles are normal.

Urine protein electrophoresis is normal, but serum electrophoresis detects an M-spike. On DXA of the hip, his T score is −3.7 (normal ≥ −1.0), and his Z score is −2.4 (normal > −2.0); suspicion of a secondary cause may be raised with Z scores of −1.0 or −1.5. The level of urinary NTX (cross-linked N-telopeptide of type I collagen, a marker of bone turnover) is 190 nmol bone collagen equivalents/nmol creatinine (normal range for men < 75), indicating a high level of bone turnover.

A serum free light chain assay shows twice the normal concentration of kappa light chains. The patient is referred for hematologic study and undergoes bone marrrow aspiration biopsy, which shows an abnormally high number of monoclonal plasma cells.

LESSONS FROM THESE CASES

The cases presented above illustrate several key clinical points:

  • Minor back pain can be a symptom of a spinal compression fracture.
  • Declining bone density should raise the suspicion of secondary osteoporosis, as should an abnormally low Z score.
  • Markers of bone turnover are commonly elevated in secondary osteoporosis.
  • Routine laboratory tests often fail to detect multiple myeloma.

BACK PAIN AS A SYMPTOM OF SPINAL COMPRESSION FRACTURE

Back pain is a very common complaint, and fortunately, most cases are due to benign causes. However, serious causes such as cancer, infection, and fractures must be considered. The topic has been reviewed in detail by Siemionow et al.2

Osteoporotic compression fractures are common in the elderly and are associated with loss of height. They can occur spontaneously or from minimal trauma. The workup can start with plain anteroposterior and lateral radiographs and routine laboratory tests, as in the patients described above. This information, as well as DXA testing, may provide clues that suggest that the osteoporosis is secondary to an underlying problem, or that a coexisting bone condition caused the fracture.

 

 

DXA CAN SUGGEST SECONDARY OSTEOPOROSIS

Declining bone density

Standard DXA testing is used to identify patients at high risk of fragility fractures from osteoporosis. It is also the accepted way to monitor disease progression and efficacy of treatment.

However, when checking to see if a patient’s bone density has changed over time, one must recognize that variations in technique from center to center or operator to operator can produce false changes in DXA results. 3,4 The testing center should state its own level of variance (referred to as the least significant change) and should indicate whether changes in a patient’s follow-up test results are statistically significant (ie, exceed that level).

A significant decline in bone mineral density over time may indicate that the patient is either not taking his or her medications or is not taking them as directed, as often happens with oral bisphosphonates—which must be taken first thing in the morning, on an empty stomach, with only a glass of water, at least 30 minutes before breakfast, during which time the patient must remain in an upright position.5–7 But a decline also raises the suspicion of an underlying condition instead of or in addition to osteoporosis, as described in the cases above. The normal decline in bone mineral density due to aging is 0.1% to 0.2% per year. For women 5 years after menopause, the rate increases to 1% to 2% and then slows to the rate of decline due to aging. A decline in bone density to the degree seen in case 1 is more than that which could be attributed to primary osteoporosis, and so an underlying cause must be considered.

Abnormally low Z scores also raise the suspicion of secondary osteoporosis

The T score is the difference, in standard deviations, between the patient’s bone density and the mean value in a population of healthy young adults. Since bone density tends to decline with age, so does the T score.

In contrast, the Z score compares a patient’s bone density with the mean value in a population the same age and sex as the patient. When it is abnormally low, it implies greater bone loss than predicted by aging alone or greater than expected from primary disease, so a secondary disorder must be considered.8,9 This was the case in our second patient, who had a Z score of −2.4.

No specific Z score cutoff has been established. Rather, the physician should be suspicious when it is lower than about −1.0 and when something in the patient’s clinical presentation, history, or laboratory evaluation raises suspicion of an underlying condition. In other words, the Z score is useful not by itself, but in context with other information.

