To the Editor:

Pemphigus vulgaris (PV) is an acquired autoimmune bullous disease with notable morbidity and mortality if not treated appropriately due to loss of epidermal barrier function and subsequent infection and loss of body fluids. Although the use of systemic corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents has improved the prognosis, these drugs also may have severe adverse effects, especially in elderly patients. Hence, alternative and safer therapies with anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory agents such as tetracyclines and nicotinamide have been used with variable results. We report a case of PV that was successfully treated with doxycycline.

An 81-year-old man presented with well-demarcated erosions with overlying yellow crust as well as vesicles and pustules on the scalp (Figure 1A), forehead, bilateral cheeks, and upper back (Figure 1B) of 6 months’ duration. He used topical fluorouracil in the month prior to presentation for suspected actinic keratosis but had stopped its use after 2 weeks. At the first visit, a diagnosis of a reaction to topical fluorouracil with secondary bacterial infection was made and he was prescribed doxycycline hyclate 100 mg twice daily. The patient returned 4 weeks later for follow-up and reported initial notable improvement with subsequent worsening of lesions after he ran out of doxycycline. On physical examination the lesions had considerably improved from the last visit, but he still had a few erosions on the scalp and a few in the oral mucosa. A 1-cm shallow erosion with minimal surrounding erythema on the forehead was present, along with fewer scattered, edematous, erythematous plaques on the back and chest. Pemphigus vulgaris was suspected and 2 shave biopsies from the lesions on the back and cheek were obtained for confirmation. Histopathologic examination revealed epidermal hyperplasia and suprabasal acantholysis as well as moderate perivascular and perifollicular lymphocytic infiltrate with several eosinophils and plasma cells, characteristic of PV (Figure 2). Direct immunofluorescence showed moderate intercellular deposition of IgG within the basal layer and to a lesser extent within suprabasal layers as well as moderate intercellular deposition of C3 within the basal layer, characteristic of PV. IgA and IgM were not present. Indirect immunofluorescence using monkey esophagus revealed no antibodies against the intercellular space of the basement membrane zone. Due to the dramatic response, he continued on doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and remained in complete remission. Ten months after initiating treatment he discontinued doxycycline for 2 days and developed a 1-cm lesion on the left cheek. He resumed treatment with clearing of lesions and was slowly tapered to 50 mg of doxycycline once daily, remaining in complete remission (Figure 3). Doxycycline was discontinued 16 months after initiation; he has remained clear at 13 weeks.

The treatment of PV is challenging given the multiple side effects of steroids, especially in elderly patients. Tetracyclines have an advantageous side-effect profile and they have been shown to be efficacious in treating PV when combined with nicotinamide or when used as adjuvant therapy to steroids.^1-3 Our case shows a patient who was treated exclusively with doxycycline and achieved complete remission.

Tetracyclines have multiple biological activities in addition to their antimicrobial function that may provide a therapeutic benefit in PV. They possess immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory effects by inhibiting leukocyte chemotaxis and activation^4-8 and inhibiting cytokine release. They inhibit matrix metalloproteinases, which are the major enzymes responsible for breakdown of the extracellular matrix,⁹ and they indirectly inhibit neutrophil elastase by protecting α₁-protease inhibitor from matrix metalloproteinase degradation.¹⁰ Additionally, tetracyclines increase the cohesion of the dermoepidermal junction¹¹; whether they increase the adhesion between epidermal cells is unknown. It has been determined that CD4⁺ T cells play an essential role in the pathogenesis of PV by promoting anti-desmoglein 3 antibody production.¹² Szeto et al¹³ reported that minocycline, a member of the tetracycline family, has suppressive effects on CD4⁺ T-cell activation by hindering the activation of nuclear factor of activated T cells (NFAT), a key regulatory factor in T-cell activation. We hypothesize that doxycycline exerted what appears to be immunomodulatory properties in our patient by suppressing CD4⁺ T-cell activity.

In conclusion, tetracyclines can be an effective and promising therapy for PV given their relatively few side effects and immunomodulating properties. However, further randomized controlled trials will be important to support our conclusion.

To the Editor:

Pemphigus vulgaris (PV) is an acquired autoimmune bullous disease with notable morbidity and mortality if not treated appropriately due to loss of epidermal barrier function and subsequent infection and loss of body fluids. Although the use of systemic corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents has improved the prognosis, these drugs also may have severe adverse effects, especially in elderly patients. Hence, alternative and safer therapies with anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory agents such as tetracyclines and nicotinamide have been used with variable results. We report a case of PV that was successfully treated with doxycycline.

An 81-year-old man presented with well-demarcated erosions with overlying yellow crust as well as vesicles and pustules on the scalp (Figure 1A), forehead, bilateral cheeks, and upper back (Figure 1B) of 6 months’ duration. He used topical fluorouracil in the month prior to presentation for suspected actinic keratosis but had stopped its use after 2 weeks. At the first visit, a diagnosis of a reaction to topical fluorouracil with secondary bacterial infection was made and he was prescribed doxycycline hyclate 100 mg twice daily. The patient returned 4 weeks later for follow-up and reported initial notable improvement with subsequent worsening of lesions after he ran out of doxycycline. On physical examination the lesions had considerably improved from the last visit, but he still had a few erosions on the scalp and a few in the oral mucosa. A 1-cm shallow erosion with minimal surrounding erythema on the forehead was present, along with fewer scattered, edematous, erythematous plaques on the back and chest. Pemphigus vulgaris was suspected and 2 shave biopsies from the lesions on the back and cheek were obtained for confirmation. Histopathologic examination revealed epidermal hyperplasia and suprabasal acantholysis as well as moderate perivascular and perifollicular lymphocytic infiltrate with several eosinophils and plasma cells, characteristic of PV (Figure 2). Direct immunofluorescence showed moderate intercellular deposition of IgG within the basal layer and to a lesser extent within suprabasal layers as well as moderate intercellular deposition of C3 within the basal layer, characteristic of PV. IgA and IgM were not present. Indirect immunofluorescence using monkey esophagus revealed no antibodies against the intercellular space of the basement membrane zone. Due to the dramatic response, he continued on doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and remained in complete remission. Ten months after initiating treatment he discontinued doxycycline for 2 days and developed a 1-cm lesion on the left cheek. He resumed treatment with clearing of lesions and was slowly tapered to 50 mg of doxycycline once daily, remaining in complete remission (Figure 3). Doxycycline was discontinued 16 months after initiation; he has remained clear at 13 weeks.

The treatment of PV is challenging given the multiple side effects of steroids, especially in elderly patients. Tetracyclines have an advantageous side-effect profile and they have been shown to be efficacious in treating PV when combined with nicotinamide or when used as adjuvant therapy to steroids.^1-3 Our case shows a patient who was treated exclusively with doxycycline and achieved complete remission.

Tetracyclines have multiple biological activities in addition to their antimicrobial function that may provide a therapeutic benefit in PV. They possess immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory effects by inhibiting leukocyte chemotaxis and activation^4-8 and inhibiting cytokine release. They inhibit matrix metalloproteinases, which are the major enzymes responsible for breakdown of the extracellular matrix,⁹ and they indirectly inhibit neutrophil elastase by protecting α₁-protease inhibitor from matrix metalloproteinase degradation.¹⁰ Additionally, tetracyclines increase the cohesion of the dermoepidermal junction¹¹; whether they increase the adhesion between epidermal cells is unknown. It has been determined that CD4⁺ T cells play an essential role in the pathogenesis of PV by promoting anti-desmoglein 3 antibody production.¹² Szeto et al¹³ reported that minocycline, a member of the tetracycline family, has suppressive effects on CD4⁺ T-cell activation by hindering the activation of nuclear factor of activated T cells (NFAT), a key regulatory factor in T-cell activation. We hypothesize that doxycycline exerted what appears to be immunomodulatory properties in our patient by suppressing CD4⁺ T-cell activity.

In conclusion, tetracyclines can be an effective and promising therapy for PV given their relatively few side effects and immunomodulating properties. However, further randomized controlled trials will be important to support our conclusion.

To the Editor:

Pemphigus vulgaris (PV) is an acquired autoimmune bullous disease with notable morbidity and mortality if not treated appropriately due to loss of epidermal barrier function and subsequent infection and loss of body fluids. Although the use of systemic corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents has improved the prognosis, these drugs also may have severe adverse effects, especially in elderly patients. Hence, alternative and safer therapies with anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory agents such as tetracyclines and nicotinamide have been used with variable results. We report a case of PV that was successfully treated with doxycycline.

An 81-year-old man presented with well-demarcated erosions with overlying yellow crust as well as vesicles and pustules on the scalp (Figure 1A), forehead, bilateral cheeks, and upper back (Figure 1B) of 6 months’ duration. He used topical fluorouracil in the month prior to presentation for suspected actinic keratosis but had stopped its use after 2 weeks. At the first visit, a diagnosis of a reaction to topical fluorouracil with secondary bacterial infection was made and he was prescribed doxycycline hyclate 100 mg twice daily. The patient returned 4 weeks later for follow-up and reported initial notable improvement with subsequent worsening of lesions after he ran out of doxycycline. On physical examination the lesions had considerably improved from the last visit, but he still had a few erosions on the scalp and a few in the oral mucosa. A 1-cm shallow erosion with minimal surrounding erythema on the forehead was present, along with fewer scattered, edematous, erythematous plaques on the back and chest. Pemphigus vulgaris was suspected and 2 shave biopsies from the lesions on the back and cheek were obtained for confirmation. Histopathologic examination revealed epidermal hyperplasia and suprabasal acantholysis as well as moderate perivascular and perifollicular lymphocytic infiltrate with several eosinophils and plasma cells, characteristic of PV (Figure 2). Direct immunofluorescence showed moderate intercellular deposition of IgG within the basal layer and to a lesser extent within suprabasal layers as well as moderate intercellular deposition of C3 within the basal layer, characteristic of PV. IgA and IgM were not present. Indirect immunofluorescence using monkey esophagus revealed no antibodies against the intercellular space of the basement membrane zone. Due to the dramatic response, he continued on doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and remained in complete remission. Ten months after initiating treatment he discontinued doxycycline for 2 days and developed a 1-cm lesion on the left cheek. He resumed treatment with clearing of lesions and was slowly tapered to 50 mg of doxycycline once daily, remaining in complete remission (Figure 3). Doxycycline was discontinued 16 months after initiation; he has remained clear at 13 weeks.

The treatment of PV is challenging given the multiple side effects of steroids, especially in elderly patients. Tetracyclines have an advantageous side-effect profile and they have been shown to be efficacious in treating PV when combined with nicotinamide or when used as adjuvant therapy to steroids.^1-3 Our case shows a patient who was treated exclusively with doxycycline and achieved complete remission.

Tetracyclines have multiple biological activities in addition to their antimicrobial function that may provide a therapeutic benefit in PV. They possess immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory effects by inhibiting leukocyte chemotaxis and activation^4-8 and inhibiting cytokine release. They inhibit matrix metalloproteinases, which are the major enzymes responsible for breakdown of the extracellular matrix,⁹ and they indirectly inhibit neutrophil elastase by protecting α₁-protease inhibitor from matrix metalloproteinase degradation.¹⁰ Additionally, tetracyclines increase the cohesion of the dermoepidermal junction¹¹; whether they increase the adhesion between epidermal cells is unknown. It has been determined that CD4⁺ T cells play an essential role in the pathogenesis of PV by promoting anti-desmoglein 3 antibody production.¹² Szeto et al¹³ reported that minocycline, a member of the tetracycline family, has suppressive effects on CD4⁺ T-cell activation by hindering the activation of nuclear factor of activated T cells (NFAT), a key regulatory factor in T-cell activation. We hypothesize that doxycycline exerted what appears to be immunomodulatory properties in our patient by suppressing CD4⁺ T-cell activity.

In conclusion, tetracyclines can be an effective and promising therapy for PV given their relatively few side effects and immunomodulating properties. However, further randomized controlled trials will be important to support our conclusion.

The primary cosmetic procedures that dermatology residents will perform or assist in performing during their training are soft-tissue augmentation, botulinum toxin injections, chemical peels, and laser therapy. Because complications can occur from these procedures, it is important for residents to learn how to prevent, identify, and manage them for optimal patient outcomes. In part 1 of this 2-part series, soft-tissue augmentation and botulinum toxin injections are discussed. Chemical peels and laser therapy will be addressed in part 2.

