Clinical Review

With the increasing prevalence of pelvic floor disorders among our aging population, women’s health clinicians should be prepared to counsel patients on treatment options and posttreatment expectations. In this Update, we will review recent literature on surgical treatments for pelvic organ prolapse (POP) and stress urinary incontinence (SUI). We also include our review of an award-winning and practice-changing study on office-based pessary care. Lastly, we will finish with a summary of a recent Society of Gynecologic Surgeons collaborative systematic review on sexual function after surgery.

5-year RCT data on hysteropexy vs hysterectomy for POP

Nager CW, Visco AG, Richter HE, et al; National Institute of Child Health and Human Development Pelvic Floor Disorders Network. Effect of sacrospinous hysteropexy with graft vs vaginal hysterectomy with uterosacral ligament suspension on treatment failure in women with uterovaginal prolapse: 5-year results of a randomized clinical trial. Am J Obstet Gynecol. 2021;225:153. e1-153.e31. doi: 10.1016/j.ajog.2021.03.012.

The Pelvic Floor Disorders Network conducted a multisite randomized superiority trial comparing sacrospinous hysteropexy with mesh graft to vaginal hysterectomy with uterosacral ligament suspension for POP.

Study details

Postmenopausal women who desired surgery for symptomatic uterovaginal prolapse were randomly assigned to sacrospinous hysteropexy with polypropylene mesh graft using the Uphold-LITE device (Boston Scientific) versus vaginal hysterectomy with uterosacral ligament suspension. Participants were masked to treatment allocation and completed study visits at 6-month intervals through 60 months. Quantitative prolapse POP-Q exams were performed and patients completed multiple validated questionnaires regarding the presence; severity; and impact of prolapse, urinary, bowel, and pelvic pain symptoms.

Results

A total of 183 postmenopausal women were randomized, and 156 (81 hysteropexy and 75 hysterectomy) patients completed 5-year follow up with no demographic differences between the 2 intervention groups. Operative time was statistically less in the hysteropexy group (111.5 min vs 156.7 min). There were fewer treatment failures (a composite including retreatment for prolapse, prolapse beyond the hymen, and/or bothersome bulge symptoms) in the hysteropexy than in the hysterectomy group (37% vs 54%, respectively) at 5 years of follow up. However, most patients with treatment failure were classified as an intermittent failure, with only 16% of hysteropexy patients and 22% of hysterectomy patients classified as persistent failures. There were no meaningful  differences between patient-reported outcomes. Hysteropexy had an 8% mesh exposure risk, with none requiring surgical management.

Continue to: Preliminary 12-month data for a single-incision sling for surgical management of SUI...

Preliminary 12-month data for a single-incision sling for surgical management of SUI

Erickson T, Roovers JP, Gheiler E, et al. A multicenter prospective study evaluating efficacy and safety of a single-incision sling procedure for stress urinary incontinence. J Minim Invasive Gynecol. 2021;28:93-99. doi: 10.1016/j.jmig.2020.04.014.

In this industry-sponsored study, researchers compared a novel single-incision sling to currently available midurethral slings for SUI with 12-month outcomes and adverse event details. However, results are primarily descriptive with no statistical testing.

Study details

Patients were eligible for inclusion in this prospective, nonrandomized cohort study if SUI was their primary incontinence symptom, with confirmatory office testing. Exclusion criteria included POP greater than stage 2, prior SUI surgery, plans for future pregnancy, elevated postvoid residuals, or concomitant surgical procedures. The single-incision Altis (Coloplast) sling was compared to all commercially available transobturator and retropubic midurethral slings. The primary outcome of this study was reduction in 24-hour pad weights, and secondary outcomes included negative cough-stress test and subjective patient-reported outcomes via validated questionnaires.

Results

A total of 184 women were enrolled in the Altis group and 171 in the comparator other sling group. Symptom severity was similar between groups, but more patients in the comparator group had mixed urinary incontinence, and more patients in the Altis group had intrinsic sphincter deficiency. The Altis group had a higher proportion of “dry patients,” but otherwise the outcomes were similar between the 2 groups, including negative cough-stress test and patientreported outcomes. Two patients in the Altis group and 7 patients in the comparator group underwent device revisions. Again, statistical analysis was not performed.

Office-based pessary care can be safely spaced out to 24 weeks without an increase in erosions

Propst K, Mellen C, O’Sullivan DM, et al. Timing of office-based pessary care: a randomized controlled trial. Obstet Gynecol. 2020;135:100-105. doi: 10.1097 /AOG.0000000000003580.

For women already using a pessary without issues, extending office visits to every 6 months does not increase rates of vaginal epithelial abnormalities, according to results of this randomized controlled trial.

Study details

Women already using a Gelhorn, ring, or incontinence dish pessary for POP, SUI, or both were randomized to continue routine care with office evaluation every 12 weeks versus the extended-care cohort (with office evaluation every 24 weeks). Women were excluded if they removed and replaced the pessary themselves or if there was a presence of vaginal epithelial abnormalities, such as erosion or granulation tissue.

Results

The rate of vaginal epithelium erosion was 7.4% in the routine arm and 1.7% in the extended-care arm, meeting criteria for noninferiority of extended care. The majority of patients with office visits every 24 weeks preferred the less frequent examinations, and there was no difference in degree of bother due to vaginal discharge. There was also no difference in the percentage of patients with unscheduled visits. The only factors associated with vaginal epithelium abnormalities were prior abnormalities and lifetime duration of pessary use.

Continue to: How can we counsel patients regarding changes in sexual activity and function after surgery for POP?... 

How can we counsel patients regarding changes in sexual activity and function after surgery for POP?

Antosh DD, Dieter AA, Balk EM, et al. Sexual function after pelvic organ prolapse surgery: a systematic review comparing different approaches to pelvic floor repair. Am J Obstet Gynecol. 2021;2:S0002-9378(21)00610-4. doi: 10.1016/j.ajog.2021.05.042.

A secondary analysis of a recent systematic review found overall moderate- to high-quality evidence that were no differences in total dyspareunia, de novo dyspareunia, and scores on a validated sexual function questionnaire (PISQ12) when comparing postoperative sexual function outcomes of native tissue repair to sacrocolpopexy, transvaginal mesh, or biologic graft. Rates of postoperative dyspareunia were higher for transvaginal mesh than for sacrocolpopexy.

Study details

The Society of Gynecologic Surgeons Systematic Review Group identified 43 original prospective, comparative studies of reconstructive prolapse surgery that reported sexual function outcomes when comparing 2 different types of POP procedures. Thirty-seven of those studies were randomized controlled trials. Specifically, they looked at data comparing outcomes for native tissue versus sacrocolpopexy, native tissue versus transvaginal mesh, native tissue versus biologic graft, and transvaginal mesh versus sacrocolpopexy.

Results

Overall, the prevalence of postoperative dyspareunia was lower than preoperatively after all surgery types. The only statistical difference in this review demonstrated higher postoperative prevalence of dyspareunia after transvaginal mesh than sacrocolpopexy, based on 2 studies. When comparing native tissue prolapse repair to transvaginal mesh, sacrocolpopexy, or biologic grafts, there were no significant differences in sexual activity, baseline, or postoperative total dyspareunia, de-novo dyspareunia, or sexual function changes as measured by the PISQ12 validated questionnaire. ●

With the increasing prevalence of pelvic floor disorders among our aging population, women’s health clinicians should be prepared to counsel patients on treatment options and posttreatment expectations. In this Update, we will review recent literature on surgical treatments for pelvic organ prolapse (POP) and stress urinary incontinence (SUI). We also include our review of an award-winning and practice-changing study on office-based pessary care. Lastly, we will finish with a summary of a recent Society of Gynecologic Surgeons collaborative systematic review on sexual function after surgery.

5-year RCT data on hysteropexy vs hysterectomy for POP

Nager CW, Visco AG, Richter HE, et al; National Institute of Child Health and Human Development Pelvic Floor Disorders Network. Effect of sacrospinous hysteropexy with graft vs vaginal hysterectomy with uterosacral ligament suspension on treatment failure in women with uterovaginal prolapse: 5-year results of a randomized clinical trial. Am J Obstet Gynecol. 2021;225:153. e1-153.e31. doi: 10.1016/j.ajog.2021.03.012.

The Pelvic Floor Disorders Network conducted a multisite randomized superiority trial comparing sacrospinous hysteropexy with mesh graft to vaginal hysterectomy with uterosacral ligament suspension for POP.

Study details

Postmenopausal women who desired surgery for symptomatic uterovaginal prolapse were randomly assigned to sacrospinous hysteropexy with polypropylene mesh graft using the Uphold-LITE device (Boston Scientific) versus vaginal hysterectomy with uterosacral ligament suspension. Participants were masked to treatment allocation and completed study visits at 6-month intervals through 60 months. Quantitative prolapse POP-Q exams were performed and patients completed multiple validated questionnaires regarding the presence; severity; and impact of prolapse, urinary, bowel, and pelvic pain symptoms.

Results

A total of 183 postmenopausal women were randomized, and 156 (81 hysteropexy and 75 hysterectomy) patients completed 5-year follow up with no demographic differences between the 2 intervention groups. Operative time was statistically less in the hysteropexy group (111.5 min vs 156.7 min). There were fewer treatment failures (a composite including retreatment for prolapse, prolapse beyond the hymen, and/or bothersome bulge symptoms) in the hysteropexy than in the hysterectomy group (37% vs 54%, respectively) at 5 years of follow up. However, most patients with treatment failure were classified as an intermittent failure, with only 16% of hysteropexy patients and 22% of hysterectomy patients classified as persistent failures. There were no meaningful  differences between patient-reported outcomes. Hysteropexy had an 8% mesh exposure risk, with none requiring surgical management.

Continue to: Preliminary 12-month data for a single-incision sling for surgical management of SUI...

Preliminary 12-month data for a single-incision sling for surgical management of SUI

Erickson T, Roovers JP, Gheiler E, et al. A multicenter prospective study evaluating efficacy and safety of a single-incision sling procedure for stress urinary incontinence. J Minim Invasive Gynecol. 2021;28:93-99. doi: 10.1016/j.jmig.2020.04.014.

In this industry-sponsored study, researchers compared a novel single-incision sling to currently available midurethral slings for SUI with 12-month outcomes and adverse event details. However, results are primarily descriptive with no statistical testing.