In a retrospective analysis of men and women with osteoporosis, Swaminathan et al9 reported that a Z score cutoff of −1.0 had a sensitivity of 87.5% for detecting an underlying cause of osteoporosis.

Again, we want to emphasize that a low Z score alone is not sufficient to make a diagnosis of a secondary cause of osteoporosis. But it is good to be suspicious when a Z score is as low as in our second case and when that suspicion is reinforced by other clinical data.

MARKERS OF BONE TURNOVER

Biochemical markers of bone resorption, such as urinary NTX and the cross-linked C-telopeptide of type I collagen (CTX), have been shown to predict fracture risk independent of bone density measurements. The evidence to date supports the use of these markers in conjunction with bone density measurements to ascertain early on whether osteoporosis is responding to treatment, but their use alone to screen for osteoporosis is not encouraged.10

The markedly high level of NTX in our second patient would be unusual in primary disease—it implies a high degree of bone turnover and, in concert with the clinical information, suggests secondary osteoporosis.

SOME CAUSES OF SECONDARY BONE LOSS

If a patient has a low Z score, a declining T score, or other clues, it is critical to evaluate for causes of secondary bone loss, such as8:

  • Endocrine disorders (Cushing syndrome, hyperparathyroidism, hypogonadism)
  • Gastrointestinal disorders (malabsorption, cirrhosis, gastric bypass surgery)
  • Renal insufficiency and failure
  • Pulmonary diseases and their treatment
  • Drug use (corticosteroids, antigonadotropins, anticonvulsants, aromatase inhibitors, antirejection drugs)
  • Nutritional factors (alcohol abuse, smoking, eating disorders)
  • Neurologic disease or its treatment
  • Transplantation
  • Genetic metabolic disorders
  • Malignancy.

As in the scenarios presented above, unexplained changes in bone mineral density and mild anemia may trigger an evaluation for a monoclonal gammopathy.

MULTIPLE MYELOMA

Multiple myeloma is a cancer of the immunoglobulin-producing plasma cells in the bone marrow. Since the cancerous cells are clones, they all produce the same immunoglobulin—thus, the distinctive M-spike on serum or urine protein electrophoresis. It affects about 50,000 people in the United States.

The typical features of multiple myeloma are hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, and bone lesions with or without osteoporosis. 11 Most patients have identifiable features of myeloma at the time of diagnosis, but perhaps 20% lack the characteristic symptoms of fatigue, back pain, or bone pain.

Most patients who eventually develop symptomatic multiple myeloma first present with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS), a disorder characterized by asymptomatic overproduction of an immunoglobulin. However, MGUS develops into multiple myeloma in only about 15% of cases.11

Widespread osteoporosis, due to cytokine-mediated osteoclast activation, is common in patients with multiple myeloma. As many as 90% of patients have lytic skeletal lesions or osteoporosis at the time of diagnosis.11,12

Myeloma-related osteoporosis can be difficult to differentiate from primary osteoporosis because not all patients secrete a monoclonal protein that standard urine or serum tests can detect.13 But new assays for serum free light chains can help resolve this diagnostic dilemma.14

 

 

WHEN IS TESTING FOR MONOCLONAL GAMMOPATHIES WARRANTED?

Screening for MGUS in the general osteoporotic population is not warranted, since its prevalence (2.1%) is similar to that in the general population (2.9%) of women age 50 or older and 5.3% to 7.5% of all persons age 70 years or older.15,16 However, testing for monoclonal gammopathies is warranted when clinical or laboratory findings—eg, subtle hints such as an unexplained elevation in the erythrocyte sedimentation rate or a low anion gap—trigger diagnostic suspicion. Unexplained hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, unexplained anemia, hypo- and hypergammaglobulinemia, skeletal problems (eg, widespread osteoporosis, unexplained back or bone pain), and distal, symmetric polyneuropathy are the usual signs of underlying plasma cell neoplasia.