Soft-Tissue Augmentation

Soft-tissue fillers include those that are made from collagen (bovine or human), hyaluronic acid (HA), poly-L-lactic acid, calcium hydroxylapatite, silicone, and polymethylmethacrylate. In general, acute complications of soft-tissue filler injections include erythema, swelling, and bruising.^1-3 Patients who take blood thinners or supplements (eg, vitamin E, ginseng, garlic, ginger) should be asked to discontinue use 1 week prior to the procedure. Patients who take blood thinners also should be counseled to expect some bruising. Prior to injection, the skin should be thoroughly cleansed to avoid introducing skin bacteria into the injection site and to reduce infection risk. Postinjection erythema may be related to mast cell activation, which is temporary and should resolve after a few days.^1-3

If you find yourself injecting the filler too superficially, you may notice that the skin begins to take on a blue-gray hue^1-3 that is known as the Tyndall effect and can be prevented by injecting the filler at the proper level. For example, collagen-based fillers should be placed at the mid dermis, thicker HA fillers should be placed in the deep dermis, and calcium hydroxylapatite should be placed at the junction of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. Polymethylmethacrylate and poly-L-lactic acid should both be placed subdermally.^1-3

The gravest immediate complications associated with soft-tissue filler injections are occlusion of the central retinal artery and/or skin necrosis.^1-4 Residents should never inject filler to the glabella or to the nose.^1-3 Injections at these sites are sometimes performed but should only be performed by experienced dermatologists. The perioral and tear trough regions also are high-risk injection areas that require a high degree of experience and should only be injected with proper supervision by an experienced dermatologist.^1-3 Residents generally can avoid these complications, though not with a 100% guarantee, by avoiding injections in high-risk areas, aspirating to check for blood, and slowly injecting a small amount of filler into the treatment area.^1-3 A consensus statement on management of injection-induced necrosis advises to apply a nitropaste ointment 2% to the treatment site or administer an oral aspirin if the patient develops severe pain; vision loss; or acute skin discoloration, especially blanching.⁴ For HA-based fillers, at least 200 U of hyaluronidase should be injected. It has been suggested that saline can be injected to flush out calcium hydroxylapatite fillers.³ Warm compresses should be placed on the involved area. Following these interventions, any patient with vision loss or orbital pain should immediately undergo ophthalmologic evaluation.³ The most important intervention occurs in the first 24 hours.^3,4 After 24 hours, careful wound care, oral anticoagulants, and hyperbaric oxygen therapy have been suggested as management options.³

There are 2 major chronic complications of soft-tissue filler injection, including delayed-onset infection, which occurs 2 weeks or more postinjection, and granuloma formation.^1-3 Chronic low-grade infection at the injection site may be indicative of biofilm formation. If an HA filler was used, it should be dissolved with hyaluronidase to help break up the biofilm nidus.³ A course of oral antibiotics also may be indicated.^1-3 Intralesional steroids may be used but only after antibiotics have been administered. A biofilm that develops from more permanent fillers may be more difficult to manage. Atypical mycobacterial infections have been known to develop at injection sites, which should be considered in refractory cases.^1-3,5

Calcium hydroxylapatite, polymethylmethacrylate, and silicone can stimulate chronic immune system activation, which makes them more prone to granuloma formation.^1-3 Once infection is ruled out, granulomas may be treated with intralesional steroids, surgical excision (if the results would be cosmetically acceptable), laser therapy, or potentially local injection of an immunosuppressant (eg, methotrexate, 5-fluorouracil).³

Botulinum Toxin Injections

Patients who are pregnant, lactating, or have neuromuscular disease are not candidates for botulinum toxin injections. There also is a risk that patients taking calcium channel blockers or aminoglycoside antibiotics may experience potentiated effects of the botulinum toxin.⁶

Patients should be informed that a postinjection headache may occur and should be treated with over-the-counter medications.⁶ Complication-free botulinum toxin procedures depend heavily on the physician’s knowledge of facial anatomy.^1,6 The diagrams provided by Hirsch and Stier¹ offer an excellent guide on where to place the injections. Brow droop, eyelid ptosis, and “Spock brow” (eyebrows that are overarched) largely can be avoided by proper injection point placement. A Spock brow may be corrected by injecting the lateral upper forehead with a few units to correct the exaggerated arch.^6,7 For eyelid ptosis, apraclonidine 0.05% drops (1–2 drops 3 times daily) should be used until the ptosis resolves.⁶ Phenylephrine hydrochloride drops may be used should a patient have a documented sensitivity to apraclonidine but should not be used in a patient with acute angle-closure glaucoma or aneurysms.⁶

Final Thoughts

Learning to perform soft-tissue augmentation and botulinum toxin injections can be a satisfying and fun part of dermatology residency. Preventing, identifying, and managing any complications that may occur is an integral part of performing these procedures.

The primary cosmetic procedures that dermatology residents will perform or assist in performing during their training are soft-tissue augmentation, botulinum toxin injections, chemical peels, and laser therapy. Because complications can occur from these procedures, it is important for residents to learn how to prevent, identify, and manage them for optimal patient outcomes. In part 1 of this 2-part series, soft-tissue augmentation and botulinum toxin injections are discussed. Chemical peels and laser therapy will be addressed in part 2.

Soft-Tissue Augmentation

Soft-tissue fillers include those that are made from collagen (bovine or human), hyaluronic acid (HA), poly-L-lactic acid, calcium hydroxylapatite, silicone, and polymethylmethacrylate. In general, acute complications of soft-tissue filler injections include erythema, swelling, and bruising.^1-3 Patients who take blood thinners or supplements (eg, vitamin E, ginseng, garlic, ginger) should be asked to discontinue use 1 week prior to the procedure. Patients who take blood thinners also should be counseled to expect some bruising. Prior to injection, the skin should be thoroughly cleansed to avoid introducing skin bacteria into the injection site and to reduce infection risk. Postinjection erythema may be related to mast cell activation, which is temporary and should resolve after a few days.^1-3

If you find yourself injecting the filler too superficially, you may notice that the skin begins to take on a blue-gray hue^1-3 that is known as the Tyndall effect and can be prevented by injecting the filler at the proper level. For example, collagen-based fillers should be placed at the mid dermis, thicker HA fillers should be placed in the deep dermis, and calcium hydroxylapatite should be placed at the junction of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. Polymethylmethacrylate and poly-L-lactic acid should both be placed subdermally.^1-3

The gravest immediate complications associated with soft-tissue filler injections are occlusion of the central retinal artery and/or skin necrosis.^1-4 Residents should never inject filler to the glabella or to the nose.^1-3 Injections at these sites are sometimes performed but should only be performed by experienced dermatologists. The perioral and tear trough regions also are high-risk injection areas that require a high degree of experience and should only be injected with proper supervision by an experienced dermatologist.^1-3 Residents generally can avoid these complications, though not with a 100% guarantee, by avoiding injections in high-risk areas, aspirating to check for blood, and slowly injecting a small amount of filler into the treatment area.^1-3 A consensus statement on management of injection-induced necrosis advises to apply a nitropaste ointment 2% to the treatment site or administer an oral aspirin if the patient develops severe pain; vision loss; or acute skin discoloration, especially blanching.⁴ For HA-based fillers, at least 200 U of hyaluronidase should be injected. It has been suggested that saline can be injected to flush out calcium hydroxylapatite fillers.³ Warm compresses should be placed on the involved area. Following these interventions, any patient with vision loss or orbital pain should immediately undergo ophthalmologic evaluation.³ The most important intervention occurs in the first 24 hours.^3,4 After 24 hours, careful wound care, oral anticoagulants, and hyperbaric oxygen therapy have been suggested as management options.³

There are 2 major chronic complications of soft-tissue filler injection, including delayed-onset infection, which occurs 2 weeks or more postinjection, and granuloma formation.^1-3 Chronic low-grade infection at the injection site may be indicative of biofilm formation. If an HA filler was used, it should be dissolved with hyaluronidase to help break up the biofilm nidus.³ A course of oral antibiotics also may be indicated.^1-3 Intralesional steroids may be used but only after antibiotics have been administered. A biofilm that develops from more permanent fillers may be more difficult to manage. Atypical mycobacterial infections have been known to develop at injection sites, which should be considered in refractory cases.^1-3,5

Calcium hydroxylapatite, polymethylmethacrylate, and silicone can stimulate chronic immune system activation, which makes them more prone to granuloma formation.^1-3 Once infection is ruled out, granulomas may be treated with intralesional steroids, surgical excision (if the results would be cosmetically acceptable), laser therapy, or potentially local injection of an immunosuppressant (eg, methotrexate, 5-fluorouracil).³

Botulinum Toxin Injections

Patients who are pregnant, lactating, or have neuromuscular disease are not candidates for botulinum toxin injections. There also is a risk that patients taking calcium channel blockers or aminoglycoside antibiotics may experience potentiated effects of the botulinum toxin.⁶

Patients should be informed that a postinjection headache may occur and should be treated with over-the-counter medications.⁶ Complication-free botulinum toxin procedures depend heavily on the physician’s knowledge of facial anatomy.^1,6 The diagrams provided by Hirsch and Stier¹ offer an excellent guide on where to place the injections. Brow droop, eyelid ptosis, and “Spock brow” (eyebrows that are overarched) largely can be avoided by proper injection point placement. A Spock brow may be corrected by injecting the lateral upper forehead with a few units to correct the exaggerated arch.^6,7 For eyelid ptosis, apraclonidine 0.05% drops (1–2 drops 3 times daily) should be used until the ptosis resolves.⁶ Phenylephrine hydrochloride drops may be used should a patient have a documented sensitivity to apraclonidine but should not be used in a patient with acute angle-closure glaucoma or aneurysms.⁶

Final Thoughts

Learning to perform soft-tissue augmentation and botulinum toxin injections can be a satisfying and fun part of dermatology residency. Preventing, identifying, and managing any complications that may occur is an integral part of performing these procedures.

The primary cosmetic procedures that dermatology residents will perform or assist in performing during their training are soft-tissue augmentation, botulinum toxin injections, chemical peels, and laser therapy. Because complications can occur from these procedures, it is important for residents to learn how to prevent, identify, and manage them for optimal patient outcomes. In part 1 of this 2-part series, soft-tissue augmentation and botulinum toxin injections are discussed. Chemical peels and laser therapy will be addressed in part 2.

Soft-Tissue Augmentation

Soft-tissue fillers include those that are made from collagen (bovine or human), hyaluronic acid (HA), poly-L-lactic acid, calcium hydroxylapatite, silicone, and polymethylmethacrylate. In general, acute complications of soft-tissue filler injections include erythema, swelling, and bruising.^1-3 Patients who take blood thinners or supplements (eg, vitamin E, ginseng, garlic, ginger) should be asked to discontinue use 1 week prior to the procedure. Patients who take blood thinners also should be counseled to expect some bruising. Prior to injection, the skin should be thoroughly cleansed to avoid introducing skin bacteria into the injection site and to reduce infection risk. Postinjection erythema may be related to mast cell activation, which is temporary and should resolve after a few days.^1-3

If you find yourself injecting the filler too superficially, you may notice that the skin begins to take on a blue-gray hue^1-3 that is known as the Tyndall effect and can be prevented by injecting the filler at the proper level. For example, collagen-based fillers should be placed at the mid dermis, thicker HA fillers should be placed in the deep dermis, and calcium hydroxylapatite should be placed at the junction of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. Polymethylmethacrylate and poly-L-lactic acid should both be placed subdermally.^1-3

The gravest immediate complications associated with soft-tissue filler injections are occlusion of the central retinal artery and/or skin necrosis.^1-4 Residents should never inject filler to the glabella or to the nose.^1-3 Injections at these sites are sometimes performed but should only be performed by experienced dermatologists. The perioral and tear trough regions also are high-risk injection areas that require a high degree of experience and should only be injected with proper supervision by an experienced dermatologist.^1-3 Residents generally can avoid these complications, though not with a 100% guarantee, by avoiding injections in high-risk areas, aspirating to check for blood, and slowly injecting a small amount of filler into the treatment area.^1-3 A consensus statement on management of injection-induced necrosis advises to apply a nitropaste ointment 2% to the treatment site or administer an oral aspirin if the patient develops severe pain; vision loss; or acute skin discoloration, especially blanching.⁴ For HA-based fillers, at least 200 U of hyaluronidase should be injected. It has been suggested that saline can be injected to flush out calcium hydroxylapatite fillers.³ Warm compresses should be placed on the involved area. Following these interventions, any patient with vision loss or orbital pain should immediately undergo ophthalmologic evaluation.³ The most important intervention occurs in the first 24 hours.^3,4 After 24 hours, careful wound care, oral anticoagulants, and hyperbaric oxygen therapy have been suggested as management options.³

There are 2 major chronic complications of soft-tissue filler injection, including delayed-onset infection, which occurs 2 weeks or more postinjection, and granuloma formation.^1-3 Chronic low-grade infection at the injection site may be indicative of biofilm formation. If an HA filler was used, it should be dissolved with hyaluronidase to help break up the biofilm nidus.³ A course of oral antibiotics also may be indicated.^1-3 Intralesional steroids may be used but only after antibiotics have been administered. A biofilm that develops from more permanent fillers may be more difficult to manage. Atypical mycobacterial infections have been known to develop at injection sites, which should be considered in refractory cases.^1-3,5

Calcium hydroxylapatite, polymethylmethacrylate, and silicone can stimulate chronic immune system activation, which makes them more prone to granuloma formation.^1-3 Once infection is ruled out, granulomas may be treated with intralesional steroids, surgical excision (if the results would be cosmetically acceptable), laser therapy, or potentially local injection of an immunosuppressant (eg, methotrexate, 5-fluorouracil).³

Botulinum Toxin Injections

Patients who are pregnant, lactating, or have neuromuscular disease are not candidates for botulinum toxin injections. There also is a risk that patients taking calcium channel blockers or aminoglycoside antibiotics may experience potentiated effects of the botulinum toxin.⁶

Patients should be informed that a postinjection headache may occur and should be treated with over-the-counter medications.⁶ Complication-free botulinum toxin procedures depend heavily on the physician’s knowledge of facial anatomy.^1,6 The diagrams provided by Hirsch and Stier¹ offer an excellent guide on where to place the injections. Brow droop, eyelid ptosis, and “Spock brow” (eyebrows that are overarched) largely can be avoided by proper injection point placement. A Spock brow may be corrected by injecting the lateral upper forehead with a few units to correct the exaggerated arch.^6,7 For eyelid ptosis, apraclonidine 0.05% drops (1–2 drops 3 times daily) should be used until the ptosis resolves.⁶ Phenylephrine hydrochloride drops may be used should a patient have a documented sensitivity to apraclonidine but should not be used in a patient with acute angle-closure glaucoma or aneurysms.⁶

Final Thoughts

Learning to perform soft-tissue augmentation and botulinum toxin injections can be a satisfying and fun part of dermatology residency. Preventing, identifying, and managing any complications that may occur is an integral part of performing these procedures.