Study details

Patients were eligible for inclusion in this prospective, nonrandomized cohort study if SUI was their primary incontinence symptom, with confirmatory office testing. Exclusion criteria included POP greater than stage 2, prior SUI surgery, plans for future pregnancy, elevated postvoid residuals, or concomitant surgical procedures. The single-incision Altis (Coloplast) sling was compared to all commercially available transobturator and retropubic midurethral slings. The primary outcome of this study was reduction in 24-hour pad weights, and secondary outcomes included negative cough-stress test and subjective patient-reported outcomes via validated questionnaires.

Results

A total of 184 women were enrolled in the Altis group and 171 in the comparator other sling group. Symptom severity was similar between groups, but more patients in the comparator group had mixed urinary incontinence, and more patients in the Altis group had intrinsic sphincter deficiency. The Altis group had a higher proportion of “dry patients,” but otherwise the outcomes were similar between the 2 groups, including negative cough-stress test and patientreported outcomes. Two patients in the Altis group and 7 patients in the comparator group underwent device revisions. Again, statistical analysis was not performed.

Office-based pessary care can be safely spaced out to 24 weeks without an increase in erosions

Propst K, Mellen C, O’Sullivan DM, et al. Timing of office-based pessary care: a randomized controlled trial. Obstet Gynecol. 2020;135:100-105. doi: 10.1097 /AOG.0000000000003580.

For women already using a pessary without issues, extending office visits to every 6 months does not increase rates of vaginal epithelial abnormalities, according to results of this randomized controlled trial.

Study details

Women already using a Gelhorn, ring, or incontinence dish pessary for POP, SUI, or both were randomized to continue routine care with office evaluation every 12 weeks versus the extended-care cohort (with office evaluation every 24 weeks). Women were excluded if they removed and replaced the pessary themselves or if there was a presence of vaginal epithelial abnormalities, such as erosion or granulation tissue.

Results

The rate of vaginal epithelium erosion was 7.4% in the routine arm and 1.7% in the extended-care arm, meeting criteria for noninferiority of extended care. The majority of patients with office visits every 24 weeks preferred the less frequent examinations, and there was no difference in degree of bother due to vaginal discharge. There was also no difference in the percentage of patients with unscheduled visits. The only factors associated with vaginal epithelium abnormalities were prior abnormalities and lifetime duration of pessary use.

Continue to: How can we counsel patients regarding changes in sexual activity and function after surgery for POP?... 

How can we counsel patients regarding changes in sexual activity and function after surgery for POP?

Antosh DD, Dieter AA, Balk EM, et al. Sexual function after pelvic organ prolapse surgery: a systematic review comparing different approaches to pelvic floor repair. Am J Obstet Gynecol. 2021;2:S0002-9378(21)00610-4. doi: 10.1016/j.ajog.2021.05.042.

A secondary analysis of a recent systematic review found overall moderate- to high-quality evidence that were no differences in total dyspareunia, de novo dyspareunia, and scores on a validated sexual function questionnaire (PISQ12) when comparing postoperative sexual function outcomes of native tissue repair to sacrocolpopexy, transvaginal mesh, or biologic graft. Rates of postoperative dyspareunia were higher for transvaginal mesh than for sacrocolpopexy.

Study details

The Society of Gynecologic Surgeons Systematic Review Group identified 43 original prospective, comparative studies of reconstructive prolapse surgery that reported sexual function outcomes when comparing 2 different types of POP procedures. Thirty-seven of those studies were randomized controlled trials. Specifically, they looked at data comparing outcomes for native tissue versus sacrocolpopexy, native tissue versus transvaginal mesh, native tissue versus biologic graft, and transvaginal mesh versus sacrocolpopexy.

Results

Overall, the prevalence of postoperative dyspareunia was lower than preoperatively after all surgery types. The only statistical difference in this review demonstrated higher postoperative prevalence of dyspareunia after transvaginal mesh than sacrocolpopexy, based on 2 studies. When comparing native tissue prolapse repair to transvaginal mesh, sacrocolpopexy, or biologic grafts, there were no significant differences in sexual activity, baseline, or postoperative total dyspareunia, de-novo dyspareunia, or sexual function changes as measured by the PISQ12 validated questionnaire. ●

With the increasing prevalence of pelvic floor disorders among our aging population, women’s health clinicians should be prepared to counsel patients on treatment options and posttreatment expectations. In this Update, we will review recent literature on surgical treatments for pelvic organ prolapse (POP) and stress urinary incontinence (SUI). We also include our review of an award-winning and practice-changing study on office-based pessary care. Lastly, we will finish with a summary of a recent Society of Gynecologic Surgeons collaborative systematic review on sexual function after surgery.

5-year RCT data on hysteropexy vs hysterectomy for POP

Nager CW, Visco AG, Richter HE, et al; National Institute of Child Health and Human Development Pelvic Floor Disorders Network. Effect of sacrospinous hysteropexy with graft vs vaginal hysterectomy with uterosacral ligament suspension on treatment failure in women with uterovaginal prolapse: 5-year results of a randomized clinical trial. Am J Obstet Gynecol. 2021;225:153. e1-153.e31. doi: 10.1016/j.ajog.2021.03.012.

The Pelvic Floor Disorders Network conducted a multisite randomized superiority trial comparing sacrospinous hysteropexy with mesh graft to vaginal hysterectomy with uterosacral ligament suspension for POP.

Study details

Postmenopausal women who desired surgery for symptomatic uterovaginal prolapse were randomly assigned to sacrospinous hysteropexy with polypropylene mesh graft using the Uphold-LITE device (Boston Scientific) versus vaginal hysterectomy with uterosacral ligament suspension. Participants were masked to treatment allocation and completed study visits at 6-month intervals through 60 months. Quantitative prolapse POP-Q exams were performed and patients completed multiple validated questionnaires regarding the presence; severity; and impact of prolapse, urinary, bowel, and pelvic pain symptoms.

Results

A total of 183 postmenopausal women were randomized, and 156 (81 hysteropexy and 75 hysterectomy) patients completed 5-year follow up with no demographic differences between the 2 intervention groups. Operative time was statistically less in the hysteropexy group (111.5 min vs 156.7 min). There were fewer treatment failures (a composite including retreatment for prolapse, prolapse beyond the hymen, and/or bothersome bulge symptoms) in the hysteropexy than in the hysterectomy group (37% vs 54%, respectively) at 5 years of follow up. However, most patients with treatment failure were classified as an intermittent failure, with only 16% of hysteropexy patients and 22% of hysterectomy patients classified as persistent failures. There were no meaningful  differences between patient-reported outcomes. Hysteropexy had an 8% mesh exposure risk, with none requiring surgical management.

Continue to: Preliminary 12-month data for a single-incision sling for surgical management of SUI...

Preliminary 12-month data for a single-incision sling for surgical management of SUI

Erickson T, Roovers JP, Gheiler E, et al. A multicenter prospective study evaluating efficacy and safety of a single-incision sling procedure for stress urinary incontinence. J Minim Invasive Gynecol. 2021;28:93-99. doi: 10.1016/j.jmig.2020.04.014.

In this industry-sponsored study, researchers compared a novel single-incision sling to currently available midurethral slings for SUI with 12-month outcomes and adverse event details. However, results are primarily descriptive with no statistical testing.

Study details

Patients were eligible for inclusion in this prospective, nonrandomized cohort study if SUI was their primary incontinence symptom, with confirmatory office testing. Exclusion criteria included POP greater than stage 2, prior SUI surgery, plans for future pregnancy, elevated postvoid residuals, or concomitant surgical procedures. The single-incision Altis (Coloplast) sling was compared to all commercially available transobturator and retropubic midurethral slings. The primary outcome of this study was reduction in 24-hour pad weights, and secondary outcomes included negative cough-stress test and subjective patient-reported outcomes via validated questionnaires.

Results

A total of 184 women were enrolled in the Altis group and 171 in the comparator other sling group. Symptom severity was similar between groups, but more patients in the comparator group had mixed urinary incontinence, and more patients in the Altis group had intrinsic sphincter deficiency. The Altis group had a higher proportion of “dry patients,” but otherwise the outcomes were similar between the 2 groups, including negative cough-stress test and patientreported outcomes. Two patients in the Altis group and 7 patients in the comparator group underwent device revisions. Again, statistical analysis was not performed.

Office-based pessary care can be safely spaced out to 24 weeks without an increase in erosions

Propst K, Mellen C, O’Sullivan DM, et al. Timing of office-based pessary care: a randomized controlled trial. Obstet Gynecol. 2020;135:100-105. doi: 10.1097 /AOG.0000000000003580.

For women already using a pessary without issues, extending office visits to every 6 months does not increase rates of vaginal epithelial abnormalities, according to results of this randomized controlled trial.

Study details

Women already using a Gelhorn, ring, or incontinence dish pessary for POP, SUI, or both were randomized to continue routine care with office evaluation every 12 weeks versus the extended-care cohort (with office evaluation every 24 weeks). Women were excluded if they removed and replaced the pessary themselves or if there was a presence of vaginal epithelial abnormalities, such as erosion or granulation tissue.

Results

The rate of vaginal epithelium erosion was 7.4% in the routine arm and 1.7% in the extended-care arm, meeting criteria for noninferiority of extended care. The majority of patients with office visits every 24 weeks preferred the less frequent examinations, and there was no difference in degree of bother due to vaginal discharge. There was also no difference in the percentage of patients with unscheduled visits. The only factors associated with vaginal epithelium abnormalities were prior abnormalities and lifetime duration of pessary use.

Continue to: How can we counsel patients regarding changes in sexual activity and function after surgery for POP?... 

How can we counsel patients regarding changes in sexual activity and function after surgery for POP?

Antosh DD, Dieter AA, Balk EM, et al. Sexual function after pelvic organ prolapse surgery: a systematic review comparing different approaches to pelvic floor repair. Am J Obstet Gynecol. 2021;2:S0002-9378(21)00610-4. doi: 10.1016/j.ajog.2021.05.042.

A secondary analysis of a recent systematic review found overall moderate- to high-quality evidence that were no differences in total dyspareunia, de novo dyspareunia, and scores on a validated sexual function questionnaire (PISQ12) when comparing postoperative sexual function outcomes of native tissue repair to sacrocolpopexy, transvaginal mesh, or biologic graft. Rates of postoperative dyspareunia were higher for transvaginal mesh than for sacrocolpopexy.

Study details

The Society of Gynecologic Surgeons Systematic Review Group identified 43 original prospective, comparative studies of reconstructive prolapse surgery that reported sexual function outcomes when comparing 2 different types of POP procedures. Thirty-seven of those studies were randomized controlled trials. Specifically, they looked at data comparing outcomes for native tissue versus sacrocolpopexy, native tissue versus transvaginal mesh, native tissue versus biologic graft, and transvaginal mesh versus sacrocolpopexy.