Signs of multiple myeloma: the CRAB mnemonic

Patients should be screened for multiple myeloma if they have any of the following presenting features not attributable to another disorder, using the mnemonic CRAB17:

Calcium elevation (serum calcium ≥ 11.5 mg/dL)

Renal insufficiency (serum creatinine > 1.73 mmol/L)

Anemia (normochromic, normocytic anema, with a hemoglobin value lower than 10 g/dL or more than 2 g/dL below the lower limit of normal)

Bone disease (lytic lesions, widespread osteoporosis, or bone fractures on skeletal survey, or a decline in bone mineral density or evidence of osteoporosis on DXA).

For the diagnosis of multiple myeloma to be made, the patient must have at least 10% clonal bone marrow plasma cells, evidence of a monoclonal protein in the serum or urine, and CRAB-related organ damage. When in doubt, referral for a hematologic evaluation is advised. Patients with signs of myeloma-related organ damage warrant prompt treatment.

Electrophoresis is not 100% sensitive

As the clinical cases above illustrate, standard testing for the monoclonal protein is not 100% sensitive for multiple myeloma, as some patients do not secrete the protein in the serum or urine.

In more than 97% of patients, the plasma cells that proliferate clonally produce a measurable monoclonal protein, such as an intact immunoglobulin only (eg, IgG kappa, IgA lambda), a light chain only (kappa or lambda), or intact immunoglobulins and free light chains. In the rest, no detectable monoclonal protein is produced, a disease subtype called nonsecretory multiple myeloma.

Of patients who secrete an intact immunoglobulin, 90% to 95% also produce excess free light chains.18,19 From 15% to 20% of patients with multiple myeloma secrete only light chains.1,20

Classically, serum and urine protein electrophoreses are the diagnostic tools used to evaluate monoclonal gammopathy, but urine electrophoresis detects only about 50% of myelomas.19

WHEN TO CONSIDER FREE LIGHT CHAIN ANALYSIS

While serum and urine protein electrophoreses are still the standard for screening for MGUS or multiple myeloma if one strongly suspects it, additional testing with serum free light chain analysis should be considered if patients exhibit CRAB-related features of myeloma-related organ damage, such as hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, or bone loss.

Serum assays for free kappa and free lambda light chains can detect circulating clonal free light chains in most patients with nonsecretory multiple myeloma. In one study,21 elevated concentrations of either kappa or lambda free light chains (and abnormal kappa-lambda ratios) were detected in the sera of 19 of 28 patients with nonsecretory multiple myeloma, such that the diagnosis could be changed to oligosecretory disease.

Several studies have also found serum light chain panels to be highly sensitive for the diagnosis of MGUS or multiple myeloma.22–24 Clonal light chains must be present in a concentration of at least 500 mg/L to be detected by serum protein electrophoresis, or at least 150 mg/L to be detected by serum immunofixation. 25 In contrast, free light chain immunoassays can measure free light chain concentrations of 3 mg/L or lower, and can therefore detect light-chain-related disorders despite negative results on serum protein electrophoresis or immunofixation.14

Cost-effectiveness of free light chain analysis

Serum free light chain assays appear to be more cost-effective than urine tests in screening for monoclonal gammopathy: Medicare reimbursement is $38 for the serum free light chain assay vs $71 for the urine assay, which includes total urine protein, urine protein electrophoresis, and urine immunofixation electrophoresis.22

The kappa-lambda ratio

Normal values for serum free light chains are:

  • Kappa 3.3–19.4 mg/L
  • Lambda 5.7–26.3 mg/L
  • Kappa-lambda ratio 0.26–1.65.

The kappa-lambda ratio is an indication of clonality.26,27 A ratio greater than 1.65 suggests a kappa free light chain monoclonal gammopathy; a ratio less than 0.26 suggests a lambda free light chain monoclonal gammopathy.