The Food and Drug Administration approved 45 new drugs in 2015. Currently, lesinurad (Zurampic) to treat high blood uric levels associated with gout, is not yet available. Another agent, aripiprazole (Aristada) for the treatment of schizophrenia, was initially approved in 2004 and is included in “Drugs in Pregnancy and Lactation,” 10th ed. (Philadelphia: Walters Kluwer: 2014, pp. 83-5).

There are three new multidrug combinations. Ceftazidime-avibactam (Avycaz) is indicated for complicated intra-abdominal and urinary tract infections, including pyelonephritis, when there are limited or no alternative treatment options. Lumacaftor-ivacaftor (Orkambi) is used to treat cystic fibrosis. There are no human pregnancy data for these two combination products but, based on animal data, they can be classified as low risk (no developmental toxicity in two or more animal species). There also is a four-drug combination that is a complete regimen for the treatment of HIV-1 infections: elvitegravir, cobicistat, emtricitabine, and tenofovir alafenamide (Genvoya). There is one reference citing the use of this combination drug in human pregnancy. It resulted in a healthy full-term infant. Because of its indication, this drug product should not be withheld because of pregnancy.

Asfotase (Strensiq) is a tissue nonspecific alkaline phosphatase. It is indicated for the treatment of perinatal/infantile and juvenile-onset hypophosphatasia. The animal data suggest low risk but it is doubtful that this drug will be used in pregnancy. In studies conducted by the manufacturer, the oldest patient age was 12.6 years.

Dinutuximab (Unituxin) is indicated for the treatment of neuroblastoma, an extracranial solid cancer that occurs in children. There are no studies in pregnant animals or humans.

The remaining 38 agents can be classified into the following categories: anticoagulant (2), antidiarrheal (1), antidiabetic (1), antidote (3), antiemetic (1), antifungal (1), antilipemic (2), antineoplastic (13), antipsychotic (2), antiviral (1), bile acid (2), cardiovascular (2), female sexual dysfunction (1), immunomodulator (1), lysosomal acid lipase deficiency (1), parathyroid hormone (1), pyrimidine analog (1), and respiratory (2).

Only two (cholic acid and ivabradine) of these 38 drugs have any human pregnancy data. Thus, the embryo-fetal risk has to be estimated using only animal data. However, an analysis of 1,154 drugs found that animal data raised the possibility of human developmental toxicity in 311 drugs, which was eventually confirmed in 75 drugs (Am J Obstet Gynecol. 2015 Dec;213[6]:810-5). Nevertheless, in some cases the maternal benefit will outweigh the risk based on animal data.

Anticoagulants

The two anticoagulants are cangrelor (Kengreal), indicated as an adjunct to percutaneous coronary intervention to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction, and edoxaban (Savaysa), to reduce the risk of stroke and embolism in patients with atrial fibrillation and for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Although the animal data for cangrelor suggest moderate risk (developmental toxicity in one animal species), the potential benefit to the mother outweighs the risk. The animal data for edoxaban suggest low risk.

Antidiarrheal

Eluxadoline (Viberzi) is indicated for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea. The animal data suggest low risk.

Antidiabetic

The animal data also suggest low risk for insulin degludec (Tresiba), a long-acting human insulin analog.

Antidote

Sugammadex (Bridion), an antidote, is indicated for the reversal of neuromuscular blockade induced by rocuronium and vecuronium in adults undergoing surgery. The animal data suggest risk (developmental toxicity in two or more animal species). Another antidote, idarucizumab (Praxbind) is a humanized monoclonal antibody fragment. It is indicated to reverse the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran. Animal reproduction studies have not been conducted. If indicated, the drug should not be withheld because of pregnancy. The third antidote is patiromer (Veltassa). It is a potassium binder used for the treatment of hyperkalemia. It should not be used for life-threatening hyperkalemia because of its delayed onset of action. It is not absorbed systemically. Because it can bind other drugs in the gut, other oral medications should be given at least 6 hours before or after patiromer.

Antiemetic

©moodboard/Thinkstock

The antiemetic drug rolapitant (Varubi) is used, in combination with other antiemetics, for patients receiving antineoplastics. Animal data suggest moderate risk.

Antifungal

The triazole antifungal, isavuconazonium (Cresemba) is used for the treatment of invasive aspergillosis or invasive mucormycosis. Low doses of the drug caused perinatal death and skeletal defects in rats, similar to other azole antifungal agents.

Antilipemic agents

There are two antilipemic agents; alirocumab (Praluent) and evolocumab (Repatha). Alirocumab, a monoclonal antibody, is combined with statin therapy. Statins are contraindicated in pregnancy because interruption of cholesterol-lowering therapy during pregnancy should have no effect on the long-term treatment of hyperlipidemia and there is potential for embryo-fetal risk. Thus, alirocumab is also contraindicated during pregnancy. The same reasoning applies to evolocumab, an immunoglobulin, that is also given with statins.

Antineoplastic

There are 13 new antineoplastic agents that are often combined with other agents. They all can be classified as contraindicated in pregnancy, but the maternal benefit has to be weighed against the potential for embryo-fetal harm. Moreover, they are usually indicated when older drugs and treatments have not been effective. If the drug must be used in pregnancy, avoiding the first trimester should be a priority.

Sonidegib (Odomzo) is used for the treatment of basal cell carcinoma. The new agent for breast cancer is palbociclib (Ibrance). It is combined with letrozole, an antineoplastic that has caused spontaneous abortions and birth defects. A combination drug indicated for metastatic colorectal cancer is trifluridine/tipiracil (Lonsurf).

There are three new drugs that are indicated for non–small-cell lung cancer: alectinib (Alecensa), necitumumab (Portrazza), and osimertinib (Tagrisso). Alectinib and osimertinib are kinase inhibitors, whereas necitumumab is a epidermal growth factor receptor antagonist. The latter agent is a first-line drug that is combined with gemcitabine and cisplatin, both of which can cause birth defects.

The drug used for metastatic liposarcoma or leiomyosarcoma is trabectedin (Yondelis), an alkylating drug. There are no animal data, but the drug’s mechanism of action suggests that it can cause fetal harm. Cobimetinib (Cotellic), a kinase inhibitor, is indicated for the treatment of metastatic melanoma in combination with vemurafenib, another kinase inhibitor. The animal data and mechanism of action suggest that the drug could cause fetal harm.

There are four new agents for the treatment of multiple myeloma: panobinostat (Farydak), daratumumab (Darzalex), elotuzumab (Empliciti), and ixazomib (Ninlaro). Panobinostat, a histone deacetylase inhibitor, is combined with bortezomib (a proteasome inhibitor) and dexamethasone. The animal data suggest risk. The manufacturer recommends effective contraception while taking the drug and for at least 1 month after the last dose. Daratumumab is a monoclonal antibody. There are no animal data, but based on its mechanism of action, the drug may cause fetal myeloid or lymphoid-cell depletion and decreased bone density. The immunostimulatory antibody elotuzumab is given in combination with lenalidomide, an analog of thalidomide, and dexamethasone. There are no pregnancy data in animals or humans with lenalidomide, but this agent is contraindicated in pregnancy because of its relationship to thalidomide. Ixazomib, a proteasome inhibitor, is also given in combination with lenalidomide and dexamethasone, so the concerns are the same.

A new drug for thyroid cancer is lenvatinib (Lenvima), a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. The animal data suggest risk.

Antipsychotics

The two atypical antipsychotics are brexpiprazole (Rexulti) and cariprazine (Vraylar). Both drugs are included in National Pregnancy Registry for Atypical Antipsychotics. Information concerning the registry can be obtained by calling 1-866-961-2388 or at http://womensmentalhealth.org/clinical-and-research-programs/pregnancyregistry/.

Brexpiprazole is indicated for use as an adjunctive therapy to antidepressants for the treatment of major depressive disorder and for the treatment of schizophrenia. The animal data suggest low risk. Cariprazine is indicated for the treatment of schizophrenia and for the treatment of manic or mixed episodes associated with bipolar I disorder. The animal data suggest moderate risk.

Antiviral

Daclatasvir (Daklinza) is an antiviral agent indicated for use with sofosbuvir, with or without ribavirin, for the treatment of chronic hepatitis C virus genotype 1 or 3 infection. The animal data suggest low risk but, if ribavirin is used, the combination is contraindicated.

Bile acid

There are two new bile acid products. Cholic acid (Cholbam), is indicated for the treatment of bile acid synthesis disorders due to single enzyme defects and for peroxisomal disorders, including Zellweger spectrum disorders. Although studies in pregnant women or animals have not been conducted, the manufacturer is aware of some case reports that resulted in healthy infants.

Deoxycholic acid (Kybella) is a cytolytic agent that is indicated for improvement in the appearance of moderate to severe convexity or fullness associated with submental fat in adults. The drug caused no fetal harm in rats but did in rabbits, which may have been due to maternal toxicity.

Cardiovascular agents

There are two new cardiovascular agents. Ivabradine (Corlanor) is a hyperpolarization-activated cyclic nucleotide-gated channel blocker that is indicated to reduce the risk of hospitalization for worsening heart failure. The animal data suggest risk. A 2001 case report described the use of the drug in a pregnant woman. She suffered a cardiopulmonary arrest in her 10th week of pregnancy and was successfully treated with several drugs, including ivabradine. Ivabradine was stopped 1 month later. She gave birth at term to a normal healthy male infant.

Entresto is a combination of sacubitril, a neprilysin inhibitor, and valsartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker. The combination is indicated to reduce the risk of cardiovascular death and hospitalization for heart failure in patients with chronic heart failure and reduced ejection fraction. There is ample evidence that exposure to valsartan in the second half of pregnancy can cause severe fetal/neonatal toxicity including death.

Sexual dysfunction

Flibanserin (Addyi) is indicated for the treatment of premenopausal women with acquired, generalized hypoactive sexual desire disorder. The animal data suggest moderate risk. The simultaneous use of alcohol increases the risk of severe hypotension and syncope. The drug is available only through a restricted program called the Addyi REMS Program.

Immunomodulator

The new immunomodulator is secukinumab (Cosentyx). It is a human interleukin-17A antagonist indicated for the treatment of moderate to severe plaque psoriasis in adult patients who are candidates for systemic therapy of phototherapy, adults with psoriatic arthritis, and adults with active ankylosing spondylitis. The animal data suggest low risk.

Lysosomal acid lipase deficiency treatment

Sebelipase (Kanuma) is a lysosomal cholesteryl ester and triacylglycerol-specific enzyme that is indicated for the treatment of lysosomal acid lipase deficiency. The animal data suggest low risk.

Parathyroid hormone

Parathyroid hormone (Natpara) is used as an adjunct to calcium and vitamin D to control hypocalcemia in patients with hypoparathryoidism. The animal data in one species suggest moderate risk. Moreover, because of the risk of osteosarcoma, the drug should be used only in patients who cannot be well controlled on calcium and active forms of vitamin D alone.

Pyrimidine analog

Uridine (Xuriden) is a pyrimidine analog for uridine replacement. It is indicated for the treatment of hereditary orotic aciduria. The animal data suggest low risk.

Respiratory agents

The two respiratory agents are mepolizumab (Nucala) and selexipag (Uptravi). Mepolizumab is an interleukin-5 monoclonal antibody. It is indicated for the add-on maintenance treatment of patients with severe asthma aged 12 years and older and with an eosinophilic phenotype. The animal data suggest low risk. Selexipag is a prostacyclin receptor agonist that is used for the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension to delay disease progression and reduce the risk of hospitalization. The animal data suggest low risk.

Lactation

Use of the above drugs during human lactation has not been reported. It is likely that many of these agents will be excreted into breast milk. If a new agent is being taken by a woman who is or will be breastfeeding, the drug’s product information should be checked for the most common adverse reactions noted in nonpregnant patients and the nursing infant should be monitored for these effects.

Mr. Briggs is clinical professor of pharmacy at the University of California, San Francisco, and adjunct professor of pharmacy at the University of Southern California, Los Angeles, and Washington State University, Spokane. He is coauthor of “Drugs in Pregnancy and Lactation,” and coeditor of “Diseases, Complications, and Drug Therapy in Obstetrics.” He has no relevant financial disclosures.

The Food and Drug Administration approved 45 new drugs in 2015. Currently, lesinurad (Zurampic) to treat high blood uric levels associated with gout, is not yet available. Another agent, aripiprazole (Aristada) for the treatment of schizophrenia, was initially approved in 2004 and is included in “Drugs in Pregnancy and Lactation,” 10th ed. (Philadelphia: Walters Kluwer: 2014, pp. 83-5).

There are three new multidrug combinations. Ceftazidime-avibactam (Avycaz) is indicated for complicated intra-abdominal and urinary tract infections, including pyelonephritis, when there are limited or no alternative treatment options. Lumacaftor-ivacaftor (Orkambi) is used to treat cystic fibrosis. There are no human pregnancy data for these two combination products but, based on animal data, they can be classified as low risk (no developmental toxicity in two or more animal species). There also is a four-drug combination that is a complete regimen for the treatment of HIV-1 infections: elvitegravir, cobicistat, emtricitabine, and tenofovir alafenamide (Genvoya). There is one reference citing the use of this combination drug in human pregnancy. It resulted in a healthy full-term infant. Because of its indication, this drug product should not be withheld because of pregnancy.

Asfotase (Strensiq) is a tissue nonspecific alkaline phosphatase. It is indicated for the treatment of perinatal/infantile and juvenile-onset hypophosphatasia. The animal data suggest low risk but it is doubtful that this drug will be used in pregnancy. In studies conducted by the manufacturer, the oldest patient age was 12.6 years.