Results

Overall, the prevalence of postoperative dyspareunia was lower than preoperatively after all surgery types. The only statistical difference in this review demonstrated higher postoperative prevalence of dyspareunia after transvaginal mesh than sacrocolpopexy, based on 2 studies. When comparing native tissue prolapse repair to transvaginal mesh, sacrocolpopexy, or biologic grafts, there were no significant differences in sexual activity, baseline, or postoperative total dyspareunia, de-novo dyspareunia, or sexual function changes as measured by the PISQ12 validated questionnaire. ●

Autoeczematization (AE), or id reaction, is a disseminated eczematous reaction that occurs days or weeks after exposure to a primary stimulus, resulting from a release of antigen(s). Whitfield¹ first described AE in 1921, when he postulated that the id reaction was due to sensitization of the skin after a primary stimulus. He called it “a form of auto-intoxication derived from changes in the patient’s own tissues.”¹ The exact prevalence of id reactions is unknown; one study showed that 17% of patients with dermatophyte infections developed an id reaction, typically tinea pedis linked with vesicles on the palms.² Tinea capitis is one of the most common causes of AE in children, which is frequently misdiagnosed as a drug reaction. Approximately 37% of patients diagnosed with stasis dermatitis develop an id reaction (Figure 1). A history of contact dermatitis is common in patients presenting with AE.^2-6

Pathophysiology of Id Reactions

An abnormal immune response against autologous skin antigens may be responsible for the development of AE. Shelley⁵ postulated that hair follicles play an important role in id reactions, as Sharquie et al⁶ recently emphasized for many skin disorders. The pathogenesis of AE is uncertain, but circulating T lymphocytes play a role in this reaction. Normally, T cells are activated by a release of antigens after a primary exposure to a stimulus. However, overactivation of these T cells induces autoimmune reactions such as AE.⁷ Activated T lymphocytes express HLA-DR and IL-2 receptor, markers elevated in the peripheral blood of patients undergoing id reactions. After treatment, the levels of activated T lymphocytes decline. An increase in the number of CD25⁺ T cells and a decrease in the number of suppressor T cells in the blood may occur during an id reaction.^7-9 Keratinocytes produce proinflammatory cytokines, such as thymic stromal erythropoietin, IL-25, and IL-33, that activate T cells.^10-12 Therefore, the most likely pathogenesis of an id reaction is that T lymphocytes are activated at the primary reaction site due to proinflammatory cytokines released by keratinocytes. These activated T cells then travel systemically via hematogenous dissemination. The spread of activated T lymphocytes produces an eczematous reaction at secondary locations distant to the primary site.⁹

Clinical and Histopathological Features of Id Reactions

Clinically, AE is first evident as a vesicular dissemination that groups to form papules or nummular patches and usually is present on the legs, feet, arms, and/or trunk (Figure 2). The primary dermatitis is localized to the area that was the site of contact to the offending stimuli. This localized eczematous eruption begins with an acute or subacute onset. It has the appearance of small crusted vesicles with erythema (Figure 1). The first sign of AE is vesicles presenting near the primary site on flexural surfaces or on the hands and feet. A classic example is tinea pedis linked with vesicles on the palms and sides of the fingers, resembling dyshidrotic eczema. Sites of prior cutaneous trauma, such as dermatoses, scars, and burns, are common locations for early AE. In later stages, vesicles disseminate to the legs, arms, and trunk, where they group to form papules and nummular patches in a symmetrical pattern.^5,13-15 These lesions may be extremely pruritic. The pruritus may be so intense that it interrupts daily activities and disrupts the ability to fall or stay asleep.¹⁶

Histologically, biopsy specimens show psoriasiform spongiotic dermatitis with mononuclear cells contained in the vesicles. Interstitial edema and perivascular lymphohistiocytic infiltrates are evident. Eosinophils also may be present. This pattern is not unique toid reactions.^17-19 Although AE is a reaction pattern that may be due to a fungal or bacterial infection, the etiologic agent is not evident microscopically within the eczema itself.

Etiology of Id Reactions

Id reactions most commonly occur from either stasis dermatitis or tinea pedis, although a wide variety of other causes should be considered. Evaluation of the primary site rather than the id reaction may identify an infectious or parasitic agent. Sometimes the AE reaction is specifically named: dermatophytid with dermatophytosis, bacterid with a bacterial infectious process, and tuberculid with tuberculosis. Similarly, there may be reactions to underlying candidiasis, sporotrichosis, histoplasmosis, and other fungal infections that can cause a cutaneous id reaction.^18,20-22Mycobacterium species, Pseudomonas, Staphylococcus, and Streptococcus are bacterial causes of AE.^15,23-26 Viral infections that can cause an id reaction are herpes simplex virus and molluscum contagiosum.^27-29 Scabies, leishmaniasis, and pediculosis capitis are parasitic infections that may be etiologic.^14,30,31 In addition, noninfectious stimuli besides stasis dermatitis that can produce id reactions include medications, topical creams, tattoo ink, sutures, radiotherapy, and dyshidrotic eczema. The primary reaction to these agents is a localized dermatitis followed by the immunological response that induces a secondary reaction distant from the primary site.^17,18,32-38

Differential Diagnoses

Differential diagnoses include other types of eczema and some vesicular eruptions. Irritant contact dermatitis is another dermatosis that presents as a widespread vesicular eruption due to repetitive exposure to toxic irritants. The rash is erythematous with pustules, blisters, and crusts. It is only found in areas directly exposed to irritants, as opposed to AE, which spreads to areas distant to the primary reaction site. Irritant contact dermatitis presents with more of a burning sensation, whereas AE is more pruritic.^39,40 Allergic contact dermatitis presents with erythematous vesicles and papules and sometimes with bullae. There is edema and crust formation, which often can spread past the point of contact in later stages. Similar to AE, there is intense pruritus. However, allergic contact dermatitis most commonly is caused by exposure to metals, cosmetics, and fragrances, whereas infectious agents and stasis dermatitis are the most common causes of AE.^40,41 It may be challenging to distinguish AE from other causes of widespread eczematous dissemination. Vesicular eruptions sometimes require distinction from AE, including herpetic infections, insect bite reactions, and drug eruptions.^18,42

Treatment

The underlying condition should be treated to mitigate the inflammatory response causing the id reaction. If not skillfully orchestrated, the id reaction can reoccur. For infectious causes of AE, an antifungal, antibacterial, antiviral, or antiparasitic should be given. If stasis dermatitis is responsible for the id reaction, compression stockings and leg elevation are indicated. The id reaction itself is treated with systemic or topical corticosteroids and wet compresses if acute. The goal of these treatments is to reduce patient discomfort caused by the inflammation and pruritus.^18,43

Conclusion

Id reactions are an unusual phenomenon that commonly occurs after fungal skin infections and stasis dermatitis. T lymphocytes and keratinocytes may play a key role in this reaction, with newer research further delineating the process and possibly providing enhanced treatment options. Therapy focuses on treating the underlying condition, supplemented with corticosteroids for the autoeczema.

Autoeczematization (AE), or id reaction, is a disseminated eczematous reaction that occurs days or weeks after exposure to a primary stimulus, resulting from a release of antigen(s). Whitfield¹ first described AE in 1921, when he postulated that the id reaction was due to sensitization of the skin after a primary stimulus. He called it “a form of auto-intoxication derived from changes in the patient’s own tissues.”¹ The exact prevalence of id reactions is unknown; one study showed that 17% of patients with dermatophyte infections developed an id reaction, typically tinea pedis linked with vesicles on the palms.² Tinea capitis is one of the most common causes of AE in children, which is frequently misdiagnosed as a drug reaction. Approximately 37% of patients diagnosed with stasis dermatitis develop an id reaction (Figure 1). A history of contact dermatitis is common in patients presenting with AE.^2-6

Pathophysiology of Id Reactions

An abnormal immune response against autologous skin antigens may be responsible for the development of AE. Shelley⁵ postulated that hair follicles play an important role in id reactions, as Sharquie et al⁶ recently emphasized for many skin disorders. The pathogenesis of AE is uncertain, but circulating T lymphocytes play a role in this reaction. Normally, T cells are activated by a release of antigens after a primary exposure to a stimulus. However, overactivation of these T cells induces autoimmune reactions such as AE.⁷ Activated T lymphocytes express HLA-DR and IL-2 receptor, markers elevated in the peripheral blood of patients undergoing id reactions. After treatment, the levels of activated T lymphocytes decline. An increase in the number of CD25⁺ T cells and a decrease in the number of suppressor T cells in the blood may occur during an id reaction.^7-9 Keratinocytes produce proinflammatory cytokines, such as thymic stromal erythropoietin, IL-25, and IL-33, that activate T cells.^10-12 Therefore, the most likely pathogenesis of an id reaction is that T lymphocytes are activated at the primary reaction site due to proinflammatory cytokines released by keratinocytes. These activated T cells then travel systemically via hematogenous dissemination. The spread of activated T lymphocytes produces an eczematous reaction at secondary locations distant to the primary site.⁹

Clinical and Histopathological Features of Id Reactions

Clinically, AE is first evident as a vesicular dissemination that groups to form papules or nummular patches and usually is present on the legs, feet, arms, and/or trunk (Figure 2). The primary dermatitis is localized to the area that was the site of contact to the offending stimuli. This localized eczematous eruption begins with an acute or subacute onset. It has the appearance of small crusted vesicles with erythema (Figure 1). The first sign of AE is vesicles presenting near the primary site on flexural surfaces or on the hands and feet. A classic example is tinea pedis linked with vesicles on the palms and sides of the fingers, resembling dyshidrotic eczema. Sites of prior cutaneous trauma, such as dermatoses, scars, and burns, are common locations for early AE. In later stages, vesicles disseminate to the legs, arms, and trunk, where they group to form papules and nummular patches in a symmetrical pattern.^5,13-15 These lesions may be extremely pruritic. The pruritus may be so intense that it interrupts daily activities and disrupts the ability to fall or stay asleep.¹⁶

Histologically, biopsy specimens show psoriasiform spongiotic dermatitis with mononuclear cells contained in the vesicles. Interstitial edema and perivascular lymphohistiocytic infiltrates are evident. Eosinophils also may be present. This pattern is not unique toid reactions.^17-19 Although AE is a reaction pattern that may be due to a fungal or bacterial infection, the etiologic agent is not evident microscopically within the eczema itself.