Importantly, in patients with renal impairment but no monoclonal gammopathy, the kappa-lambda ratio is often slightly higher—up to 3:1 because of reduced renal light chain clearance.26

However, not all patients with a monoclonal gammopathy have an abnormal free light chain ratio. Only one-third of patients with MGUS do, and these patients are at greater risk of progression to other plasma cell dyscrasias. 28 The free light chain ratio is normal in 5% to 10% of patients with intact immunoglobulin multiple myeloma.29,30 In a study of 116 patients with plasmacytoma, serum protein electrophoresis demonstrated an M-spike in half of patients, serum immunofixation was abnormal in two-thirds, and the kappa-lambda ratio was abnormal in half.31

A risk exists that MGUS will progress to multiple myeloma in patients who have an abnormal free light chain ratio. Thus, patients should be referred to a hematologist-oncologist for evaluation and monitoring if an abnormal kappa-lambda ratio is detected by serum free light chain assay.

Patients with abnormalities in the kappa-lambda ratio and no other evidence of monoclonal protein may harbor light-chain-related diseases only (eg, light chain multiple myeloma, primary amyloidosis, or light chain deposition disease) or a newly described entity, free light chain MGUS.14,19,27 An abnormal kappa-lambda ratio has also been noted in variable percentages of patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia and malignant lymphoma.32