Dinutuximab (Unituxin) is indicated for the treatment of neuroblastoma, an extracranial solid cancer that occurs in children. There are no studies in pregnant animals or humans.

The remaining 38 agents can be classified into the following categories: anticoagulant (2), antidiarrheal (1), antidiabetic (1), antidote (3), antiemetic (1), antifungal (1), antilipemic (2), antineoplastic (13), antipsychotic (2), antiviral (1), bile acid (2), cardiovascular (2), female sexual dysfunction (1), immunomodulator (1), lysosomal acid lipase deficiency (1), parathyroid hormone (1), pyrimidine analog (1), and respiratory (2).

Only two (cholic acid and ivabradine) of these 38 drugs have any human pregnancy data. Thus, the embryo-fetal risk has to be estimated using only animal data. However, an analysis of 1,154 drugs found that animal data raised the possibility of human developmental toxicity in 311 drugs, which was eventually confirmed in 75 drugs (Am J Obstet Gynecol. 2015 Dec;213[6]:810-5). Nevertheless, in some cases the maternal benefit will outweigh the risk based on animal data.

Anticoagulants

The two anticoagulants are cangrelor (Kengreal), indicated as an adjunct to percutaneous coronary intervention to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction, and edoxaban (Savaysa), to reduce the risk of stroke and embolism in patients with atrial fibrillation and for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Although the animal data for cangrelor suggest moderate risk (developmental toxicity in one animal species), the potential benefit to the mother outweighs the risk. The animal data for edoxaban suggest low risk.

Antidiarrheal

Eluxadoline (Viberzi) is indicated for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea. The animal data suggest low risk.

Antidiabetic

The animal data also suggest low risk for insulin degludec (Tresiba), a long-acting human insulin analog.

Antidote

Sugammadex (Bridion), an antidote, is indicated for the reversal of neuromuscular blockade induced by rocuronium and vecuronium in adults undergoing surgery. The animal data suggest risk (developmental toxicity in two or more animal species). Another antidote, idarucizumab (Praxbind) is a humanized monoclonal antibody fragment. It is indicated to reverse the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran. Animal reproduction studies have not been conducted. If indicated, the drug should not be withheld because of pregnancy. The third antidote is patiromer (Veltassa). It is a potassium binder used for the treatment of hyperkalemia. It should not be used for life-threatening hyperkalemia because of its delayed onset of action. It is not absorbed systemically. Because it can bind other drugs in the gut, other oral medications should be given at least 6 hours before or after patiromer.

Antiemetic

©moodboard/Thinkstock

The antiemetic drug rolapitant (Varubi) is used, in combination with other antiemetics, for patients receiving antineoplastics. Animal data suggest moderate risk.

Antifungal

The triazole antifungal, isavuconazonium (Cresemba) is used for the treatment of invasive aspergillosis or invasive mucormycosis. Low doses of the drug caused perinatal death and skeletal defects in rats, similar to other azole antifungal agents.

Antilipemic agents

There are two antilipemic agents; alirocumab (Praluent) and evolocumab (Repatha). Alirocumab, a monoclonal antibody, is combined with statin therapy. Statins are contraindicated in pregnancy because interruption of cholesterol-lowering therapy during pregnancy should have no effect on the long-term treatment of hyperlipidemia and there is potential for embryo-fetal risk. Thus, alirocumab is also contraindicated during pregnancy. The same reasoning applies to evolocumab, an immunoglobulin, that is also given with statins.

Antineoplastic

There are 13 new antineoplastic agents that are often combined with other agents. They all can be classified as contraindicated in pregnancy, but the maternal benefit has to be weighed against the potential for embryo-fetal harm. Moreover, they are usually indicated when older drugs and treatments have not been effective. If the drug must be used in pregnancy, avoiding the first trimester should be a priority.

Sonidegib (Odomzo) is used for the treatment of basal cell carcinoma. The new agent for breast cancer is palbociclib (Ibrance). It is combined with letrozole, an antineoplastic that has caused spontaneous abortions and birth defects. A combination drug indicated for metastatic colorectal cancer is trifluridine/tipiracil (Lonsurf).

There are three new drugs that are indicated for non–small-cell lung cancer: alectinib (Alecensa), necitumumab (Portrazza), and osimertinib (Tagrisso). Alectinib and osimertinib are kinase inhibitors, whereas necitumumab is a epidermal growth factor receptor antagonist. The latter agent is a first-line drug that is combined with gemcitabine and cisplatin, both of which can cause birth defects.

The drug used for metastatic liposarcoma or leiomyosarcoma is trabectedin (Yondelis), an alkylating drug. There are no animal data, but the drug’s mechanism of action suggests that it can cause fetal harm. Cobimetinib (Cotellic), a kinase inhibitor, is indicated for the treatment of metastatic melanoma in combination with vemurafenib, another kinase inhibitor. The animal data and mechanism of action suggest that the drug could cause fetal harm.

There are four new agents for the treatment of multiple myeloma: panobinostat (Farydak), daratumumab (Darzalex), elotuzumab (Empliciti), and ixazomib (Ninlaro). Panobinostat, a histone deacetylase inhibitor, is combined with bortezomib (a proteasome inhibitor) and dexamethasone. The animal data suggest risk. The manufacturer recommends effective contraception while taking the drug and for at least 1 month after the last dose. Daratumumab is a monoclonal antibody. There are no animal data, but based on its mechanism of action, the drug may cause fetal myeloid or lymphoid-cell depletion and decreased bone density. The immunostimulatory antibody elotuzumab is given in combination with lenalidomide, an analog of thalidomide, and dexamethasone. There are no pregnancy data in animals or humans with lenalidomide, but this agent is contraindicated in pregnancy because of its relationship to thalidomide. Ixazomib, a proteasome inhibitor, is also given in combination with lenalidomide and dexamethasone, so the concerns are the same.

A new drug for thyroid cancer is lenvatinib (Lenvima), a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. The animal data suggest risk.

Antipsychotics

The two atypical antipsychotics are brexpiprazole (Rexulti) and cariprazine (Vraylar). Both drugs are included in National Pregnancy Registry for Atypical Antipsychotics. Information concerning the registry can be obtained by calling 1-866-961-2388 or at http://womensmentalhealth.org/clinical-and-research-programs/pregnancyregistry/.

Brexpiprazole is indicated for use as an adjunctive therapy to antidepressants for the treatment of major depressive disorder and for the treatment of schizophrenia. The animal data suggest low risk. Cariprazine is indicated for the treatment of schizophrenia and for the treatment of manic or mixed episodes associated with bipolar I disorder. The animal data suggest moderate risk.

Antiviral

Daclatasvir (Daklinza) is an antiviral agent indicated for use with sofosbuvir, with or without ribavirin, for the treatment of chronic hepatitis C virus genotype 1 or 3 infection. The animal data suggest low risk but, if ribavirin is used, the combination is contraindicated.

Bile acid

There are two new bile acid products. Cholic acid (Cholbam), is indicated for the treatment of bile acid synthesis disorders due to single enzyme defects and for peroxisomal disorders, including Zellweger spectrum disorders. Although studies in pregnant women or animals have not been conducted, the manufacturer is aware of some case reports that resulted in healthy infants.

Deoxycholic acid (Kybella) is a cytolytic agent that is indicated for improvement in the appearance of moderate to severe convexity or fullness associated with submental fat in adults. The drug caused no fetal harm in rats but did in rabbits, which may have been due to maternal toxicity.

Cardiovascular agents

There are two new cardiovascular agents. Ivabradine (Corlanor) is a hyperpolarization-activated cyclic nucleotide-gated channel blocker that is indicated to reduce the risk of hospitalization for worsening heart failure. The animal data suggest risk. A 2001 case report described the use of the drug in a pregnant woman. She suffered a cardiopulmonary arrest in her 10th week of pregnancy and was successfully treated with several drugs, including ivabradine. Ivabradine was stopped 1 month later. She gave birth at term to a normal healthy male infant.

Entresto is a combination of sacubitril, a neprilysin inhibitor, and valsartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker. The combination is indicated to reduce the risk of cardiovascular death and hospitalization for heart failure in patients with chronic heart failure and reduced ejection fraction. There is ample evidence that exposure to valsartan in the second half of pregnancy can cause severe fetal/neonatal toxicity including death.

Sexual dysfunction

Flibanserin (Addyi) is indicated for the treatment of premenopausal women with acquired, generalized hypoactive sexual desire disorder. The animal data suggest moderate risk. The simultaneous use of alcohol increases the risk of severe hypotension and syncope. The drug is available only through a restricted program called the Addyi REMS Program.

Immunomodulator

The new immunomodulator is secukinumab (Cosentyx). It is a human interleukin-17A antagonist indicated for the treatment of moderate to severe plaque psoriasis in adult patients who are candidates for systemic therapy of phototherapy, adults with psoriatic arthritis, and adults with active ankylosing spondylitis. The animal data suggest low risk.

Lysosomal acid lipase deficiency treatment

Sebelipase (Kanuma) is a lysosomal cholesteryl ester and triacylglycerol-specific enzyme that is indicated for the treatment of lysosomal acid lipase deficiency. The animal data suggest low risk.

Parathyroid hormone

Parathyroid hormone (Natpara) is used as an adjunct to calcium and vitamin D to control hypocalcemia in patients with hypoparathryoidism. The animal data in one species suggest moderate risk. Moreover, because of the risk of osteosarcoma, the drug should be used only in patients who cannot be well controlled on calcium and active forms of vitamin D alone.

Pyrimidine analog

Uridine (Xuriden) is a pyrimidine analog for uridine replacement. It is indicated for the treatment of hereditary orotic aciduria. The animal data suggest low risk.

Respiratory agents

The two respiratory agents are mepolizumab (Nucala) and selexipag (Uptravi). Mepolizumab is an interleukin-5 monoclonal antibody. It is indicated for the add-on maintenance treatment of patients with severe asthma aged 12 years and older and with an eosinophilic phenotype. The animal data suggest low risk. Selexipag is a prostacyclin receptor agonist that is used for the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension to delay disease progression and reduce the risk of hospitalization. The animal data suggest low risk.

Lactation

Use of the above drugs during human lactation has not been reported. It is likely that many of these agents will be excreted into breast milk. If a new agent is being taken by a woman who is or will be breastfeeding, the drug’s product information should be checked for the most common adverse reactions noted in nonpregnant patients and the nursing infant should be monitored for these effects.

Mr. Briggs is clinical professor of pharmacy at the University of California, San Francisco, and adjunct professor of pharmacy at the University of Southern California, Los Angeles, and Washington State University, Spokane. He is coauthor of “Drugs in Pregnancy and Lactation,” and coeditor of “Diseases, Complications, and Drug Therapy in Obstetrics.” He has no relevant financial disclosures.

The Food and Drug Administration approved 45 new drugs in 2015. Currently, lesinurad (Zurampic) to treat high blood uric levels associated with gout, is not yet available. Another agent, aripiprazole (Aristada) for the treatment of schizophrenia, was initially approved in 2004 and is included in “Drugs in Pregnancy and Lactation,” 10th ed. (Philadelphia: Walters Kluwer: 2014, pp. 83-5).

There are three new multidrug combinations. Ceftazidime-avibactam (Avycaz) is indicated for complicated intra-abdominal and urinary tract infections, including pyelonephritis, when there are limited or no alternative treatment options. Lumacaftor-ivacaftor (Orkambi) is used to treat cystic fibrosis. There are no human pregnancy data for these two combination products but, based on animal data, they can be classified as low risk (no developmental toxicity in two or more animal species). There also is a four-drug combination that is a complete regimen for the treatment of HIV-1 infections: elvitegravir, cobicistat, emtricitabine, and tenofovir alafenamide (Genvoya). There is one reference citing the use of this combination drug in human pregnancy. It resulted in a healthy full-term infant. Because of its indication, this drug product should not be withheld because of pregnancy.

Asfotase (Strensiq) is a tissue nonspecific alkaline phosphatase. It is indicated for the treatment of perinatal/infantile and juvenile-onset hypophosphatasia. The animal data suggest low risk but it is doubtful that this drug will be used in pregnancy. In studies conducted by the manufacturer, the oldest patient age was 12.6 years.

Dinutuximab (Unituxin) is indicated for the treatment of neuroblastoma, an extracranial solid cancer that occurs in children. There are no studies in pregnant animals or humans.

The remaining 38 agents can be classified into the following categories: anticoagulant (2), antidiarrheal (1), antidiabetic (1), antidote (3), antiemetic (1), antifungal (1), antilipemic (2), antineoplastic (13), antipsychotic (2), antiviral (1), bile acid (2), cardiovascular (2), female sexual dysfunction (1), immunomodulator (1), lysosomal acid lipase deficiency (1), parathyroid hormone (1), pyrimidine analog (1), and respiratory (2).

Only two (cholic acid and ivabradine) of these 38 drugs have any human pregnancy data. Thus, the embryo-fetal risk has to be estimated using only animal data. However, an analysis of 1,154 drugs found that animal data raised the possibility of human developmental toxicity in 311 drugs, which was eventually confirmed in 75 drugs (Am J Obstet Gynecol. 2015 Dec;213[6]:810-5). Nevertheless, in some cases the maternal benefit will outweigh the risk based on animal data.

Anticoagulants

The two anticoagulants are cangrelor (Kengreal), indicated as an adjunct to percutaneous coronary intervention to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction, and edoxaban (Savaysa), to reduce the risk of stroke and embolism in patients with atrial fibrillation and for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Although the animal data for cangrelor suggest moderate risk (developmental toxicity in one animal species), the potential benefit to the mother outweighs the risk. The animal data for edoxaban suggest low risk.