Etiology of Id Reactions

Id reactions most commonly occur from either stasis dermatitis or tinea pedis, although a wide variety of other causes should be considered. Evaluation of the primary site rather than the id reaction may identify an infectious or parasitic agent. Sometimes the AE reaction is specifically named: dermatophytid with dermatophytosis, bacterid with a bacterial infectious process, and tuberculid with tuberculosis. Similarly, there may be reactions to underlying candidiasis, sporotrichosis, histoplasmosis, and other fungal infections that can cause a cutaneous id reaction.^18,20-22Mycobacterium species, Pseudomonas, Staphylococcus, and Streptococcus are bacterial causes of AE.^15,23-26 Viral infections that can cause an id reaction are herpes simplex virus and molluscum contagiosum.^27-29 Scabies, leishmaniasis, and pediculosis capitis are parasitic infections that may be etiologic.^14,30,31 In addition, noninfectious stimuli besides stasis dermatitis that can produce id reactions include medications, topical creams, tattoo ink, sutures, radiotherapy, and dyshidrotic eczema. The primary reaction to these agents is a localized dermatitis followed by the immunological response that induces a secondary reaction distant from the primary site.^17,18,32-38

Differential Diagnoses

Differential diagnoses include other types of eczema and some vesicular eruptions. Irritant contact dermatitis is another dermatosis that presents as a widespread vesicular eruption due to repetitive exposure to toxic irritants. The rash is erythematous with pustules, blisters, and crusts. It is only found in areas directly exposed to irritants, as opposed to AE, which spreads to areas distant to the primary reaction site. Irritant contact dermatitis presents with more of a burning sensation, whereas AE is more pruritic.^39,40 Allergic contact dermatitis presents with erythematous vesicles and papules and sometimes with bullae. There is edema and crust formation, which often can spread past the point of contact in later stages. Similar to AE, there is intense pruritus. However, allergic contact dermatitis most commonly is caused by exposure to metals, cosmetics, and fragrances, whereas infectious agents and stasis dermatitis are the most common causes of AE.^40,41 It may be challenging to distinguish AE from other causes of widespread eczematous dissemination. Vesicular eruptions sometimes require distinction from AE, including herpetic infections, insect bite reactions, and drug eruptions.^18,42

Treatment

The underlying condition should be treated to mitigate the inflammatory response causing the id reaction. If not skillfully orchestrated, the id reaction can reoccur. For infectious causes of AE, an antifungal, antibacterial, antiviral, or antiparasitic should be given. If stasis dermatitis is responsible for the id reaction, compression stockings and leg elevation are indicated. The id reaction itself is treated with systemic or topical corticosteroids and wet compresses if acute. The goal of these treatments is to reduce patient discomfort caused by the inflammation and pruritus.^18,43

Conclusion

Id reactions are an unusual phenomenon that commonly occurs after fungal skin infections and stasis dermatitis. T lymphocytes and keratinocytes may play a key role in this reaction, with newer research further delineating the process and possibly providing enhanced treatment options. Therapy focuses on treating the underlying condition, supplemented with corticosteroids for the autoeczema.

Autoeczematization (AE), or id reaction, is a disseminated eczematous reaction that occurs days or weeks after exposure to a primary stimulus, resulting from a release of antigen(s). Whitfield¹ first described AE in 1921, when he postulated that the id reaction was due to sensitization of the skin after a primary stimulus. He called it “a form of auto-intoxication derived from changes in the patient’s own tissues.”¹ The exact prevalence of id reactions is unknown; one study showed that 17% of patients with dermatophyte infections developed an id reaction, typically tinea pedis linked with vesicles on the palms.² Tinea capitis is one of the most common causes of AE in children, which is frequently misdiagnosed as a drug reaction. Approximately 37% of patients diagnosed with stasis dermatitis develop an id reaction (Figure 1). A history of contact dermatitis is common in patients presenting with AE.^2-6

Pathophysiology of Id Reactions

An abnormal immune response against autologous skin antigens may be responsible for the development of AE. Shelley⁵ postulated that hair follicles play an important role in id reactions, as Sharquie et al⁶ recently emphasized for many skin disorders. The pathogenesis of AE is uncertain, but circulating T lymphocytes play a role in this reaction. Normally, T cells are activated by a release of antigens after a primary exposure to a stimulus. However, overactivation of these T cells induces autoimmune reactions such as AE.⁷ Activated T lymphocytes express HLA-DR and IL-2 receptor, markers elevated in the peripheral blood of patients undergoing id reactions. After treatment, the levels of activated T lymphocytes decline. An increase in the number of CD25⁺ T cells and a decrease in the number of suppressor T cells in the blood may occur during an id reaction.^7-9 Keratinocytes produce proinflammatory cytokines, such as thymic stromal erythropoietin, IL-25, and IL-33, that activate T cells.^10-12 Therefore, the most likely pathogenesis of an id reaction is that T lymphocytes are activated at the primary reaction site due to proinflammatory cytokines released by keratinocytes. These activated T cells then travel systemically via hematogenous dissemination. The spread of activated T lymphocytes produces an eczematous reaction at secondary locations distant to the primary site.⁹

Clinical and Histopathological Features of Id Reactions

Clinically, AE is first evident as a vesicular dissemination that groups to form papules or nummular patches and usually is present on the legs, feet, arms, and/or trunk (Figure 2). The primary dermatitis is localized to the area that was the site of contact to the offending stimuli. This localized eczematous eruption begins with an acute or subacute onset. It has the appearance of small crusted vesicles with erythema (Figure 1). The first sign of AE is vesicles presenting near the primary site on flexural surfaces or on the hands and feet. A classic example is tinea pedis linked with vesicles on the palms and sides of the fingers, resembling dyshidrotic eczema. Sites of prior cutaneous trauma, such as dermatoses, scars, and burns, are common locations for early AE. In later stages, vesicles disseminate to the legs, arms, and trunk, where they group to form papules and nummular patches in a symmetrical pattern.^5,13-15 These lesions may be extremely pruritic. The pruritus may be so intense that it interrupts daily activities and disrupts the ability to fall or stay asleep.¹⁶

Histologically, biopsy specimens show psoriasiform spongiotic dermatitis with mononuclear cells contained in the vesicles. Interstitial edema and perivascular lymphohistiocytic infiltrates are evident. Eosinophils also may be present. This pattern is not unique toid reactions.^17-19 Although AE is a reaction pattern that may be due to a fungal or bacterial infection, the etiologic agent is not evident microscopically within the eczema itself.

Etiology of Id Reactions

Id reactions most commonly occur from either stasis dermatitis or tinea pedis, although a wide variety of other causes should be considered. Evaluation of the primary site rather than the id reaction may identify an infectious or parasitic agent. Sometimes the AE reaction is specifically named: dermatophytid with dermatophytosis, bacterid with a bacterial infectious process, and tuberculid with tuberculosis. Similarly, there may be reactions to underlying candidiasis, sporotrichosis, histoplasmosis, and other fungal infections that can cause a cutaneous id reaction.^18,20-22Mycobacterium species, Pseudomonas, Staphylococcus, and Streptococcus are bacterial causes of AE.^15,23-26 Viral infections that can cause an id reaction are herpes simplex virus and molluscum contagiosum.^27-29 Scabies, leishmaniasis, and pediculosis capitis are parasitic infections that may be etiologic.^14,30,31 In addition, noninfectious stimuli besides stasis dermatitis that can produce id reactions include medications, topical creams, tattoo ink, sutures, radiotherapy, and dyshidrotic eczema. The primary reaction to these agents is a localized dermatitis followed by the immunological response that induces a secondary reaction distant from the primary site.^17,18,32-38

Differential Diagnoses

Differential diagnoses include other types of eczema and some vesicular eruptions. Irritant contact dermatitis is another dermatosis that presents as a widespread vesicular eruption due to repetitive exposure to toxic irritants. The rash is erythematous with pustules, blisters, and crusts. It is only found in areas directly exposed to irritants, as opposed to AE, which spreads to areas distant to the primary reaction site. Irritant contact dermatitis presents with more of a burning sensation, whereas AE is more pruritic.^39,40 Allergic contact dermatitis presents with erythematous vesicles and papules and sometimes with bullae. There is edema and crust formation, which often can spread past the point of contact in later stages. Similar to AE, there is intense pruritus. However, allergic contact dermatitis most commonly is caused by exposure to metals, cosmetics, and fragrances, whereas infectious agents and stasis dermatitis are the most common causes of AE.^40,41 It may be challenging to distinguish AE from other causes of widespread eczematous dissemination. Vesicular eruptions sometimes require distinction from AE, including herpetic infections, insect bite reactions, and drug eruptions.^18,42

Treatment

The underlying condition should be treated to mitigate the inflammatory response causing the id reaction. If not skillfully orchestrated, the id reaction can reoccur. For infectious causes of AE, an antifungal, antibacterial, antiviral, or antiparasitic should be given. If stasis dermatitis is responsible for the id reaction, compression stockings and leg elevation are indicated. The id reaction itself is treated with systemic or topical corticosteroids and wet compresses if acute. The goal of these treatments is to reduce patient discomfort caused by the inflammation and pruritus.^18,43

Conclusion

Id reactions are an unusual phenomenon that commonly occurs after fungal skin infections and stasis dermatitis. T lymphocytes and keratinocytes may play a key role in this reaction, with newer research further delineating the process and possibly providing enhanced treatment options. Therapy focuses on treating the underlying condition, supplemented with corticosteroids for the autoeczema.

Breasts that are heterogeneously dense or extremely dense on mammography are considered “dense breasts.” Breast density matters for 2 reasons: Dense tissue can mask cancer on a mammogram, and having dense breasts increases the risk of developing breast cancer.

Breast density measurement

A woman’s breast density is usually determined during her breast cancer screening with mammography by her radiologist through visual evaluation of the images taken. Breast density also can be measured from individual mammograms by computer software, and it can be estimated on computed tomography (CT) scan and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). In the United States, information about breast density is usually included in a report sent from the radiologist to the referring clinician after a mammogram is taken, and may also be included in the patient letter following up screening mammography. In Europe, national reporting guidelines for physicians vary.

The density of a woman’s breast tissue is described using one of four BI-RADS® breast composition categories¹ as shown in the FIGURE.