References
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  2. Siemionow K, Steinmetz M, Bell G, Ilaslan H, McLain RF. Identifying serious causes of back pain: cancer, infection, fracture. Cleve Clin J Med 2008; 75:557566.
  3. Binkley N, Krueger D. What should DXA reports contain? P of ordering health care providers. J Clin Densitom 2009; 12:510.
  4. Bonnick SL, Johnston CC, Kleerekoper M, et al Importance of precision in bone density measurements. J Clin Densitom 2001; 4:105110.
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  6. Cremers SC, Pillai G, Papapoulos SE. Pharmacokinetics/pharmacodynamics of bisphosphonates: use for optimisation of intermittent therapy for osteoporosis. Clin Pharmacokinet 2005; 44:551570.
  7. Lin JT, Lane JM. Bisphosphonates. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2003; 11:14.
  8. Licata AA. Diagnosing primary osteoporosis: it’s more than a T score. Cleve Clin J Med 2006; 73:473476.
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  10. Clowes JA, Eastell R. The role of bone turnover markers and risk factors in the assessment of osteoporosis and fracture risk. Baillieres Best Pract Res Clin Endocrinol Metab 2000; 14:213232.
  11. Kyle RA, Gertz MA, Witzig TE, et al Review of 1027 patients with newly diagnosed multiple myeloma. Mayo Clin Proc 2003; 78:2133.
  12. Hussein MA, Vrionis FD, Allison R, et al., International Myeloma Working Group. The role of vertebral augmentation in multiple myeloma: International Myeloma Working Group Consensus Statement. Leukemia 2008; 22:14791484.
  13. Blade J, Kyle RA. Nonsecretory myeloma, immunoglobulin D myeloma, and plasma cell leukemia. Hematol Oncol Clin North Am 1999; 13:12591272.
  14. Bradwell AR, Carr-Smith HD, Mead GP, Harvey TC, Drayson MT. Serum test for assessment of patients with Bence Jones myeloma. Lancet 2003; 361:489491.
  15. Tannenbaum C, Clark J, Schwartzman K, et al Yield of laboratory testing to identify secondary contributors to osteoporosis in otherwise healthy women. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2002; 87:44314437.
  16. Kyle RA, Therneau TM, Rajkumar SV, et al Prevalence of monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. N Engl J Med 2006; 354:13621369.
  17. International Myeloma Working Group. Criteria for the classification of monoclonal gammopathies, multiple myeloma and related disorders: a report of the International Myeloma Working Group. Br J Haematol 2003; 121:749757.
  18. Pepe J, Petrucci MT, Nofroni I, et al Lumbar bone mineral density as the major factor determining increased prevalence of vertebral fractures in monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Br J Haematol 2006; 134:485490.
  19. Berenson JR, Yellin O, Boccia RV, et al Zoledronic acid markedly improves bone mineral density for patients with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance and bone loss. Clin Cancer Res 2008; 14:62896295.
  20. Pepe J, Petrucci MT, Mascia ML, et al The effects of alendronate treatment in osteoporotic patients affected by monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Calcif Tissue Int 2008; 82:418426.
  21. Drayson M, Tang LX, Drew R, Mead GP, Carr-Smith H, Bradwell AR. Serum free light-chain measurements for identifying and monitoring patients with nonsecretory multiple myeloma. Blood 2001; 97:29002902.
  22. Katzmann JA, Dispenzieri A, Kyle RA, et al Elimination of the need for urine studies in the screening algorithm for monoclonal gammopathies by using serum immunofixation and free light chain assays. Mayo Clin Proc 2006; 81:15751578.
  23. Abadie JM, van Hoeven KH, Wells JM. Are renal reference intervals required when screening for plasma cell disorders with serum free light chains and serum protein electrophoresis? Am J Clin Pathol 2009; 131:166171.
  24. Abadie JM, Bankson DD. Assessment of serum free light chain assays for plasma cell disorder screening in a Veterans Affairs population. Ann Clin Lab Sci 2006; 36:157162.
  25. Shaw GR. Nonsecretory plasma cell myeloma—becoming even more rare with serum free light-chain assay: a brief review. Arch Pathol Lab Med 2006; 130:12121215.
  26. Hutchison CA, Harding S, Hewins P, et al Quantitative assessment of serum and urinary polyclonal free light chains in patients with chronic kidney disease. Clin J Am Soc Nephrol 2008; 3:16841690.
  27. Katzmann JA, Clark RJ, Abraham RS, et al Serum reference intervals and diagnostic ranges for free kappa and free lambda immunoglobulin light chains: relative sensitivity for detection of monoclonal light chains. Clin Chem 2002; 48:14371444.
  28. Rajkumar SV, Kyle RA, Therneau TM, et al Serum free light chain ratio is an independent risk factor for progression in monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Blood 2005; 106:812817.
  29. Mead GP, Carr-Smith HD, Drayson MT, Morgan GJ, Child JA, Bradwell AR. Serum free light chains for monitoring multiple myeloma. Br J Haematol 2004; 126:348354.
  30. Dispenzieri A, Zhang L, Katzmann JA, et al Appraisal of immunoglobulin free light chain as a marker of response. Blood 2008; 111:49084915.
  31. Dingli D, Kyle RA, Rajkumar SV, et al Immunoglobulin free light chains and solitary plasmacytoma of bone. Blood 2006; 108:19791983.
  32. Martin W, Abraham R, Shanafelt T, et al Serum-free light chain—a new biomarker for patients with B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Transl Res 2007; 149:231235.
References
  1. Weiss BM, Abadie J, Verma P, Howard RS, Kuehl WM. A monoclonal gammopathy precedes multiple myeloma in most patients. Blood 2009; 113:54185422.