Antidiarrheal

Eluxadoline (Viberzi) is indicated for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea. The animal data suggest low risk.

Antidiabetic

The animal data also suggest low risk for insulin degludec (Tresiba), a long-acting human insulin analog.

Antidote

Sugammadex (Bridion), an antidote, is indicated for the reversal of neuromuscular blockade induced by rocuronium and vecuronium in adults undergoing surgery. The animal data suggest risk (developmental toxicity in two or more animal species). Another antidote, idarucizumab (Praxbind) is a humanized monoclonal antibody fragment. It is indicated to reverse the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran. Animal reproduction studies have not been conducted. If indicated, the drug should not be withheld because of pregnancy. The third antidote is patiromer (Veltassa). It is a potassium binder used for the treatment of hyperkalemia. It should not be used for life-threatening hyperkalemia because of its delayed onset of action. It is not absorbed systemically. Because it can bind other drugs in the gut, other oral medications should be given at least 6 hours before or after patiromer.

Antiemetic

©moodboard/Thinkstock

The antiemetic drug rolapitant (Varubi) is used, in combination with other antiemetics, for patients receiving antineoplastics. Animal data suggest moderate risk.

Antifungal

The triazole antifungal, isavuconazonium (Cresemba) is used for the treatment of invasive aspergillosis or invasive mucormycosis. Low doses of the drug caused perinatal death and skeletal defects in rats, similar to other azole antifungal agents.

Antilipemic agents

There are two antilipemic agents; alirocumab (Praluent) and evolocumab (Repatha). Alirocumab, a monoclonal antibody, is combined with statin therapy. Statins are contraindicated in pregnancy because interruption of cholesterol-lowering therapy during pregnancy should have no effect on the long-term treatment of hyperlipidemia and there is potential for embryo-fetal risk. Thus, alirocumab is also contraindicated during pregnancy. The same reasoning applies to evolocumab, an immunoglobulin, that is also given with statins.

Antineoplastic

There are 13 new antineoplastic agents that are often combined with other agents. They all can be classified as contraindicated in pregnancy, but the maternal benefit has to be weighed against the potential for embryo-fetal harm. Moreover, they are usually indicated when older drugs and treatments have not been effective. If the drug must be used in pregnancy, avoiding the first trimester should be a priority.

Sonidegib (Odomzo) is used for the treatment of basal cell carcinoma. The new agent for breast cancer is palbociclib (Ibrance). It is combined with letrozole, an antineoplastic that has caused spontaneous abortions and birth defects. A combination drug indicated for metastatic colorectal cancer is trifluridine/tipiracil (Lonsurf).

There are three new drugs that are indicated for non–small-cell lung cancer: alectinib (Alecensa), necitumumab (Portrazza), and osimertinib (Tagrisso). Alectinib and osimertinib are kinase inhibitors, whereas necitumumab is a epidermal growth factor receptor antagonist. The latter agent is a first-line drug that is combined with gemcitabine and cisplatin, both of which can cause birth defects.

The drug used for metastatic liposarcoma or leiomyosarcoma is trabectedin (Yondelis), an alkylating drug. There are no animal data, but the drug’s mechanism of action suggests that it can cause fetal harm. Cobimetinib (Cotellic), a kinase inhibitor, is indicated for the treatment of metastatic melanoma in combination with vemurafenib, another kinase inhibitor. The animal data and mechanism of action suggest that the drug could cause fetal harm.

There are four new agents for the treatment of multiple myeloma: panobinostat (Farydak), daratumumab (Darzalex), elotuzumab (Empliciti), and ixazomib (Ninlaro). Panobinostat, a histone deacetylase inhibitor, is combined with bortezomib (a proteasome inhibitor) and dexamethasone. The animal data suggest risk. The manufacturer recommends effective contraception while taking the drug and for at least 1 month after the last dose. Daratumumab is a monoclonal antibody. There are no animal data, but based on its mechanism of action, the drug may cause fetal myeloid or lymphoid-cell depletion and decreased bone density. The immunostimulatory antibody elotuzumab is given in combination with lenalidomide, an analog of thalidomide, and dexamethasone. There are no pregnancy data in animals or humans with lenalidomide, but this agent is contraindicated in pregnancy because of its relationship to thalidomide. Ixazomib, a proteasome inhibitor, is also given in combination with lenalidomide and dexamethasone, so the concerns are the same.

A new drug for thyroid cancer is lenvatinib (Lenvima), a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. The animal data suggest risk.

Antipsychotics

The two atypical antipsychotics are brexpiprazole (Rexulti) and cariprazine (Vraylar). Both drugs are included in National Pregnancy Registry for Atypical Antipsychotics. Information concerning the registry can be obtained by calling 1-866-961-2388 or at http://womensmentalhealth.org/clinical-and-research-programs/pregnancyregistry/.

Brexpiprazole is indicated for use as an adjunctive therapy to antidepressants for the treatment of major depressive disorder and for the treatment of schizophrenia. The animal data suggest low risk. Cariprazine is indicated for the treatment of schizophrenia and for the treatment of manic or mixed episodes associated with bipolar I disorder. The animal data suggest moderate risk.

Antiviral

Daclatasvir (Daklinza) is an antiviral agent indicated for use with sofosbuvir, with or without ribavirin, for the treatment of chronic hepatitis C virus genotype 1 or 3 infection. The animal data suggest low risk but, if ribavirin is used, the combination is contraindicated.

Bile acid

There are two new bile acid products. Cholic acid (Cholbam), is indicated for the treatment of bile acid synthesis disorders due to single enzyme defects and for peroxisomal disorders, including Zellweger spectrum disorders. Although studies in pregnant women or animals have not been conducted, the manufacturer is aware of some case reports that resulted in healthy infants.

Deoxycholic acid (Kybella) is a cytolytic agent that is indicated for improvement in the appearance of moderate to severe convexity or fullness associated with submental fat in adults. The drug caused no fetal harm in rats but did in rabbits, which may have been due to maternal toxicity.

Cardiovascular agents

There are two new cardiovascular agents. Ivabradine (Corlanor) is a hyperpolarization-activated cyclic nucleotide-gated channel blocker that is indicated to reduce the risk of hospitalization for worsening heart failure. The animal data suggest risk. A 2001 case report described the use of the drug in a pregnant woman. She suffered a cardiopulmonary arrest in her 10th week of pregnancy and was successfully treated with several drugs, including ivabradine. Ivabradine was stopped 1 month later. She gave birth at term to a normal healthy male infant.

Entresto is a combination of sacubitril, a neprilysin inhibitor, and valsartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker. The combination is indicated to reduce the risk of cardiovascular death and hospitalization for heart failure in patients with chronic heart failure and reduced ejection fraction. There is ample evidence that exposure to valsartan in the second half of pregnancy can cause severe fetal/neonatal toxicity including death.

Sexual dysfunction

Flibanserin (Addyi) is indicated for the treatment of premenopausal women with acquired, generalized hypoactive sexual desire disorder. The animal data suggest moderate risk. The simultaneous use of alcohol increases the risk of severe hypotension and syncope. The drug is available only through a restricted program called the Addyi REMS Program.

Immunomodulator

The new immunomodulator is secukinumab (Cosentyx). It is a human interleukin-17A antagonist indicated for the treatment of moderate to severe plaque psoriasis in adult patients who are candidates for systemic therapy of phototherapy, adults with psoriatic arthritis, and adults with active ankylosing spondylitis. The animal data suggest low risk.

Lysosomal acid lipase deficiency treatment

Sebelipase (Kanuma) is a lysosomal cholesteryl ester and triacylglycerol-specific enzyme that is indicated for the treatment of lysosomal acid lipase deficiency. The animal data suggest low risk.

Parathyroid hormone

Parathyroid hormone (Natpara) is used as an adjunct to calcium and vitamin D to control hypocalcemia in patients with hypoparathryoidism. The animal data in one species suggest moderate risk. Moreover, because of the risk of osteosarcoma, the drug should be used only in patients who cannot be well controlled on calcium and active forms of vitamin D alone.

Pyrimidine analog

Uridine (Xuriden) is a pyrimidine analog for uridine replacement. It is indicated for the treatment of hereditary orotic aciduria. The animal data suggest low risk.

Respiratory agents

The two respiratory agents are mepolizumab (Nucala) and selexipag (Uptravi). Mepolizumab is an interleukin-5 monoclonal antibody. It is indicated for the add-on maintenance treatment of patients with severe asthma aged 12 years and older and with an eosinophilic phenotype. The animal data suggest low risk. Selexipag is a prostacyclin receptor agonist that is used for the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension to delay disease progression and reduce the risk of hospitalization. The animal data suggest low risk.

Lactation

Use of the above drugs during human lactation has not been reported. It is likely that many of these agents will be excreted into breast milk. If a new agent is being taken by a woman who is or will be breastfeeding, the drug’s product information should be checked for the most common adverse reactions noted in nonpregnant patients and the nursing infant should be monitored for these effects.

Mr. Briggs is clinical professor of pharmacy at the University of California, San Francisco, and adjunct professor of pharmacy at the University of Southern California, Los Angeles, and Washington State University, Spokane. He is coauthor of “Drugs in Pregnancy and Lactation,” and coeditor of “Diseases, Complications, and Drug Therapy in Obstetrics.” He has no relevant financial disclosures.

Long-acting opioids increased the risk of all-cause mortality in patients with chronic noncancer pain, based on 22,912 new episodes of long-acting opioid prescription and an equal number of control prescriptions during an average follow-up of 176 days and 128 days respectively.

In the follow-up period, 185 people given long-acting opioids and 87 in the control group died. The hazard ratio for total mortality in the opioid group was 1.64, according to Wayne Ray, Ph.D., of Vanderbilt University, Nashville, and his associates.

Out-of-hospital deaths accounted for 154 deaths in the opioid group and 60 in the control group, with a hazard ratio of 1.9. The hazard ratio in the opioid group for out-of-hospital deaths other than unintentional overdose was 1.72. Cardiovascular events were the most common cause of death, accounting for 79 deaths in the opioid group and for 53 deaths in the control group. The hazard ratio for cardiovascular death was 1.65.

“The study finding that prescription of long-acting opioids was associated with increased cardiovascular and other nonoverdose mortality adds to the already considerable known harms of the opioids and thus should be considered when assessing the benefits and harms of medications for chronic pain,” the investigators noted.

Find the full study in JAMA (doi: 10.1001/jama.2016.7789).

[email protected]

Long-acting opioids increased the risk of all-cause mortality in patients with chronic noncancer pain, based on 22,912 new episodes of long-acting opioid prescription and an equal number of control prescriptions during an average follow-up of 176 days and 128 days respectively.

In the follow-up period, 185 people given long-acting opioids and 87 in the control group died. The hazard ratio for total mortality in the opioid group was 1.64, according to Wayne Ray, Ph.D., of Vanderbilt University, Nashville, and his associates.

Out-of-hospital deaths accounted for 154 deaths in the opioid group and 60 in the control group, with a hazard ratio of 1.9. The hazard ratio in the opioid group for out-of-hospital deaths other than unintentional overdose was 1.72. Cardiovascular events were the most common cause of death, accounting for 79 deaths in the opioid group and for 53 deaths in the control group. The hazard ratio for cardiovascular death was 1.65.

“The study finding that prescription of long-acting opioids was associated with increased cardiovascular and other nonoverdose mortality adds to the already considerable known harms of the opioids and thus should be considered when assessing the benefits and harms of medications for chronic pain,” the investigators noted.

Find the full study in JAMA (doi: 10.1001/jama.2016.7789).

[email protected]

Long-acting opioids increased the risk of all-cause mortality in patients with chronic noncancer pain, based on 22,912 new episodes of long-acting opioid prescription and an equal number of control prescriptions during an average follow-up of 176 days and 128 days respectively.

In the follow-up period, 185 people given long-acting opioids and 87 in the control group died. The hazard ratio for total mortality in the opioid group was 1.64, according to Wayne Ray, Ph.D., of Vanderbilt University, Nashville, and his associates.

Out-of-hospital deaths accounted for 154 deaths in the opioid group and 60 in the control group, with a hazard ratio of 1.9. The hazard ratio in the opioid group for out-of-hospital deaths other than unintentional overdose was 1.72. Cardiovascular events were the most common cause of death, accounting for 79 deaths in the opioid group and for 53 deaths in the control group. The hazard ratio for cardiovascular death was 1.65.

“The study finding that prescription of long-acting opioids was associated with increased cardiovascular and other nonoverdose mortality adds to the already considerable known harms of the opioids and thus should be considered when assessing the benefits and harms of medications for chronic pain,” the investigators noted.

Find the full study in JAMA (doi: 10.1001/jama.2016.7789).

[email protected]

The combination weight-loss drug phentermine plus topiramate is associated with the highest odds of individuals being able to lose 5% of their body weight within 1 year, according to a meta-analysis comparing outcomes and adverse events for orlistat, lorcaserin, naltrexone-bupropion, phentermine-topiramate, and liraglutide.

Researchers analyzed 28 randomized placebo- or active-controlled clinical trials involving a total of 29,018 participants and found those who took phentermine-topiramate had a ninefold greater likelihood of achieving a 5% weight loss by 1 year than did those on placebo, according to a paper published in the June 14 issue of JAMA.

Liraglutide showed the second-highest odds of achieving a 5% weight loss at 1 year (odds ratio, 5.54), followed by naltrexone-bupropion (OR, 3.96), lorcaserin (OR, 3.10), and orlistat (OR, 2.70).