A. ALMOST ENTIRELY FATTY – On a mammogram, most of the tissue appears dark gray or black, while small amounts of dense (or fibroglandular) tissue display as light gray or white. About 13% of women aged 40 to 74 have breasts considered to be “fatty.”²

B. SCATTERED FIBROGLANDULAR DENSITY – There are scattered areas of dense (fibroglandular) tissue mixed with fat. Even in breasts with scattered areas of breast tissue, cancers can sometimes be missed when they look like areas of normal tissue or are within an area of denser tissue. About 43% of women aged 40 to 74 have breasts with scattered fibroglandular tissue.²

C. HETEROGENEOUSLY DENSE – There are large portions of the breast where dense (fibroglandular) tissue could hide small masses. About 36% of all women aged 40 to 74 have heterogeneously dense breasts.²

D. EXTREMELY DENSE – Most of the breast appears to consist of dense (fibroglandular) tissue, creating a “white out” situation and making it extremely difficult to see through and lowering the sensitivity of mammography. About 7% of all women aged 40 to 74 have extremely dense breasts.²

Factors that may impact breast density

Age. Breasts tend to become less dense as women get older, especially after menopause (as the glandular tissue atrophies and the breasts may appear more fatty-replaced).

Postmenopausal hormone therapy. An increase in mammographic density is more common among women taking continuous combined hormonal therapy than for those using oral low-dose estrogen or transdermal estrogen therapy.

Lactation. Breast density increases with lactation.

Weight changes. Weight gain can increase the amount of fat relative to dense tissue, resulting in slightly lower density as a proportion of breast tissue overall. Similarly, weight loss can decrease the amount of fat in the breasts, making breast density appear greater overall. Importantly, there is no change in the amount of glandular tissue; only the relative proportions change.

Tamoxifen or aromatase inhibitors. These medications can slightly reduce breast density. 

Because breast density may change with age and other factors, it should be assessed every year.

Breasts that are heterogeneously dense or extremely dense on mammography are considered “dense breasts.” Breast density matters for 2 reasons: Dense tissue can mask cancer on a mammogram, and having dense breasts increases the risk of developing breast cancer.

Breast density measurement

A woman’s breast density is usually determined during her breast cancer screening with mammography by her radiologist through visual evaluation of the images taken. Breast density also can be measured from individual mammograms by computer software, and it can be estimated on computed tomography (CT) scan and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). In the United States, information about breast density is usually included in a report sent from the radiologist to the referring clinician after a mammogram is taken, and may also be included in the patient letter following up screening mammography. In Europe, national reporting guidelines for physicians vary.

The density of a woman’s breast tissue is described using one of four BI-RADS® breast composition categories¹ as shown in the FIGURE.

A. ALMOST ENTIRELY FATTY – On a mammogram, most of the tissue appears dark gray or black, while small amounts of dense (or fibroglandular) tissue display as light gray or white. About 13% of women aged 40 to 74 have breasts considered to be “fatty.”²

B. SCATTERED FIBROGLANDULAR DENSITY – There are scattered areas of dense (fibroglandular) tissue mixed with fat. Even in breasts with scattered areas of breast tissue, cancers can sometimes be missed when they look like areas of normal tissue or are within an area of denser tissue. About 43% of women aged 40 to 74 have breasts with scattered fibroglandular tissue.²

C. HETEROGENEOUSLY DENSE – There are large portions of the breast where dense (fibroglandular) tissue could hide small masses. About 36% of all women aged 40 to 74 have heterogeneously dense breasts.²

D. EXTREMELY DENSE – Most of the breast appears to consist of dense (fibroglandular) tissue, creating a “white out” situation and making it extremely difficult to see through and lowering the sensitivity of mammography. About 7% of all women aged 40 to 74 have extremely dense breasts.²

Factors that may impact breast density

Age. Breasts tend to become less dense as women get older, especially after menopause (as the glandular tissue atrophies and the breasts may appear more fatty-replaced).

Postmenopausal hormone therapy. An increase in mammographic density is more common among women taking continuous combined hormonal therapy than for those using oral low-dose estrogen or transdermal estrogen therapy.

Lactation. Breast density increases with lactation.

Weight changes. Weight gain can increase the amount of fat relative to dense tissue, resulting in slightly lower density as a proportion of breast tissue overall. Similarly, weight loss can decrease the amount of fat in the breasts, making breast density appear greater overall. Importantly, there is no change in the amount of glandular tissue; only the relative proportions change.

Tamoxifen or aromatase inhibitors. These medications can slightly reduce breast density. 

Because breast density may change with age and other factors, it should be assessed every year.

Breasts that are heterogeneously dense or extremely dense on mammography are considered “dense breasts.” Breast density matters for 2 reasons: Dense tissue can mask cancer on a mammogram, and having dense breasts increases the risk of developing breast cancer.

Breast density measurement

A woman’s breast density is usually determined during her breast cancer screening with mammography by her radiologist through visual evaluation of the images taken. Breast density also can be measured from individual mammograms by computer software, and it can be estimated on computed tomography (CT) scan and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). In the United States, information about breast density is usually included in a report sent from the radiologist to the referring clinician after a mammogram is taken, and may also be included in the patient letter following up screening mammography. In Europe, national reporting guidelines for physicians vary.

The density of a woman’s breast tissue is described using one of four BI-RADS® breast composition categories¹ as shown in the FIGURE.

A. ALMOST ENTIRELY FATTY – On a mammogram, most of the tissue appears dark gray or black, while small amounts of dense (or fibroglandular) tissue display as light gray or white. About 13% of women aged 40 to 74 have breasts considered to be “fatty.”²

B. SCATTERED FIBROGLANDULAR DENSITY – There are scattered areas of dense (fibroglandular) tissue mixed with fat. Even in breasts with scattered areas of breast tissue, cancers can sometimes be missed when they look like areas of normal tissue or are within an area of denser tissue. About 43% of women aged 40 to 74 have breasts with scattered fibroglandular tissue.²

C. HETEROGENEOUSLY DENSE – There are large portions of the breast where dense (fibroglandular) tissue could hide small masses. About 36% of all women aged 40 to 74 have heterogeneously dense breasts.²

D. EXTREMELY DENSE – Most of the breast appears to consist of dense (fibroglandular) tissue, creating a “white out” situation and making it extremely difficult to see through and lowering the sensitivity of mammography. About 7% of all women aged 40 to 74 have extremely dense breasts.²

Factors that may impact breast density

Age. Breasts tend to become less dense as women get older, especially after menopause (as the glandular tissue atrophies and the breasts may appear more fatty-replaced).

Postmenopausal hormone therapy. An increase in mammographic density is more common among women taking continuous combined hormonal therapy than for those using oral low-dose estrogen or transdermal estrogen therapy.

Lactation. Breast density increases with lactation.

Weight changes. Weight gain can increase the amount of fat relative to dense tissue, resulting in slightly lower density as a proportion of breast tissue overall. Similarly, weight loss can decrease the amount of fat in the breasts, making breast density appear greater overall. Importantly, there is no change in the amount of glandular tissue; only the relative proportions change.

Tamoxifen or aromatase inhibitors. These medications can slightly reduce breast density. 

Because breast density may change with age and other factors, it should be assessed every year.

Psoriasis is a chronic and relapsing systemic inflammatory disease that predisposes patients to a host of other conditions. It is believed that these widespread effects are due to chronic inflammation and cytokine activation, which affect multiple body processes and lead to the development of various comorbidities that need to be proactively managed.

In April 2019, the American Academy of Dermatology (AAD) and National Psoriasis Foundation (NPF) released recommendation guidelines for managing psoriasis in adults with an emphasis on common disease comorbidities, including psoriatic arthritis (PsA), cardiovascular disease (CVD), inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), metabolic syndrome, and mood disorders. Psychosocial wellness, mental health, and quality of life (QOL) measures in relation to psoriatic disease also were discussed.¹

The AAD-NPF guidelines address current screening, monitoring, education, and treatment recommendations for the management of psoriatic comorbidities. The Table and eTable summarize the screening recommendations. These guidelines aim to assist dermatologists with comprehensive disease management by addressing potential extracutaneous manifestations of psoriasis in adults.

Screening and Risk Assessment

Patients with psoriasis should receive a thorough history and physical examination to assess disease severity and risk for potential comorbidities. Patients with greater disease severity—as measured by body surface area (BSA) involvement and type of therapy required—have a greater risk for other disease-related comorbidities, specifically metabolic syndrome, renal disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), obstructive sleep apnea, uveitis, IBD, malignancy, and increased mortality.² Because the likelihood of comorbidities is greatest with severe disease, more frequent monitoring is recommended for these patients.

Psoriatic Arthritis

Patients with psoriasis need to be evaluated for PsA at every visit. Patients presenting with signs and symptoms suspicious for PsA—joint swelling, peripheral joint involvement, and joint inflammation—warrant further evaluation and consultation. Early detection and treatment of PsA is essential for preventing unnecessary suffering and progressive joint destruction.³

There are several PsA screening questionnaires currently available, including the Psoriatic Arthritis Screening Evaluation, Psoriasis Epidemiology Screening Tool, and Toronto Psoriatic Arthritis Screen. No significant differences in sensitivity and specificity were found among these questionnaires when using the Classification Criteria for Psoriatic Arthritis as the gold standard. All 3 questionnaires—the Psoriatic Arthritis Screening Evaluation and the Psoriasis Epidemiology Screening Tool were developed for use in dermatology and rheumatology clinics, and the Toronto Psoriatic Arthritis Screen was developed for use in the primary care setting—were found to be effective in dermatology/rheumatology clinics and primary care clinics, respectively.³ False-positive results predominantly were seen in patients with degenerative joint disease or osteoarthritis. Dermatologists should conduct a thorough physical examination to distinguish PsA from degenerative joint disease. Imaging and laboratory tests to evaluate for signs of systemic inflammation (erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein) also can be helpful in distinguishing the 2 conditions; however, these metrics have not been shown to contribute to PsA diagnosis.¹ Full rheumatologic consultation is warranted in challenging cases.

Cardiovascular Disease

The American Heart Association and the American College of Cardiology have identified chronic inflammatory states, such as psoriasis, as inducing factors that predispose patients to CVD. Many studies have found an association among psoriasis, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction (MI), and stroke.^4-7 It is strongly recommended that dermatologists educate patients of their increased risk for CVD, given the association between psoriasis and major adverse cardiovascular events (eg, stroke, heart failure, MI) and cardiovascular health. However, patients with congestive heart failure were found to have an increased risk of mortality associated with use of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) α inhibitors (P=.016).⁸ Thus, TNF inhibitors are contraindicated in patients with New York Heart Association Class III or Class IV congestive heart failure.⁹

Primary care physicians (PCPs) are recommended to screen patients for CVD risk factors using height, weight, blood pressure, blood glucose, hemoglobin A_1C, lipid levels, abdominal circumference, and body mass index (BMI). Lifestyle modifications such as smoking cessation, exercise, and dietary changes are encouraged to achieve and maintain a normal BMI.