  2. Siemionow K, Steinmetz M, Bell G, Ilaslan H, McLain RF. Identifying serious causes of back pain: cancer, infection, fracture. Cleve Clin J Med 2008; 75:557566.
  3. Binkley N, Krueger D. What should DXA reports contain? P of ordering health care providers. J Clin Densitom 2009; 12:510.
  4. Bonnick SL, Johnston CC, Kleerekoper M, et al Importance of precision in bone density measurements. J Clin Densitom 2001; 4:105110.
  5. Gold DE, Alexander IM, Ettinger MP. How can osteoporosis patients benefit more from their therapy? Adherence issues with bisphosphonate therapy. Ann Pharmacother 2006; 40:11431150.
  6. Cremers SC, Pillai G, Papapoulos SE. Pharmacokinetics/pharmacodynamics of bisphosphonates: use for optimisation of intermittent therapy for osteoporosis. Clin Pharmacokinet 2005; 44:551570.
  7. Lin JT, Lane JM. Bisphosphonates. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2003; 11:14.
  8. Licata AA. Diagnosing primary osteoporosis: it’s more than a T score. Cleve Clin J Med 2006; 73:473476.
  9. Swaminathan K, Flynn K, Garton M, Paterson C, Leese G. Search for secondary osteoporosis: are Z scores useful predictors? Postgrad Med J 2009; 85:3839.
  10. Clowes JA, Eastell R. The role of bone turnover markers and risk factors in the assessment of osteoporosis and fracture risk. Baillieres Best Pract Res Clin Endocrinol Metab 2000; 14:213232.
  11. Kyle RA, Gertz MA, Witzig TE, et al Review of 1027 patients with newly diagnosed multiple myeloma. Mayo Clin Proc 2003; 78:2133.
  12. Hussein MA, Vrionis FD, Allison R, et al., International Myeloma Working Group. The role of vertebral augmentation in multiple myeloma: International Myeloma Working Group Consensus Statement. Leukemia 2008; 22:14791484.
  13. Blade J, Kyle RA. Nonsecretory myeloma, immunoglobulin D myeloma, and plasma cell leukemia. Hematol Oncol Clin North Am 1999; 13:12591272.
  14. Bradwell AR, Carr-Smith HD, Mead GP, Harvey TC, Drayson MT. Serum test for assessment of patients with Bence Jones myeloma. Lancet 2003; 361:489491.
  15. Tannenbaum C, Clark J, Schwartzman K, et al Yield of laboratory testing to identify secondary contributors to osteoporosis in otherwise healthy women. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2002; 87:44314437.
  16. Kyle RA, Therneau TM, Rajkumar SV, et al Prevalence of monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. N Engl J Med 2006; 354:13621369.
  17. International Myeloma Working Group. Criteria for the classification of monoclonal gammopathies, multiple myeloma and related disorders: a report of the International Myeloma Working Group. Br J Haematol 2003; 121:749757.
  18. Pepe J, Petrucci MT, Nofroni I, et al Lumbar bone mineral density as the major factor determining increased prevalence of vertebral fractures in monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Br J Haematol 2006; 134:485490.
  19. Berenson JR, Yellin O, Boccia RV, et al Zoledronic acid markedly improves bone mineral density for patients with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance and bone loss. Clin Cancer Res 2008; 14:62896295.
  20. Pepe J, Petrucci MT, Mascia ML, et al The effects of alendronate treatment in osteoporotic patients affected by monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Calcif Tissue Int 2008; 82:418426.
  21. Drayson M, Tang LX, Drew R, Mead GP, Carr-Smith H, Bradwell AR. Serum free light-chain measurements for identifying and monitoring patients with nonsecretory multiple myeloma. Blood 2001; 97:29002902.
  22. Katzmann JA, Dispenzieri A, Kyle RA, et al Elimination of the need for urine studies in the screening algorithm for monoclonal gammopathies by using serum immunofixation and free light chain assays. Mayo Clin Proc 2006; 81:15751578.
  23. Abadie JM, van Hoeven KH, Wells JM. Are renal reference intervals required when screening for plasma cell disorders with serum free light chains and serum protein electrophoresis? Am J Clin Pathol 2009; 131:166171.
  24. Abadie JM, Bankson DD. Assessment of serum free light chain assays for plasma cell disorder screening in a Veterans Affairs population. Ann Clin Lab Sci 2006; 36:157162.
  25. Shaw GR. Nonsecretory plasma cell myeloma—becoming even more rare with serum free light-chain assay: a brief review. Arch Pathol Lab Med 2006; 130:12121215.
  26. Hutchison CA, Harding S, Hewins P, et al Quantitative assessment of serum and urinary polyclonal free light chains in patients with chronic kidney disease. Clin J Am Soc Nephrol 2008; 3:16841690.
  27. Katzmann JA, Clark RJ, Abraham RS, et al Serum reference intervals and diagnostic ranges for free kappa and free lambda immunoglobulin light chains: relative sensitivity for detection of monoclonal light chains. Clin Chem 2002; 48:14371444.
  28. Rajkumar SV, Kyle RA, Therneau TM, et al Serum free light chain ratio is an independent risk factor for progression in monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Blood 2005; 106:812817.
  29. Mead GP, Carr-Smith HD, Drayson MT, Morgan GJ, Child JA, Bradwell AR. Serum free light chains for monitoring multiple myeloma. Br J Haematol 2004; 126:348354.
  30. Dispenzieri A, Zhang L, Katzmann JA, et al Appraisal of immunoglobulin free light chain as a marker of response. Blood 2008; 111:49084915.
  31. Dingli D, Kyle RA, Rajkumar SV, et al Immunoglobulin free light chains and solitary plasmacytoma of bone. Blood 2006; 108:19791983.
  32. Martin W, Abraham R, Shanafelt T, et al Serum-free light chain—a new biomarker for patients with B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Transl Res 2007; 149:231235.
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KEY POINTS