Nearly one-quarter of individuals on placebo achieved at least a 5% weight loss by 1 year, compared with three-quarters of individuals taking phentermine-topiramate, 63% of those taking liraglutide, 55% taking naltrexone-bupropion, 49% taking lorcaserin, and 44% taking orlistat (JAMA 2016;315:2424-34. doi: 10.1001/jama.2016.7602).

Of those on placebo, only 9% achieved at least a 10% weight loss at 1 year, compared with 54% of patients taking phentermine-topiramate, 34% of patients on liraglutide, 30% of patients on naltrexone-bupropion, 25% of those taking lorcaserin, and 20% of those taking orlistat.

Phentermine-topiramate was also associated with the greatest weight loss, compared with placebo, with patients losing a mean of 8.8 kg vs. 5.2 kg with liraglutide, 5 kg with naltrexone-bupropion, 3.2 kg with lorcaserin, and 2.6 kg with orlistat.

While all active drugs were associated with a higher rate of discontinuation because of adverse events than was seen with placebo, liraglutide was associated with the greatest risk of discontinuation, compared with placebo, followed by naltrexone-bupropion, phentermine-topiramate, orlistat, and then lorcaserin.

Dr. Rohan Khera of the department of internal medicine at the University of Iowa, Iowa City, and coauthors wrote that pharmacologic treatment decisions should consider coexisting medical conditions that might influence for or against a particular choice for weight loss.

“For example, liraglutide may be a more appropriate agent in people with diabetes because of its glucose-lowering effects,” they wrote. “Conversely, naltrexone-bupropion in patients with chronic opiate or alcohol dependence may be associated with neuropsychiatric complications.

“Ultimately, given the differences in safety, efficacy, and response to therapy, the ideal approach to weight loss should be highly individualized, identifying appropriate candidates for pharmacotherapy, behavioral interventions, and surgical interventions.”

Two study authors were supported by a grant from the National Library of Medicine or the National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases. One author reported receiving funding, participating on advisory committees, and serving as a consultant with a range of pharmaceutical manufacturers, as well as being a cofounder of Liponexus. Another author reported research support from NovoNordisk for research on liraglutide. No other disclosures were reported.

The combination weight-loss drug phentermine plus topiramate is associated with the highest odds of individuals being able to lose 5% of their body weight within 1 year, according to a meta-analysis comparing outcomes and adverse events for orlistat, lorcaserin, naltrexone-bupropion, phentermine-topiramate, and liraglutide.

Researchers analyzed 28 randomized placebo- or active-controlled clinical trials involving a total of 29,018 participants and found those who took phentermine-topiramate had a ninefold greater likelihood of achieving a 5% weight loss by 1 year than did those on placebo, according to a paper published in the June 14 issue of JAMA.

Liraglutide showed the second-highest odds of achieving a 5% weight loss at 1 year (odds ratio, 5.54), followed by naltrexone-bupropion (OR, 3.96), lorcaserin (OR, 3.10), and orlistat (OR, 2.70).

Nearly one-quarter of individuals on placebo achieved at least a 5% weight loss by 1 year, compared with three-quarters of individuals taking phentermine-topiramate, 63% of those taking liraglutide, 55% taking naltrexone-bupropion, 49% taking lorcaserin, and 44% taking orlistat (JAMA 2016;315:2424-34. doi: 10.1001/jama.2016.7602).

Of those on placebo, only 9% achieved at least a 10% weight loss at 1 year, compared with 54% of patients taking phentermine-topiramate, 34% of patients on liraglutide, 30% of patients on naltrexone-bupropion, 25% of those taking lorcaserin, and 20% of those taking orlistat.

Phentermine-topiramate was also associated with the greatest weight loss, compared with placebo, with patients losing a mean of 8.8 kg vs. 5.2 kg with liraglutide, 5 kg with naltrexone-bupropion, 3.2 kg with lorcaserin, and 2.6 kg with orlistat.

While all active drugs were associated with a higher rate of discontinuation because of adverse events than was seen with placebo, liraglutide was associated with the greatest risk of discontinuation, compared with placebo, followed by naltrexone-bupropion, phentermine-topiramate, orlistat, and then lorcaserin.

Dr. Rohan Khera of the department of internal medicine at the University of Iowa, Iowa City, and coauthors wrote that pharmacologic treatment decisions should consider coexisting medical conditions that might influence for or against a particular choice for weight loss.

“For example, liraglutide may be a more appropriate agent in people with diabetes because of its glucose-lowering effects,” they wrote. “Conversely, naltrexone-bupropion in patients with chronic opiate or alcohol dependence may be associated with neuropsychiatric complications.

“Ultimately, given the differences in safety, efficacy, and response to therapy, the ideal approach to weight loss should be highly individualized, identifying appropriate candidates for pharmacotherapy, behavioral interventions, and surgical interventions.”

Two study authors were supported by a grant from the National Library of Medicine or the National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases. One author reported receiving funding, participating on advisory committees, and serving as a consultant with a range of pharmaceutical manufacturers, as well as being a cofounder of Liponexus. Another author reported research support from NovoNordisk for research on liraglutide. No other disclosures were reported.

The combination weight-loss drug phentermine plus topiramate is associated with the highest odds of individuals being able to lose 5% of their body weight within 1 year, according to a meta-analysis comparing outcomes and adverse events for orlistat, lorcaserin, naltrexone-bupropion, phentermine-topiramate, and liraglutide.

Researchers analyzed 28 randomized placebo- or active-controlled clinical trials involving a total of 29,018 participants and found those who took phentermine-topiramate had a ninefold greater likelihood of achieving a 5% weight loss by 1 year than did those on placebo, according to a paper published in the June 14 issue of JAMA.

Liraglutide showed the second-highest odds of achieving a 5% weight loss at 1 year (odds ratio, 5.54), followed by naltrexone-bupropion (OR, 3.96), lorcaserin (OR, 3.10), and orlistat (OR, 2.70).

Nearly one-quarter of individuals on placebo achieved at least a 5% weight loss by 1 year, compared with three-quarters of individuals taking phentermine-topiramate, 63% of those taking liraglutide, 55% taking naltrexone-bupropion, 49% taking lorcaserin, and 44% taking orlistat (JAMA 2016;315:2424-34. doi: 10.1001/jama.2016.7602).

Of those on placebo, only 9% achieved at least a 10% weight loss at 1 year, compared with 54% of patients taking phentermine-topiramate, 34% of patients on liraglutide, 30% of patients on naltrexone-bupropion, 25% of those taking lorcaserin, and 20% of those taking orlistat.

Phentermine-topiramate was also associated with the greatest weight loss, compared with placebo, with patients losing a mean of 8.8 kg vs. 5.2 kg with liraglutide, 5 kg with naltrexone-bupropion, 3.2 kg with lorcaserin, and 2.6 kg with orlistat.

While all active drugs were associated with a higher rate of discontinuation because of adverse events than was seen with placebo, liraglutide was associated with the greatest risk of discontinuation, compared with placebo, followed by naltrexone-bupropion, phentermine-topiramate, orlistat, and then lorcaserin.

Dr. Rohan Khera of the department of internal medicine at the University of Iowa, Iowa City, and coauthors wrote that pharmacologic treatment decisions should consider coexisting medical conditions that might influence for or against a particular choice for weight loss.

“For example, liraglutide may be a more appropriate agent in people with diabetes because of its glucose-lowering effects,” they wrote. “Conversely, naltrexone-bupropion in patients with chronic opiate or alcohol dependence may be associated with neuropsychiatric complications.

“Ultimately, given the differences in safety, efficacy, and response to therapy, the ideal approach to weight loss should be highly individualized, identifying appropriate candidates for pharmacotherapy, behavioral interventions, and surgical interventions.”

Two study authors were supported by a grant from the National Library of Medicine or the National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases. One author reported receiving funding, participating on advisory committees, and serving as a consultant with a range of pharmaceutical manufacturers, as well as being a cofounder of Liponexus. Another author reported research support from NovoNordisk for research on liraglutide. No other disclosures were reported.

More than half of the patients treated with the interleukin-17A antagonist, ixekizumab, achieved full resolution of skin plaques after a year of 2- to 4-week dosing, according to the latest analysis of data from the three UNCOVER trials of almost 4,000 patients with moderate to severe psoriasis.

The results of the three randomized, double-blind placebo-controlled pivotal trials were published online in the New England Journal of Medicine (doi: 10.1056/NEJMoa1512711).

Ixekizumab was approved in March for the treatment of adults with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis who are candidates for systemic therapy or phototherapy; it is marketed as Taltz by Eli Lilly. Some of the UNCOVER data have been previously reported. The UNCOVER studies were conducted at more than 100 sites in 21 countries.

Patients in the UNCOVER trials were randomized to 80 mg of ixekizumab every 2 weeks after a starting dose of 160 mg, 80 mg every 4 weeks after the same starting dose, or subcutaneous placebo injections, for 12 weeks.

In the UNCOVER-2 and UNCOVER-3 trials, additional cohorts were also randomized to twice-weekly etanercept (50 mg). All three trials also included a long-term extension period to 60 weeks, which was randomly assigned in UNCOVER-3 (where patients received 80 mg of ixekizumab every 4 weeks), or was implemented for all patients who responded to ixekizumab in the other two trials (where patients were randomized to 80 mg every 4 or 12 weeks, or placebo).

In the UNCOVER-1 trial in 1,296 patients, 89.1% of patients in the 2-week dosing group and 82.6% of the 4-week dosing group had achieved a 75% reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index score (PASI 75) by week 12, compared with 3.9% in the placebo group (P less than .0001 for all). Similarly, 35.3% of patients in the 2-week dosing group and 33.6% of those in the 4-week dosing group achieved a PASI score of 100 by week 12.

The high response rates seen during the induction period “were generally maintained during the long-term extension period in UNCOVER-3,” wrote Dr. Kenneth B. Gordon, professor of dermatology, Northwestern University, Chicago, and his coauthors. In the analysis of the long-term data from UNCOVER-3, the researchers reported that by week 60, 55% of patients receiving 80 mg of ixekizumab every 2 weeks during the induction period had achieved a PASI 100, and 52% of patients receiving ixekizumab every 4 weeks during the induction period had achieved a PASI 100.

Patients randomized to 80 mg of ixekizumab every 12 weeks after the first 12 weeks of treatment also showed significant long-term responses in the UNCOVER-1 and -2 trials. Nearly half (49.1%) of those who were initiated on 2-week dosing and 44.9% of those initiated on 4-week dosing achieved a PASI score of 75 on the 12-week dosing schedule, compared with 8%-9% of those randomized to placebo from week 12 through week 60.

The authors concluded that ixekizumab “provided high levels of clinical response at week 12 and through week 60,” adding, however, that “as with any treatment, the benefits need to be weighed against the adverse events, and the safety profile of longer-term treatment with ixekizumab should be examined.”

Although low serum IL-17 levels have previously been linked with cardiovascular disease, the study found no significant differences between the treatment and placebo groups in adverse cardiovascular events. Candidal infections were more common among those treated with ixekizumab, “a finding that is consistent with the role of IL-17A in the mucocutaneous defense against fungal infections,” they wrote.

There were 11 cases of inflammatory bowel disease reported among patients during treatment with ixekizumab and another three cases in patients receiving placebo during a randomized withdrawal period, who had received ixekizumab during the induction* period. These results “suggest that further evaluation is needed to understand the relationship between IL-17A inhibitors and inflammatory bowel disease,” the investigators said.

The authors of the study include Eli Lilly employees, several of whom also have stock options; the other authors declared a range of funding, advisory board positions, and speakers fees from pharmaceutical companies, including Eli Lilly. The UNCOVER studies were sponsored by Eli Lilly.

*A previous version of this article misstated the period during which three placebo patients received ixekizumab.

More than half of the patients treated with the interleukin-17A antagonist, ixekizumab, achieved full resolution of skin plaques after a year of 2- to 4-week dosing, according to the latest analysis of data from the three UNCOVER trials of almost 4,000 patients with moderate to severe psoriasis.

The results of the three randomized, double-blind placebo-controlled pivotal trials were published online in the New England Journal of Medicine (doi: 10.1056/NEJMoa1512711).

Ixekizumab was approved in March for the treatment of adults with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis who are candidates for systemic therapy or phototherapy; it is marketed as Taltz by Eli Lilly. Some of the UNCOVER data have been previously reported. The UNCOVER studies were conducted at more than 100 sites in 21 countries.

Patients in the UNCOVER trials were randomized to 80 mg of ixekizumab every 2 weeks after a starting dose of 160 mg, 80 mg every 4 weeks after the same starting dose, or subcutaneous placebo injections, for 12 weeks.

In the UNCOVER-2 and UNCOVER-3 trials, additional cohorts were also randomized to twice-weekly etanercept (50 mg). All three trials also included a long-term extension period to 60 weeks, which was randomly assigned in UNCOVER-3 (where patients received 80 mg of ixekizumab every 4 weeks), or was implemented for all patients who responded to ixekizumab in the other two trials (where patients were randomized to 80 mg every 4 or 12 weeks, or placebo).

In the UNCOVER-1 trial in 1,296 patients, 89.1% of patients in the 2-week dosing group and 82.6% of the 4-week dosing group had achieved a 75% reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index score (PASI 75) by week 12, compared with 3.9% in the placebo group (P less than .0001 for all). Similarly, 35.3% of patients in the 2-week dosing group and 33.6% of those in the 4-week dosing group achieved a PASI score of 100 by week 12.

The high response rates seen during the induction period “were generally maintained during the long-term extension period in UNCOVER-3,” wrote Dr. Kenneth B. Gordon, professor of dermatology, Northwestern University, Chicago, and his coauthors. In the analysis of the long-term data from UNCOVER-3, the researchers reported that by week 60, 55% of patients receiving 80 mg of ixekizumab every 2 weeks during the induction period had achieved a PASI 100, and 52% of patients receiving ixekizumab every 4 weeks during the induction period had achieved a PASI 100.