Dermatologists also need to give special consideration to comorbidities when selecting medications and/or therapies for disease management. Patients on TNF inhibitors have a lower risk for MI compared with patients using topical medications, phototherapy, and other oral agents.¹⁰ Additionally, patients on TNF inhibitors have a lower risk for occurrence of major adverse cardiovascular events compared with patients treated with methotrexate or phototherapy.^11,12

Metabolic Syndrome

Numerous studies have demonstrated an association between psoriasis and metabolic syndrome. Patients with increased BSA involvement and psoriasis area and severity index scores have a higher prevalence of metabolic syndrome.¹³ Patients with psoriasis have an increased risk for the following conditions compared to controls: obesity (38% vs 31%; odds ratio [OR], 1.38; 95% CI, 1.29-1.48), elevated triglycerides (36% vs 28%; OR, 1.49; 95% CI, 1.39-1.60), hypertension (31% vs 28%; OR, 1.20; 95% CI, 1.11-12.9), and elevated glucose levels (22% vs 16%; OR, 1.44; 95% CI, 1.33-1.56).¹⁴ Dermatologists are strongly recommended to inform patients about the risk for metabolic syndrome and to encourage the measurement of blood pressure, waist circumference, fasting blood glucose, hemoglobin A_1C, and fasting lipid levels with their PCP when indicated. Body mass index and waist circumference also should be measured annually in patients with moderate to severe psoriasis because of the association with disease severity.

The association between psoriasis and weight loss has been analyzed in several studies. Weight loss, particularly in obese patients, has been shown to improve psoriasis severity, as measured by psoriasis area and severity index score and QOL measures.¹⁵ Another study found that gastric bypass was associated with a significant risk reduction in the development of psoriasis (P=.004) and the disease prognosis (P=.02 for severe psoriasis; P=.01 for PsA).¹⁶ Therefore, patients with moderate to severe psoriasis are recommended to have their obesity status determined according to national guidelines. For patients with a BMI above 40 kg/m² and standard weight-loss measures fail, bariatric surgery is recommended. Additionally, the impact of psoriasis medications on weight has been studied. Apremilast has been associated with weight loss, whereas etanercept and infliximab have been linked to weight gain.^17,18

An association between psoriasis and hypertension also has been demonstrated by studies, especially among patients with severe disease. Therefore, patients with moderate to severe psoriasis are recommended to have their blood pressure evaluated according to national guidelines, and those with a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg or higher should be referred to their PCP for assessment and treatment. Current evidence does not support restrictions on antihypertensive medications in patients with psoriasis. Physicians should be aware of the potential for cyclosporine to induce hypertension, which should be treated, specifically with amlodipine.¹⁹

Many studies have demonstrated an association between psoriasis and dyslipidemia, though the results are somewhat conflicting. In 2018, the American Heart Association and the American College of Cardiology deemed psoriasis as an atherosclerotic CVD risk-enhancing condition, favoring early initiation of statin therapy. Because dyslipidemia plays a prominent role in atherosclerosis and CVD, patients with moderate to severe psoriasis are recommended to undergo periodic screening with lipid tests (eg, fasting total cholesterol, low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, high-density lipoprotein cholesterol, triglycerides).²⁰ Patients with elevated fasting triglycerides or low-density lipoprotein cholesterol should be referred to their PCP for further management. Certain psoriasis medications also have been linked to dyslipidemia. Acitretin and cyclosporine are known to adversely affect lipid levels, so patients treated with either agent should undergo routine monitoring of serum lipid levels.

Psoriasis is strongly associated with diabetes mellitus. Because of the increased risk for diabetes in patients with severe disease, regular monitoring of fasting blood glucose and/or hemoglobin A_1C levels in patients with moderate to severe psoriasis is recommended. Patients who meet criteria for prediabetes or diabetes should be referred to their PCP for further assessment and management.^21,22

Mood Disorders

Psoriasis affects QOL and can have a major impact on patients’ interpersonal relationships. Studies have shown an association between psoriasis and mood disorders, specifically depression and anxiety. Unfortunately, patients with mood disorders are less likely to seek intervention for their skin disease, which poses a tremendous treatment barrier. Dermatologists should regularly monitor patients for psychiatric symptoms so that resources and treatments can be offered.

Certain psoriasis therapies have been shown to help alleviate associated depression and anxiety. Improvements in Beck Depression Inventory and Hamilton Depression Rating Scale scores were seen with etanercept.²³ Adalimumab and ustekinumab showed improvement in Dermatology Life Quality Index compared with placebo.^24,25 Patients receiving Goeckerman treatment also had improvement in anxiety and depression scores compared with conventional therapy.²⁶ Biologic medications had the largest impact on improving depression symptoms compared with conventional systemic therapy and phototherapy.²⁷ The recommendations support use of biologics and the Goeckerman regimen for the concomitant treatment of mood disorders and psoriasis.

Renal Disease

Studies have supported an association between psoriasis and chronic kidney disease (CKD), independent of risk factors including vascular disease, hypertension, and diabetes. The prevalence of moderate to advanced CKD also has been found to be directly related to increasing BSA affected by psoriasis.²⁸ Patients should receive testing of blood urea nitrogen, creatinine, and urine microalbumin levels to assess for occult renal disease. In addition, physicians should be cautious when prescribing nephrotoxic drugs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and cyclosporine) and renally excreted agents (methotrexate and apremilast) because of the risk for underlying renal disease in patients with psoriasis. If newly acquired renal disease is suspected, physicians should withhold the offending agents. Patients with psoriasis with CKD are recommended to follow up with their PCP or nephrologist for evaluation and management.

Pulmonary Disease

Psoriasis also has an independent association with COPD. Patients with psoriasis have a higher likelihood of developing COPD (hazard ratio, 2.35; 95% CI, 1.42-3.89; P<.01) than controls.²⁹ The prevalence of COPD also was found to correlate with psoriasis severity. Dermatologists should educate patients about the association between smoking and psoriasis as well as advise patients to discontinue smoking to reduce their risk for developing COPD and cancer.

Patients with psoriasis also are at an increased risk for obstructive sleep apnea. Obstructive sleep apnea should be considered in patients with risk factors including snoring, obesity, hypertension, or diabetes.

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Patients with psoriasis have an increased risk for developing IBD. The prevalence ratios of both Crohn disease (2.49) and ulcerative colitis (1.64) are increased in patients with psoriasis relative to patients without psoriasis.³⁰ Physicians need to be aware of the association between psoriasis and IBD and the effect that their coexistence may have on treatment choice for patients.

Adalimumab and infliximab are approved for the treatment of IBD, and certolizumab and ustekinumab are approved for Crohn disease. Use of TNF inhibitors in patients with IBD may cause psoriasiform lesions to develop.³¹ Nonetheless, treatment should be individualized and psoriasiform lesions treated with standard psoriasis measures. Psoriasis patients with IBD are recommended to avoid IL-17–inhibitor therapy, given its potential to worsen IBD flares.

Malignancy

Psoriasis patients aged 0 to 79 years have a greater overall risk for malignancy compared with patients without psoriasis.³² Patients with psoriasis have an increased risk for respiratory tract cancer, upper aerodigestive tract cancer, urinary tract cancer, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma.³³ A mild association exists between PsA and lymphoma, nonmelanoma skin cancer (NMSC), and lung cancer.³⁴ More severe psoriasis is associated with greater risk for lymphoma and NMSC. Dermatologists are recommended to educate patients on their risk for certain malignancies and to refer patients to specialists upon suspicion of malignancy.

Risk for malignancy has been shown to be affected by psoriasis treatments. Patients treated with UVB have reduced overall cancer rates for all age groups (hazard ratio, 0.52; P=.3), while those treated with psoralen plus UVA have an increased incidence of squamous cell carcinoma.^32,33 Adalimumab was correlated with increased risk for NMSC in patients with psoriasis but did not have an increased risk for all cancers collectively when used for various immune-mediated inflammatory diseases.³⁵ In contrast, a meta-analysis of randomized clinical trials found no association with TNF inhibitor use and NMSC.³⁶ Ustekinumab had no association with malignancy.³⁷ Treatment history should be elucidated because of higher rates of squamous cell carcinoma in patients with prior psoralen plus UVA, cyclosporine, or methotrexate use.³³ To address malignancy risk, patients with psoriasis should undergo regular screenings for skin cancer and follow national guidelines for age-appropriate cancer screenings.

Lifestyle Choices and QOL

A crucial aspect of successful psoriasis management is patient education. The strongest recommendations support lifestyle changes, such as smoking cessation and limitation of alcohol use. A tactful discussion regarding substance use, work productivity, interpersonal relationships, and sexual function can address substantial effects of psoriasis on QOL so that support and resources can be provided.

Final Thoughts

Management of psoriasis is multifaceted and involves screening, education, monitoring, and collaboration with PCPs and specialists. Regular follow-up with a dermatologist and PCP is strongly recommended for patients with psoriasis given the systemic nature of the disease. The 2019 AAD-NPF recommendations provide important information for dermatologists to coordinate care for complicated psoriasis cases, but clinical judgment is paramount when making medical decisions. The consideration of comorbidities is critical for developing a comprehensive treatment approach, and this approach will lead to better health outcomes and improved QOL for patients with psoriasis.

Psoriasis is a chronic and relapsing systemic inflammatory disease that predisposes patients to a host of other conditions. It is believed that these widespread effects are due to chronic inflammation and cytokine activation, which affect multiple body processes and lead to the development of various comorbidities that need to be proactively managed.

In April 2019, the American Academy of Dermatology (AAD) and National Psoriasis Foundation (NPF) released recommendation guidelines for managing psoriasis in adults with an emphasis on common disease comorbidities, including psoriatic arthritis (PsA), cardiovascular disease (CVD), inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), metabolic syndrome, and mood disorders. Psychosocial wellness, mental health, and quality of life (QOL) measures in relation to psoriatic disease also were discussed.¹

The AAD-NPF guidelines address current screening, monitoring, education, and treatment recommendations for the management of psoriatic comorbidities. The Table and eTable summarize the screening recommendations. These guidelines aim to assist dermatologists with comprehensive disease management by addressing potential extracutaneous manifestations of psoriasis in adults.

Screening and Risk Assessment

Patients with psoriasis should receive a thorough history and physical examination to assess disease severity and risk for potential comorbidities. Patients with greater disease severity—as measured by body surface area (BSA) involvement and type of therapy required—have a greater risk for other disease-related comorbidities, specifically metabolic syndrome, renal disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), obstructive sleep apnea, uveitis, IBD, malignancy, and increased mortality.² Because the likelihood of comorbidities is greatest with severe disease, more frequent monitoring is recommended for these patients.