  • Minor back pain can be a symptom of spinal compression fracture.
  • Rapidly declining bone density or a low Z score on dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry suggests that osteoporosis is secondary to another condition.
  • The evidence to date supports the use of bone turnover markers in conjunction with density measurements to ascertain early on whether osteoporosis is responding to treatment, but the use of biochemical markers by themselves to screen for osteoporosis is not encouraged.
  • Standard tests may fail to detect myeloma in the presence of worsening bone density.
  • While serum and urine protein electrophoreses are still the standard screening tests for multiple myeloma, additional testing with serum free light chain analysis should be considered if the suspicion is high.
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The Courvoisier sign

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The Courvoisier sign

A 60-year-old woman has had jaundice, dark-colored urine, and light-colored stools for the past several days. She has no history of jaundice or gallstone disease.

Figure 1. Computed tomography shows a pancreatic mass (white arrow) causing dilatation of the bile duct (red arrow) and a severely distended and elongated gallbladder (blue arrow).
With the exception of a palpable gallbladder, the physical examination of the abdomen is unremarkable. Computed tomography of the abdomen reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas, a dilated proximal biliary duct, and a severely distended and elongated gallbladder (Figure 1).

Over a century ago, Courvoisier observed that a palpable gallbladder in a patient with obstructive jaundice is often caused by a non-calculus abnormality of the biliary system, such as pancreatic cancer or cholangiocarcinoma, distal to the insertion of the cystic duct.1–4 He attributed his findings to a higher likelihood of fibrosis of the gallbladder, with stone disease rendering it less distensible.4

Although often associated with malignancy, the Courvoisier sign can also be seen in benign processes causing obstruction of the common bile duct.5

For decades after its initial description, the Courvoisier sign was used as an important sign for the differential diagnosis of jaundice, but advances in diagnostic imaging have led to a more accurate and earlier diagnosis with less reliance on this sign. In this patient, tissue diagnosis confirmed a clinical suspicion of pancreatic adenocarcinoma.

 

References
  1. Anonymous. Ludwig Courvoisier (1843–1918): Courvoisier’s sign. JAMA 1968; 204:627.
  2. Chung RS. Pathogenesis of the “Courvoisier gallbladder.” Dig Dis Sci 1983; 28:3338.
  3. Watts GT. Courvoisier’s law. Lancet 1985; 2:12931294.
  4. Fitzgerald JE, White MJ, Lobo DN. Courvoisier’s gallbladder: law or sign? World J Surg 2009; 33:886891.
  5. Parmar MS. Courvoisier’s law. CMAJ 2003; 168:876877.
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Center for Endoscopy and Pancreatobiliary Disorders, Digestive Disease Institute, Cleveland Clinic

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A 60-year-old woman has had jaundice, dark-colored urine, and light-colored stools for the past several days. She has no history of jaundice or gallstone disease.