Patients randomized to 80 mg of ixekizumab every 12 weeks after the first 12 weeks of treatment also showed significant long-term responses in the UNCOVER-1 and -2 trials. Nearly half (49.1%) of those who were initiated on 2-week dosing and 44.9% of those initiated on 4-week dosing achieved a PASI score of 75 on the 12-week dosing schedule, compared with 8%-9% of those randomized to placebo from week 12 through week 60.

The authors concluded that ixekizumab “provided high levels of clinical response at week 12 and through week 60,” adding, however, that “as with any treatment, the benefits need to be weighed against the adverse events, and the safety profile of longer-term treatment with ixekizumab should be examined.”

Although low serum IL-17 levels have previously been linked with cardiovascular disease, the study found no significant differences between the treatment and placebo groups in adverse cardiovascular events. Candidal infections were more common among those treated with ixekizumab, “a finding that is consistent with the role of IL-17A in the mucocutaneous defense against fungal infections,” they wrote.

There were 11 cases of inflammatory bowel disease reported among patients during treatment with ixekizumab and another three cases in patients receiving placebo during a randomized withdrawal period, who had received ixekizumab during the induction* period. These results “suggest that further evaluation is needed to understand the relationship between IL-17A inhibitors and inflammatory bowel disease,” the investigators said.

The authors of the study include Eli Lilly employees, several of whom also have stock options; the other authors declared a range of funding, advisory board positions, and speakers fees from pharmaceutical companies, including Eli Lilly. The UNCOVER studies were sponsored by Eli Lilly.

*A previous version of this article misstated the period during which three placebo patients received ixekizumab.

More than half of the patients treated with the interleukin-17A antagonist, ixekizumab, achieved full resolution of skin plaques after a year of 2- to 4-week dosing, according to the latest analysis of data from the three UNCOVER trials of almost 4,000 patients with moderate to severe psoriasis.

The results of the three randomized, double-blind placebo-controlled pivotal trials were published online in the New England Journal of Medicine (doi: 10.1056/NEJMoa1512711).

Ixekizumab was approved in March for the treatment of adults with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis who are candidates for systemic therapy or phototherapy; it is marketed as Taltz by Eli Lilly. Some of the UNCOVER data have been previously reported. The UNCOVER studies were conducted at more than 100 sites in 21 countries.

Patients in the UNCOVER trials were randomized to 80 mg of ixekizumab every 2 weeks after a starting dose of 160 mg, 80 mg every 4 weeks after the same starting dose, or subcutaneous placebo injections, for 12 weeks.

In the UNCOVER-2 and UNCOVER-3 trials, additional cohorts were also randomized to twice-weekly etanercept (50 mg). All three trials also included a long-term extension period to 60 weeks, which was randomly assigned in UNCOVER-3 (where patients received 80 mg of ixekizumab every 4 weeks), or was implemented for all patients who responded to ixekizumab in the other two trials (where patients were randomized to 80 mg every 4 or 12 weeks, or placebo).

In the UNCOVER-1 trial in 1,296 patients, 89.1% of patients in the 2-week dosing group and 82.6% of the 4-week dosing group had achieved a 75% reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index score (PASI 75) by week 12, compared with 3.9% in the placebo group (P less than .0001 for all). Similarly, 35.3% of patients in the 2-week dosing group and 33.6% of those in the 4-week dosing group achieved a PASI score of 100 by week 12.

The high response rates seen during the induction period “were generally maintained during the long-term extension period in UNCOVER-3,” wrote Dr. Kenneth B. Gordon, professor of dermatology, Northwestern University, Chicago, and his coauthors. In the analysis of the long-term data from UNCOVER-3, the researchers reported that by week 60, 55% of patients receiving 80 mg of ixekizumab every 2 weeks during the induction period had achieved a PASI 100, and 52% of patients receiving ixekizumab every 4 weeks during the induction period had achieved a PASI 100.

Patients randomized to 80 mg of ixekizumab every 12 weeks after the first 12 weeks of treatment also showed significant long-term responses in the UNCOVER-1 and -2 trials. Nearly half (49.1%) of those who were initiated on 2-week dosing and 44.9% of those initiated on 4-week dosing achieved a PASI score of 75 on the 12-week dosing schedule, compared with 8%-9% of those randomized to placebo from week 12 through week 60.

The authors concluded that ixekizumab “provided high levels of clinical response at week 12 and through week 60,” adding, however, that “as with any treatment, the benefits need to be weighed against the adverse events, and the safety profile of longer-term treatment with ixekizumab should be examined.”

Although low serum IL-17 levels have previously been linked with cardiovascular disease, the study found no significant differences between the treatment and placebo groups in adverse cardiovascular events. Candidal infections were more common among those treated with ixekizumab, “a finding that is consistent with the role of IL-17A in the mucocutaneous defense against fungal infections,” they wrote.

There were 11 cases of inflammatory bowel disease reported among patients during treatment with ixekizumab and another three cases in patients receiving placebo during a randomized withdrawal period, who had received ixekizumab during the induction* period. These results “suggest that further evaluation is needed to understand the relationship between IL-17A inhibitors and inflammatory bowel disease,” the investigators said.

The authors of the study include Eli Lilly employees, several of whom also have stock options; the other authors declared a range of funding, advisory board positions, and speakers fees from pharmaceutical companies, including Eli Lilly. The UNCOVER studies were sponsored by Eli Lilly.

*A previous version of this article misstated the period during which three placebo patients received ixekizumab.

The 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) is recommended for immunocompromised adults at risk for invasive pneumococcal diseases. But booster doses reportedly can cause “hyporesponsiveness,” which make PPSV23 less suitable for some HIV-infected patients, according to researchers at University Division of Infectious Diseases, Siena,  University of Siena, San Gerardo Hospital, University of Milano-Bicocca, Monza, and Institute of Clinical Infectious Diseases, Rome, all in Italy. These researchers cite studies that have found that the humoral response to PPSV23 is weaker in HIV-infected adults and that patients with AIDS are not protected.

Related: New Developments in Adult Vaccination: Challenges and Opportunities to Protect Vulnerable Veterans From Pneumococcal Disease

Protein-conjugated pneumococcal vaccines (PCVs), both 7-valent and 13-valent, may prime the immune system for better, faster responses to booster doses, the researchers say, and could be an optimal primary prophylaxis strategy for HIV-infected patients. But to the best of their knowledge, they note, data regarding the effectiveness of PCV13 in HIV-positive adults are “scant,” and no studies have directly compared the immunogenicity of PCV13 with PPSV23 in those patients.

The researchers conducted 2 parallel studies of 100 HIV-infected adult outpatients who had never been vaccinated with any pneumococcal vaccine. In the first, 50 patients were given PCV13 in 2 doses 8 weeks apart; in the second, patients were given their first routine vaccination with PPSV23. A third group of 100 HIV-negative adults who received no vaccination was used for comparison.

Related: Intervals between Pneumococcal Vaccines

After immunization, IgG titers significantly increased in both study groups at each time point compared with baseline, although response to serotype 3 was blunted in the first group. Antibody titers for each antigen did not differ between the groups at week 48. Seroprotection and seroconversion to all serotypes were comparable.

Over time, the researchers observed a “marked decrease” in IgG levels with both vaccines.

Related: Hunting Down a C difficile Vaccine

Both vaccines were safe and well tolerated; no relevant adverse reactions were seen in either group. No HIV-infected patients developed Streptococcus pneumoniae infection during the follow-up.

The 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) is recommended for immunocompromised adults at risk for invasive pneumococcal diseases. But booster doses reportedly can cause “hyporesponsiveness,” which make PPSV23 less suitable for some HIV-infected patients, according to researchers at University Division of Infectious Diseases, Siena,  University of Siena, San Gerardo Hospital, University of Milano-Bicocca, Monza, and Institute of Clinical Infectious Diseases, Rome, all in Italy. These researchers cite studies that have found that the humoral response to PPSV23 is weaker in HIV-infected adults and that patients with AIDS are not protected.

Related: New Developments in Adult Vaccination: Challenges and Opportunities to Protect Vulnerable Veterans From Pneumococcal Disease

Protein-conjugated pneumococcal vaccines (PCVs), both 7-valent and 13-valent, may prime the immune system for better, faster responses to booster doses, the researchers say, and could be an optimal primary prophylaxis strategy for HIV-infected patients. But to the best of their knowledge, they note, data regarding the effectiveness of PCV13 in HIV-positive adults are “scant,” and no studies have directly compared the immunogenicity of PCV13 with PPSV23 in those patients.

The researchers conducted 2 parallel studies of 100 HIV-infected adult outpatients who had never been vaccinated with any pneumococcal vaccine. In the first, 50 patients were given PCV13 in 2 doses 8 weeks apart; in the second, patients were given their first routine vaccination with PPSV23. A third group of 100 HIV-negative adults who received no vaccination was used for comparison.

Related: Intervals between Pneumococcal Vaccines

After immunization, IgG titers significantly increased in both study groups at each time point compared with baseline, although response to serotype 3 was blunted in the first group. Antibody titers for each antigen did not differ between the groups at week 48. Seroprotection and seroconversion to all serotypes were comparable.

Over time, the researchers observed a “marked decrease” in IgG levels with both vaccines.

Related: Hunting Down a C difficile Vaccine

Both vaccines were safe and well tolerated; no relevant adverse reactions were seen in either group. No HIV-infected patients developed Streptococcus pneumoniae infection during the follow-up.

The 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) is recommended for immunocompromised adults at risk for invasive pneumococcal diseases. But booster doses reportedly can cause “hyporesponsiveness,” which make PPSV23 less suitable for some HIV-infected patients, according to researchers at University Division of Infectious Diseases, Siena,  University of Siena, San Gerardo Hospital, University of Milano-Bicocca, Monza, and Institute of Clinical Infectious Diseases, Rome, all in Italy. These researchers cite studies that have found that the humoral response to PPSV23 is weaker in HIV-infected adults and that patients with AIDS are not protected.

Related: New Developments in Adult Vaccination: Challenges and Opportunities to Protect Vulnerable Veterans From Pneumococcal Disease

Protein-conjugated pneumococcal vaccines (PCVs), both 7-valent and 13-valent, may prime the immune system for better, faster responses to booster doses, the researchers say, and could be an optimal primary prophylaxis strategy for HIV-infected patients. But to the best of their knowledge, they note, data regarding the effectiveness of PCV13 in HIV-positive adults are “scant,” and no studies have directly compared the immunogenicity of PCV13 with PPSV23 in those patients.

The researchers conducted 2 parallel studies of 100 HIV-infected adult outpatients who had never been vaccinated with any pneumococcal vaccine. In the first, 50 patients were given PCV13 in 2 doses 8 weeks apart; in the second, patients were given their first routine vaccination with PPSV23. A third group of 100 HIV-negative adults who received no vaccination was used for comparison.

Related: Intervals between Pneumococcal Vaccines

After immunization, IgG titers significantly increased in both study groups at each time point compared with baseline, although response to serotype 3 was blunted in the first group. Antibody titers for each antigen did not differ between the groups at week 48. Seroprotection and seroconversion to all serotypes were comparable.

Over time, the researchers observed a “marked decrease” in IgG levels with both vaccines.

Related: Hunting Down a C difficile Vaccine

Both vaccines were safe and well tolerated; no relevant adverse reactions were seen in either group. No HIV-infected patients developed Streptococcus pneumoniae infection during the follow-up.

One of the nation’s Centers for Innovation in Advanced Development and Manufacturing, led by the Texas A&M University System, is beginning development and manufacturing on a second-generation anthrax vaccine. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services’ Office of the Assistant Secretary for Preparedness and Response is supporting this research with an 18-month, $10.49 million task order.

NasoShield, a nose spray, will require only a single dose to protect against infections caused by inhaling anthrax. The spray uses technology known as the Adenovirus 5 viral vectored delivery system that modifies a non-infectious virus to include the genetic material needed to produce an immune response against anthrax. The researchers also will focus on improving the shelf life of the anthrax vaccine.

This project is the first time the HHS’s Biomedical Advanced Research and Development Authority (BARDA) has supported development of an anthrax vaccine using this delivery system. “Anthrax remains a material threat to our national health security,” said Dr. Richard Hatchett, acting BARDA director. “To help combat the health impacts of an anthrax attack, BARDA partnered with several biotechnology firms in accelerating development of promising next-generation treatments against anthrax infection. Engaging one of our Centers for Innovation in Advanced Development and Manufacturing represents a unique approach to this development.”

One of the nation’s Centers for Innovation in Advanced Development and Manufacturing, led by the Texas A&M University System, is beginning development and manufacturing on a second-generation anthrax vaccine. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services’ Office of the Assistant Secretary for Preparedness and Response is supporting this research with an 18-month, $10.49 million task order.

NasoShield, a nose spray, will require only a single dose to protect against infections caused by inhaling anthrax. The spray uses technology known as the Adenovirus 5 viral vectored delivery system that modifies a non-infectious virus to include the genetic material needed to produce an immune response against anthrax. The researchers also will focus on improving the shelf life of the anthrax vaccine.

This project is the first time the HHS’s Biomedical Advanced Research and Development Authority (BARDA) has supported development of an anthrax vaccine using this delivery system. “Anthrax remains a material threat to our national health security,” said Dr. Richard Hatchett, acting BARDA director. “To help combat the health impacts of an anthrax attack, BARDA partnered with several biotechnology firms in accelerating development of promising next-generation treatments against anthrax infection. Engaging one of our Centers for Innovation in Advanced Development and Manufacturing represents a unique approach to this development.”