Psoriatic Arthritis

Patients with psoriasis need to be evaluated for PsA at every visit. Patients presenting with signs and symptoms suspicious for PsA—joint swelling, peripheral joint involvement, and joint inflammation—warrant further evaluation and consultation. Early detection and treatment of PsA is essential for preventing unnecessary suffering and progressive joint destruction.³

There are several PsA screening questionnaires currently available, including the Psoriatic Arthritis Screening Evaluation, Psoriasis Epidemiology Screening Tool, and Toronto Psoriatic Arthritis Screen. No significant differences in sensitivity and specificity were found among these questionnaires when using the Classification Criteria for Psoriatic Arthritis as the gold standard. All 3 questionnaires—the Psoriatic Arthritis Screening Evaluation and the Psoriasis Epidemiology Screening Tool were developed for use in dermatology and rheumatology clinics, and the Toronto Psoriatic Arthritis Screen was developed for use in the primary care setting—were found to be effective in dermatology/rheumatology clinics and primary care clinics, respectively.³ False-positive results predominantly were seen in patients with degenerative joint disease or osteoarthritis. Dermatologists should conduct a thorough physical examination to distinguish PsA from degenerative joint disease. Imaging and laboratory tests to evaluate for signs of systemic inflammation (erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein) also can be helpful in distinguishing the 2 conditions; however, these metrics have not been shown to contribute to PsA diagnosis.¹ Full rheumatologic consultation is warranted in challenging cases.

Cardiovascular Disease

The American Heart Association and the American College of Cardiology have identified chronic inflammatory states, such as psoriasis, as inducing factors that predispose patients to CVD. Many studies have found an association among psoriasis, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction (MI), and stroke.^4-7 It is strongly recommended that dermatologists educate patients of their increased risk for CVD, given the association between psoriasis and major adverse cardiovascular events (eg, stroke, heart failure, MI) and cardiovascular health. However, patients with congestive heart failure were found to have an increased risk of mortality associated with use of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) α inhibitors (P=.016).⁸ Thus, TNF inhibitors are contraindicated in patients with New York Heart Association Class III or Class IV congestive heart failure.⁹

Primary care physicians (PCPs) are recommended to screen patients for CVD risk factors using height, weight, blood pressure, blood glucose, hemoglobin A_1C, lipid levels, abdominal circumference, and body mass index (BMI). Lifestyle modifications such as smoking cessation, exercise, and dietary changes are encouraged to achieve and maintain a normal BMI.

Dermatologists also need to give special consideration to comorbidities when selecting medications and/or therapies for disease management. Patients on TNF inhibitors have a lower risk for MI compared with patients using topical medications, phototherapy, and other oral agents.¹⁰ Additionally, patients on TNF inhibitors have a lower risk for occurrence of major adverse cardiovascular events compared with patients treated with methotrexate or phototherapy.^11,12

Metabolic Syndrome

Numerous studies have demonstrated an association between psoriasis and metabolic syndrome. Patients with increased BSA involvement and psoriasis area and severity index scores have a higher prevalence of metabolic syndrome.¹³ Patients with psoriasis have an increased risk for the following conditions compared to controls: obesity (38% vs 31%; odds ratio [OR], 1.38; 95% CI, 1.29-1.48), elevated triglycerides (36% vs 28%; OR, 1.49; 95% CI, 1.39-1.60), hypertension (31% vs 28%; OR, 1.20; 95% CI, 1.11-12.9), and elevated glucose levels (22% vs 16%; OR, 1.44; 95% CI, 1.33-1.56).¹⁴ Dermatologists are strongly recommended to inform patients about the risk for metabolic syndrome and to encourage the measurement of blood pressure, waist circumference, fasting blood glucose, hemoglobin A_1C, and fasting lipid levels with their PCP when indicated. Body mass index and waist circumference also should be measured annually in patients with moderate to severe psoriasis because of the association with disease severity.

The association between psoriasis and weight loss has been analyzed in several studies. Weight loss, particularly in obese patients, has been shown to improve psoriasis severity, as measured by psoriasis area and severity index score and QOL measures.¹⁵ Another study found that gastric bypass was associated with a significant risk reduction in the development of psoriasis (P=.004) and the disease prognosis (P=.02 for severe psoriasis; P=.01 for PsA).¹⁶ Therefore, patients with moderate to severe psoriasis are recommended to have their obesity status determined according to national guidelines. For patients with a BMI above 40 kg/m² and standard weight-loss measures fail, bariatric surgery is recommended. Additionally, the impact of psoriasis medications on weight has been studied. Apremilast has been associated with weight loss, whereas etanercept and infliximab have been linked to weight gain.^17,18

An association between psoriasis and hypertension also has been demonstrated by studies, especially among patients with severe disease. Therefore, patients with moderate to severe psoriasis are recommended to have their blood pressure evaluated according to national guidelines, and those with a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg or higher should be referred to their PCP for assessment and treatment. Current evidence does not support restrictions on antihypertensive medications in patients with psoriasis. Physicians should be aware of the potential for cyclosporine to induce hypertension, which should be treated, specifically with amlodipine.¹⁹

Many studies have demonstrated an association between psoriasis and dyslipidemia, though the results are somewhat conflicting. In 2018, the American Heart Association and the American College of Cardiology deemed psoriasis as an atherosclerotic CVD risk-enhancing condition, favoring early initiation of statin therapy. Because dyslipidemia plays a prominent role in atherosclerosis and CVD, patients with moderate to severe psoriasis are recommended to undergo periodic screening with lipid tests (eg, fasting total cholesterol, low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, high-density lipoprotein cholesterol, triglycerides).²⁰ Patients with elevated fasting triglycerides or low-density lipoprotein cholesterol should be referred to their PCP for further management. Certain psoriasis medications also have been linked to dyslipidemia. Acitretin and cyclosporine are known to adversely affect lipid levels, so patients treated with either agent should undergo routine monitoring of serum lipid levels.

Psoriasis is strongly associated with diabetes mellitus. Because of the increased risk for diabetes in patients with severe disease, regular monitoring of fasting blood glucose and/or hemoglobin A_1C levels in patients with moderate to severe psoriasis is recommended. Patients who meet criteria for prediabetes or diabetes should be referred to their PCP for further assessment and management.^21,22

Mood Disorders

Psoriasis affects QOL and can have a major impact on patients’ interpersonal relationships. Studies have shown an association between psoriasis and mood disorders, specifically depression and anxiety. Unfortunately, patients with mood disorders are less likely to seek intervention for their skin disease, which poses a tremendous treatment barrier. Dermatologists should regularly monitor patients for psychiatric symptoms so that resources and treatments can be offered.

Certain psoriasis therapies have been shown to help alleviate associated depression and anxiety. Improvements in Beck Depression Inventory and Hamilton Depression Rating Scale scores were seen with etanercept.²³ Adalimumab and ustekinumab showed improvement in Dermatology Life Quality Index compared with placebo.^24,25 Patients receiving Goeckerman treatment also had improvement in anxiety and depression scores compared with conventional therapy.²⁶ Biologic medications had the largest impact on improving depression symptoms compared with conventional systemic therapy and phototherapy.²⁷ The recommendations support use of biologics and the Goeckerman regimen for the concomitant treatment of mood disorders and psoriasis.

Renal Disease

Studies have supported an association between psoriasis and chronic kidney disease (CKD), independent of risk factors including vascular disease, hypertension, and diabetes. The prevalence of moderate to advanced CKD also has been found to be directly related to increasing BSA affected by psoriasis.²⁸ Patients should receive testing of blood urea nitrogen, creatinine, and urine microalbumin levels to assess for occult renal disease. In addition, physicians should be cautious when prescribing nephrotoxic drugs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and cyclosporine) and renally excreted agents (methotrexate and apremilast) because of the risk for underlying renal disease in patients with psoriasis. If newly acquired renal disease is suspected, physicians should withhold the offending agents. Patients with psoriasis with CKD are recommended to follow up with their PCP or nephrologist for evaluation and management.

Pulmonary Disease

Psoriasis also has an independent association with COPD. Patients with psoriasis have a higher likelihood of developing COPD (hazard ratio, 2.35; 95% CI, 1.42-3.89; P<.01) than controls.²⁹ The prevalence of COPD also was found to correlate with psoriasis severity. Dermatologists should educate patients about the association between smoking and psoriasis as well as advise patients to discontinue smoking to reduce their risk for developing COPD and cancer.

Patients with psoriasis also are at an increased risk for obstructive sleep apnea. Obstructive sleep apnea should be considered in patients with risk factors including snoring, obesity, hypertension, or diabetes.

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Patients with psoriasis have an increased risk for developing IBD. The prevalence ratios of both Crohn disease (2.49) and ulcerative colitis (1.64) are increased in patients with psoriasis relative to patients without psoriasis.³⁰ Physicians need to be aware of the association between psoriasis and IBD and the effect that their coexistence may have on treatment choice for patients.

Adalimumab and infliximab are approved for the treatment of IBD, and certolizumab and ustekinumab are approved for Crohn disease. Use of TNF inhibitors in patients with IBD may cause psoriasiform lesions to develop.³¹ Nonetheless, treatment should be individualized and psoriasiform lesions treated with standard psoriasis measures. Psoriasis patients with IBD are recommended to avoid IL-17–inhibitor therapy, given its potential to worsen IBD flares.

Malignancy

Psoriasis patients aged 0 to 79 years have a greater overall risk for malignancy compared with patients without psoriasis.³² Patients with psoriasis have an increased risk for respiratory tract cancer, upper aerodigestive tract cancer, urinary tract cancer, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma.³³ A mild association exists between PsA and lymphoma, nonmelanoma skin cancer (NMSC), and lung cancer.³⁴ More severe psoriasis is associated with greater risk for lymphoma and NMSC. Dermatologists are recommended to educate patients on their risk for certain malignancies and to refer patients to specialists upon suspicion of malignancy.

Risk for malignancy has been shown to be affected by psoriasis treatments. Patients treated with UVB have reduced overall cancer rates for all age groups (hazard ratio, 0.52; P=.3), while those treated with psoralen plus UVA have an increased incidence of squamous cell carcinoma.^32,33 Adalimumab was correlated with increased risk for NMSC in patients with psoriasis but did not have an increased risk for all cancers collectively when used for various immune-mediated inflammatory diseases.³⁵ In contrast, a meta-analysis of randomized clinical trials found no association with TNF inhibitor use and NMSC.³⁶ Ustekinumab had no association with malignancy.³⁷ Treatment history should be elucidated because of higher rates of squamous cell carcinoma in patients with prior psoralen plus UVA, cyclosporine, or methotrexate use.³³ To address malignancy risk, patients with psoriasis should undergo regular screenings for skin cancer and follow national guidelines for age-appropriate cancer screenings.