Figure 1. Computed tomography shows a pancreatic mass (white arrow) causing dilatation of the bile duct (red arrow) and a severely distended and elongated gallbladder (blue arrow).
With the exception of a palpable gallbladder, the physical examination of the abdomen is unremarkable. Computed tomography of the abdomen reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas, a dilated proximal biliary duct, and a severely distended and elongated gallbladder (Figure 1).

Over a century ago, Courvoisier observed that a palpable gallbladder in a patient with obstructive jaundice is often caused by a non-calculus abnormality of the biliary system, such as pancreatic cancer or cholangiocarcinoma, distal to the insertion of the cystic duct.1–4 He attributed his findings to a higher likelihood of fibrosis of the gallbladder, with stone disease rendering it less distensible.4

Although often associated with malignancy, the Courvoisier sign can also be seen in benign processes causing obstruction of the common bile duct.5

For decades after its initial description, the Courvoisier sign was used as an important sign for the differential diagnosis of jaundice, but advances in diagnostic imaging have led to a more accurate and earlier diagnosis with less reliance on this sign. In this patient, tissue diagnosis confirmed a clinical suspicion of pancreatic adenocarcinoma.

 

A 60-year-old woman has had jaundice, dark-colored urine, and light-colored stools for the past several days. She has no history of jaundice or gallstone disease.

Figure 1. Computed tomography shows a pancreatic mass (white arrow) causing dilatation of the bile duct (red arrow) and a severely distended and elongated gallbladder (blue arrow).
With the exception of a palpable gallbladder, the physical examination of the abdomen is unremarkable. Computed tomography of the abdomen reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas, a dilated proximal biliary duct, and a severely distended and elongated gallbladder (Figure 1).

Over a century ago, Courvoisier observed that a palpable gallbladder in a patient with obstructive jaundice is often caused by a non-calculus abnormality of the biliary system, such as pancreatic cancer or cholangiocarcinoma, distal to the insertion of the cystic duct.1–4 He attributed his findings to a higher likelihood of fibrosis of the gallbladder, with stone disease rendering it less distensible.4

Although often associated with malignancy, the Courvoisier sign can also be seen in benign processes causing obstruction of the common bile duct.5

For decades after its initial description, the Courvoisier sign was used as an important sign for the differential diagnosis of jaundice, but advances in diagnostic imaging have led to a more accurate and earlier diagnosis with less reliance on this sign. In this patient, tissue diagnosis confirmed a clinical suspicion of pancreatic adenocarcinoma.

 

References
  1. Anonymous. Ludwig Courvoisier (1843–1918): Courvoisier’s sign. JAMA 1968; 204:627.
  2. Chung RS. Pathogenesis of the “Courvoisier gallbladder.” Dig Dis Sci 1983; 28:3338.
  3. Watts GT. Courvoisier’s law. Lancet 1985; 2:12931294.
  4. Fitzgerald JE, White MJ, Lobo DN. Courvoisier’s gallbladder: law or sign? World J Surg 2009; 33:886891.
  5. Parmar MS. Courvoisier’s law. CMAJ 2003; 168:876877.
References
  1. Anonymous. Ludwig Courvoisier (1843–1918): Courvoisier’s sign. JAMA 1968; 204:627.
  2. Chung RS. Pathogenesis of the “Courvoisier gallbladder.” Dig Dis Sci 1983; 28:3338.
  3. Watts GT. Courvoisier’s law. Lancet 1985; 2:12931294.
  4. Fitzgerald JE, White MJ, Lobo DN. Courvoisier’s gallbladder: law or sign? World J Surg 2009; 33:886891.
  5. Parmar MS. Courvoisier’s law. CMAJ 2003; 168:876877.
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