One of the nation’s Centers for Innovation in Advanced Development and Manufacturing, led by the Texas A&M University System, is beginning development and manufacturing on a second-generation anthrax vaccine. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services’ Office of the Assistant Secretary for Preparedness and Response is supporting this research with an 18-month, $10.49 million task order.

NasoShield, a nose spray, will require only a single dose to protect against infections caused by inhaling anthrax. The spray uses technology known as the Adenovirus 5 viral vectored delivery system that modifies a non-infectious virus to include the genetic material needed to produce an immune response against anthrax. The researchers also will focus on improving the shelf life of the anthrax vaccine.

This project is the first time the HHS’s Biomedical Advanced Research and Development Authority (BARDA) has supported development of an anthrax vaccine using this delivery system. “Anthrax remains a material threat to our national health security,” said Dr. Richard Hatchett, acting BARDA director. “To help combat the health impacts of an anthrax attack, BARDA partnered with several biotechnology firms in accelerating development of promising next-generation treatments against anthrax infection. Engaging one of our Centers for Innovation in Advanced Development and Manufacturing represents a unique approach to this development.”

Septic shock patients who received midodrine needed significantly fewer intravenous vasopressors during recovery and had shorter hospital stays, based on data from a retrospective study of 275 adults at a single tertiary care center.

In many institutions, policy dictates that patients must remain in the ICU as long as they need intravenous vasopressors, wrote Dr. Micah R. Whitson of North Shore-LIJ Health System in New Hyde Park, N.Y., and colleagues. “One solution to this problem may be replacement of IV vasopressors with an oral agent.”

“Midodrine facilitated earlier patient transfer from the ICU and more efficient allocation of ICU resources,” the researchers wrote (Chest. 2016;149[6]:1380-83).

The researchers compared data on 135 patients treated with midodrine in addition to an intravenous vasopressor and 140 patients treated with an intravenous vasopressor alone.

Overall, patients given midodrine received intravenous vasopressors for 2.9 days while the other group received intravenous vasopressors for 3.8 days, a significant 24% difference. Hospital length of stay was not significantly different, averaging 22 days in the midodrine group and 24 days in the intravenous vasopressor–only group. However, ICU length of stay averaged 7.5 days in the midodrine group and 9.4 days in the vasopressor-only group, a significant 20% reduction. Further, the midodrine group was significantly less likely to reinstitute intravenous vasopressors than the intravenous vasopressor–only group (5.2% vs. 15%, respectively). ICU and hospital mortality rates were not significantly different between the two groups, Dr. Whitson and associates reported.

Patients in the midodrine group received a starting dose of 10 mg every 8 hours, which was increased incrementally until they no longer needed intravenous vasopressors. The maximum midodrine dose in the study was 18.7 mg every 8 hours, and the average duration of use was 6 days.

The patients’ average age was 65 years in the intravenous vasopressor group and 69 years in the midodrine group. Other demographic factors did not significantly differ between the two groups.

One patient discontinued midodrine before discontinuing an intravenous vasopressor because of bradycardia, which resolved without additional treatment.

The findings were limited by the observational nature of the study and the use of data from a single center, the investigators noted. The results, however, support the safety of midodrine and the study “lays the groundwork for a prospective, randomized controlled trial that will examine efficacy, starting dose, escalation, tapering and appropriate patient selection for midodrine use during recovery from septic shock,” they said.

The researchers had no financial conflicts to disclose.

Septic shock patients who received midodrine needed significantly fewer intravenous vasopressors during recovery and had shorter hospital stays, based on data from a retrospective study of 275 adults at a single tertiary care center.

In many institutions, policy dictates that patients must remain in the ICU as long as they need intravenous vasopressors, wrote Dr. Micah R. Whitson of North Shore-LIJ Health System in New Hyde Park, N.Y., and colleagues. “One solution to this problem may be replacement of IV vasopressors with an oral agent.”

“Midodrine facilitated earlier patient transfer from the ICU and more efficient allocation of ICU resources,” the researchers wrote (Chest. 2016;149[6]:1380-83).

The researchers compared data on 135 patients treated with midodrine in addition to an intravenous vasopressor and 140 patients treated with an intravenous vasopressor alone.

Overall, patients given midodrine received intravenous vasopressors for 2.9 days while the other group received intravenous vasopressors for 3.8 days, a significant 24% difference. Hospital length of stay was not significantly different, averaging 22 days in the midodrine group and 24 days in the intravenous vasopressor–only group. However, ICU length of stay averaged 7.5 days in the midodrine group and 9.4 days in the vasopressor-only group, a significant 20% reduction. Further, the midodrine group was significantly less likely to reinstitute intravenous vasopressors than the intravenous vasopressor–only group (5.2% vs. 15%, respectively). ICU and hospital mortality rates were not significantly different between the two groups, Dr. Whitson and associates reported.

Patients in the midodrine group received a starting dose of 10 mg every 8 hours, which was increased incrementally until they no longer needed intravenous vasopressors. The maximum midodrine dose in the study was 18.7 mg every 8 hours, and the average duration of use was 6 days.

The patients’ average age was 65 years in the intravenous vasopressor group and 69 years in the midodrine group. Other demographic factors did not significantly differ between the two groups.

One patient discontinued midodrine before discontinuing an intravenous vasopressor because of bradycardia, which resolved without additional treatment.

The findings were limited by the observational nature of the study and the use of data from a single center, the investigators noted. The results, however, support the safety of midodrine and the study “lays the groundwork for a prospective, randomized controlled trial that will examine efficacy, starting dose, escalation, tapering and appropriate patient selection for midodrine use during recovery from septic shock,” they said.

The researchers had no financial conflicts to disclose.

Septic shock patients who received midodrine needed significantly fewer intravenous vasopressors during recovery and had shorter hospital stays, based on data from a retrospective study of 275 adults at a single tertiary care center.

In many institutions, policy dictates that patients must remain in the ICU as long as they need intravenous vasopressors, wrote Dr. Micah R. Whitson of North Shore-LIJ Health System in New Hyde Park, N.Y., and colleagues. “One solution to this problem may be replacement of IV vasopressors with an oral agent.”

“Midodrine facilitated earlier patient transfer from the ICU and more efficient allocation of ICU resources,” the researchers wrote (Chest. 2016;149[6]:1380-83).

The researchers compared data on 135 patients treated with midodrine in addition to an intravenous vasopressor and 140 patients treated with an intravenous vasopressor alone.

Overall, patients given midodrine received intravenous vasopressors for 2.9 days while the other group received intravenous vasopressors for 3.8 days, a significant 24% difference. Hospital length of stay was not significantly different, averaging 22 days in the midodrine group and 24 days in the intravenous vasopressor–only group. However, ICU length of stay averaged 7.5 days in the midodrine group and 9.4 days in the vasopressor-only group, a significant 20% reduction. Further, the midodrine group was significantly less likely to reinstitute intravenous vasopressors than the intravenous vasopressor–only group (5.2% vs. 15%, respectively). ICU and hospital mortality rates were not significantly different between the two groups, Dr. Whitson and associates reported.

Patients in the midodrine group received a starting dose of 10 mg every 8 hours, which was increased incrementally until they no longer needed intravenous vasopressors. The maximum midodrine dose in the study was 18.7 mg every 8 hours, and the average duration of use was 6 days.

The patients’ average age was 65 years in the intravenous vasopressor group and 69 years in the midodrine group. Other demographic factors did not significantly differ between the two groups.

One patient discontinued midodrine before discontinuing an intravenous vasopressor because of bradycardia, which resolved without additional treatment.

The findings were limited by the observational nature of the study and the use of data from a single center, the investigators noted. The results, however, support the safety of midodrine and the study “lays the groundwork for a prospective, randomized controlled trial that will examine efficacy, starting dose, escalation, tapering and appropriate patient selection for midodrine use during recovery from septic shock,” they said.

The researchers had no financial conflicts to disclose.

Rapid HIV tests in high-income countries miss about one in seven infections and should be used in combination with fourth-generation enzyme immunoassays (EIA) or nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) in clinical settings, according to a study in the journal AIDS.

“These infections are likely to be particularly transmissible due to the high HIV viral load in early infection ... in high-income countries, rapid tests should be used in combination with fourth-generation EIA or NAAT, except in special circumstances,” the Australian researchers said.

©jarun011/Thinkstock

They performed a systematic review and meta-analysis of 18 studies involving 110,122 HIV rapid test results. The primary outcome was the test’s sensitivity for detecting acute or established HIV infections. Sensitivity was calculated by dividing the number of confirmed positive rapid tests by the number of confirmed positive comparator tests. Specificity was calculated by dividing the number of confirmed negative rapid tests by the number of negative comparator tests.

Compared with EIA, the estimated sensitivity of rapid tests was 94.5% (95% confidence interval, 87.4-97.7). Compared with NAAT, the sensitivity of rapid tests was 93.7% (95% CI, 88.7-96.5). The sensitivity of rapid tests in high income countries was 85.7% (95% CI, 81.9-88.9), and in low income countries was 97.7% (95% CI, 95.2-98·9), compared with either EIA or NAAT (P less than .01 for difference between settings). Proportions of antibody negative acute infections were 13.6% (95% CI, 10.1-18.0) and 4.7% (95% CI, 2.8-7.7) in studies from high- and low-income countries respectively (P less than .01).

Rapid tests were less sensitive when used in clinical settings in high-income countries, regardless of whether they were compared with a NAAT or fourth-generation EIA. However, the researchers noted that the discrepancy between high- and low-income countries could be attributed to the higher proportion of acute HIV infections (antibody-negative NAAT positive) in populations tested in high-income countries, which might reflect higher background testing rates or a higher incidence of HIV in men who have sex with men.

Read the full study in AIDS (doi: 10.1097/QAD.0000000000001134).

[email protected]

On Twitter @richpizzi

Rapid HIV tests in high-income countries miss about one in seven infections and should be used in combination with fourth-generation enzyme immunoassays (EIA) or nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) in clinical settings, according to a study in the journal AIDS.

“These infections are likely to be particularly transmissible due to the high HIV viral load in early infection ... in high-income countries, rapid tests should be used in combination with fourth-generation EIA or NAAT, except in special circumstances,” the Australian researchers said.

©jarun011/Thinkstock

They performed a systematic review and meta-analysis of 18 studies involving 110,122 HIV rapid test results. The primary outcome was the test’s sensitivity for detecting acute or established HIV infections. Sensitivity was calculated by dividing the number of confirmed positive rapid tests by the number of confirmed positive comparator tests. Specificity was calculated by dividing the number of confirmed negative rapid tests by the number of negative comparator tests.

Compared with EIA, the estimated sensitivity of rapid tests was 94.5% (95% confidence interval, 87.4-97.7). Compared with NAAT, the sensitivity of rapid tests was 93.7% (95% CI, 88.7-96.5). The sensitivity of rapid tests in high income countries was 85.7% (95% CI, 81.9-88.9), and in low income countries was 97.7% (95% CI, 95.2-98·9), compared with either EIA or NAAT (P less than .01 for difference between settings). Proportions of antibody negative acute infections were 13.6% (95% CI, 10.1-18.0) and 4.7% (95% CI, 2.8-7.7) in studies from high- and low-income countries respectively (P less than .01).

Rapid tests were less sensitive when used in clinical settings in high-income countries, regardless of whether they were compared with a NAAT or fourth-generation EIA. However, the researchers noted that the discrepancy between high- and low-income countries could be attributed to the higher proportion of acute HIV infections (antibody-negative NAAT positive) in populations tested in high-income countries, which might reflect higher background testing rates or a higher incidence of HIV in men who have sex with men.

Read the full study in AIDS (doi: 10.1097/QAD.0000000000001134).

[email protected]

On Twitter @richpizzi

Rapid HIV tests in high-income countries miss about one in seven infections and should be used in combination with fourth-generation enzyme immunoassays (EIA) or nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) in clinical settings, according to a study in the journal AIDS.

“These infections are likely to be particularly transmissible due to the high HIV viral load in early infection ... in high-income countries, rapid tests should be used in combination with fourth-generation EIA or NAAT, except in special circumstances,” the Australian researchers said.

©jarun011/Thinkstock

They performed a systematic review and meta-analysis of 18 studies involving 110,122 HIV rapid test results. The primary outcome was the test’s sensitivity for detecting acute or established HIV infections. Sensitivity was calculated by dividing the number of confirmed positive rapid tests by the number of confirmed positive comparator tests. Specificity was calculated by dividing the number of confirmed negative rapid tests by the number of negative comparator tests.

Compared with EIA, the estimated sensitivity of rapid tests was 94.5% (95% confidence interval, 87.4-97.7). Compared with NAAT, the sensitivity of rapid tests was 93.7% (95% CI, 88.7-96.5). The sensitivity of rapid tests in high income countries was 85.7% (95% CI, 81.9-88.9), and in low income countries was 97.7% (95% CI, 95.2-98·9), compared with either EIA or NAAT (P less than .01 for difference between settings). Proportions of antibody negative acute infections were 13.6% (95% CI, 10.1-18.0) and 4.7% (95% CI, 2.8-7.7) in studies from high- and low-income countries respectively (P less than .01).

Rapid tests were less sensitive when used in clinical settings in high-income countries, regardless of whether they were compared with a NAAT or fourth-generation EIA. However, the researchers noted that the discrepancy between high- and low-income countries could be attributed to the higher proportion of acute HIV infections (antibody-negative NAAT positive) in populations tested in high-income countries, which might reflect higher background testing rates or a higher incidence of HIV in men who have sex with men.

Read the full study in AIDS (doi: 10.1097/QAD.0000000000001134).

[email protected]

On Twitter @richpizzi