Lifestyle Choices and QOL

A crucial aspect of successful psoriasis management is patient education. The strongest recommendations support lifestyle changes, such as smoking cessation and limitation of alcohol use. A tactful discussion regarding substance use, work productivity, interpersonal relationships, and sexual function can address substantial effects of psoriasis on QOL so that support and resources can be provided.

Final Thoughts

Management of psoriasis is multifaceted and involves screening, education, monitoring, and collaboration with PCPs and specialists. Regular follow-up with a dermatologist and PCP is strongly recommended for patients with psoriasis given the systemic nature of the disease. The 2019 AAD-NPF recommendations provide important information for dermatologists to coordinate care for complicated psoriasis cases, but clinical judgment is paramount when making medical decisions. The consideration of comorbidities is critical for developing a comprehensive treatment approach, and this approach will lead to better health outcomes and improved QOL for patients with psoriasis.

Psoriasis is a chronic and relapsing systemic inflammatory disease that predisposes patients to a host of other conditions. It is believed that these widespread effects are due to chronic inflammation and cytokine activation, which affect multiple body processes and lead to the development of various comorbidities that need to be proactively managed.

In April 2019, the American Academy of Dermatology (AAD) and National Psoriasis Foundation (NPF) released recommendation guidelines for managing psoriasis in adults with an emphasis on common disease comorbidities, including psoriatic arthritis (PsA), cardiovascular disease (CVD), inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), metabolic syndrome, and mood disorders. Psychosocial wellness, mental health, and quality of life (QOL) measures in relation to psoriatic disease also were discussed.¹

The AAD-NPF guidelines address current screening, monitoring, education, and treatment recommendations for the management of psoriatic comorbidities. The Table and eTable summarize the screening recommendations. These guidelines aim to assist dermatologists with comprehensive disease management by addressing potential extracutaneous manifestations of psoriasis in adults.

Screening and Risk Assessment

Patients with psoriasis should receive a thorough history and physical examination to assess disease severity and risk for potential comorbidities. Patients with greater disease severity—as measured by body surface area (BSA) involvement and type of therapy required—have a greater risk for other disease-related comorbidities, specifically metabolic syndrome, renal disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), obstructive sleep apnea, uveitis, IBD, malignancy, and increased mortality.² Because the likelihood of comorbidities is greatest with severe disease, more frequent monitoring is recommended for these patients.

Psoriatic Arthritis

Patients with psoriasis need to be evaluated for PsA at every visit. Patients presenting with signs and symptoms suspicious for PsA—joint swelling, peripheral joint involvement, and joint inflammation—warrant further evaluation and consultation. Early detection and treatment of PsA is essential for preventing unnecessary suffering and progressive joint destruction.³

There are several PsA screening questionnaires currently available, including the Psoriatic Arthritis Screening Evaluation, Psoriasis Epidemiology Screening Tool, and Toronto Psoriatic Arthritis Screen. No significant differences in sensitivity and specificity were found among these questionnaires when using the Classification Criteria for Psoriatic Arthritis as the gold standard. All 3 questionnaires—the Psoriatic Arthritis Screening Evaluation and the Psoriasis Epidemiology Screening Tool were developed for use in dermatology and rheumatology clinics, and the Toronto Psoriatic Arthritis Screen was developed for use in the primary care setting—were found to be effective in dermatology/rheumatology clinics and primary care clinics, respectively.³ False-positive results predominantly were seen in patients with degenerative joint disease or osteoarthritis. Dermatologists should conduct a thorough physical examination to distinguish PsA from degenerative joint disease. Imaging and laboratory tests to evaluate for signs of systemic inflammation (erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein) also can be helpful in distinguishing the 2 conditions; however, these metrics have not been shown to contribute to PsA diagnosis.¹ Full rheumatologic consultation is warranted in challenging cases.

Cardiovascular Disease

The American Heart Association and the American College of Cardiology have identified chronic inflammatory states, such as psoriasis, as inducing factors that predispose patients to CVD. Many studies have found an association among psoriasis, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction (MI), and stroke.^4-7 It is strongly recommended that dermatologists educate patients of their increased risk for CVD, given the association between psoriasis and major adverse cardiovascular events (eg, stroke, heart failure, MI) and cardiovascular health. However, patients with congestive heart failure were found to have an increased risk of mortality associated with use of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) α inhibitors (P=.016).⁸ Thus, TNF inhibitors are contraindicated in patients with New York Heart Association Class III or Class IV congestive heart failure.⁹

Primary care physicians (PCPs) are recommended to screen patients for CVD risk factors using height, weight, blood pressure, blood glucose, hemoglobin A_1C, lipid levels, abdominal circumference, and body mass index (BMI). Lifestyle modifications such as smoking cessation, exercise, and dietary changes are encouraged to achieve and maintain a normal BMI.

Dermatologists also need to give special consideration to comorbidities when selecting medications and/or therapies for disease management. Patients on TNF inhibitors have a lower risk for MI compared with patients using topical medications, phototherapy, and other oral agents.¹⁰ Additionally, patients on TNF inhibitors have a lower risk for occurrence of major adverse cardiovascular events compared with patients treated with methotrexate or phototherapy.^11,12

Metabolic Syndrome

Numerous studies have demonstrated an association between psoriasis and metabolic syndrome. Patients with increased BSA involvement and psoriasis area and severity index scores have a higher prevalence of metabolic syndrome.¹³ Patients with psoriasis have an increased risk for the following conditions compared to controls: obesity (38% vs 31%; odds ratio [OR], 1.38; 95% CI, 1.29-1.48), elevated triglycerides (36% vs 28%; OR, 1.49; 95% CI, 1.39-1.60), hypertension (31% vs 28%; OR, 1.20; 95% CI, 1.11-12.9), and elevated glucose levels (22% vs 16%; OR, 1.44; 95% CI, 1.33-1.56).¹⁴ Dermatologists are strongly recommended to inform patients about the risk for metabolic syndrome and to encourage the measurement of blood pressure, waist circumference, fasting blood glucose, hemoglobin A_1C, and fasting lipid levels with their PCP when indicated. Body mass index and waist circumference also should be measured annually in patients with moderate to severe psoriasis because of the association with disease severity.

The association between psoriasis and weight loss has been analyzed in several studies. Weight loss, particularly in obese patients, has been shown to improve psoriasis severity, as measured by psoriasis area and severity index score and QOL measures.¹⁵ Another study found that gastric bypass was associated with a significant risk reduction in the development of psoriasis (P=.004) and the disease prognosis (P=.02 for severe psoriasis; P=.01 for PsA).¹⁶ Therefore, patients with moderate to severe psoriasis are recommended to have their obesity status determined according to national guidelines. For patients with a BMI above 40 kg/m² and standard weight-loss measures fail, bariatric surgery is recommended. Additionally, the impact of psoriasis medications on weight has been studied. Apremilast has been associated with weight loss, whereas etanercept and infliximab have been linked to weight gain.^17,18

An association between psoriasis and hypertension also has been demonstrated by studies, especially among patients with severe disease. Therefore, patients with moderate to severe psoriasis are recommended to have their blood pressure evaluated according to national guidelines, and those with a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg or higher should be referred to their PCP for assessment and treatment. Current evidence does not support restrictions on antihypertensive medications in patients with psoriasis. Physicians should be aware of the potential for cyclosporine to induce hypertension, which should be treated, specifically with amlodipine.¹⁹

Many studies have demonstrated an association between psoriasis and dyslipidemia, though the results are somewhat conflicting. In 2018, the American Heart Association and the American College of Cardiology deemed psoriasis as an atherosclerotic CVD risk-enhancing condition, favoring early initiation of statin therapy. Because dyslipidemia plays a prominent role in atherosclerosis and CVD, patients with moderate to severe psoriasis are recommended to undergo periodic screening with lipid tests (eg, fasting total cholesterol, low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, high-density lipoprotein cholesterol, triglycerides).²⁰ Patients with elevated fasting triglycerides or low-density lipoprotein cholesterol should be referred to their PCP for further management. Certain psoriasis medications also have been linked to dyslipidemia. Acitretin and cyclosporine are known to adversely affect lipid levels, so patients treated with either agent should undergo routine monitoring of serum lipid levels.

Psoriasis is strongly associated with diabetes mellitus. Because of the increased risk for diabetes in patients with severe disease, regular monitoring of fasting blood glucose and/or hemoglobin A_1C levels in patients with moderate to severe psoriasis is recommended. Patients who meet criteria for prediabetes or diabetes should be referred to their PCP for further assessment and management.^21,22

Mood Disorders

Psoriasis affects QOL and can have a major impact on patients’ interpersonal relationships. Studies have shown an association between psoriasis and mood disorders, specifically depression and anxiety. Unfortunately, patients with mood disorders are less likely to seek intervention for their skin disease, which poses a tremendous treatment barrier. Dermatologists should regularly monitor patients for psychiatric symptoms so that resources and treatments can be offered.

Certain psoriasis therapies have been shown to help alleviate associated depression and anxiety. Improvements in Beck Depression Inventory and Hamilton Depression Rating Scale scores were seen with etanercept.²³ Adalimumab and ustekinumab showed improvement in Dermatology Life Quality Index compared with placebo.^24,25 Patients receiving Goeckerman treatment also had improvement in anxiety and depression scores compared with conventional therapy.²⁶ Biologic medications had the largest impact on improving depression symptoms compared with conventional systemic therapy and phototherapy.²⁷ The recommendations support use of biologics and the Goeckerman regimen for the concomitant treatment of mood disorders and psoriasis.

Renal Disease

Studies have supported an association between psoriasis and chronic kidney disease (CKD), independent of risk factors including vascular disease, hypertension, and diabetes. The prevalence of moderate to advanced CKD also has been found to be directly related to increasing BSA affected by psoriasis.²⁸ Patients should receive testing of blood urea nitrogen, creatinine, and urine microalbumin levels to assess for occult renal disease. In addition, physicians should be cautious when prescribing nephrotoxic drugs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and cyclosporine) and renally excreted agents (methotrexate and apremilast) because of the risk for underlying renal disease in patients with psoriasis. If newly acquired renal disease is suspected, physicians should withhold the offending agents. Patients with psoriasis with CKD are recommended to follow up with their PCP or nephrologist for evaluation and management.

Pulmonary Disease

Psoriasis also has an independent association with COPD. Patients with psoriasis have a higher likelihood of developing COPD (hazard ratio, 2.35; 95% CI, 1.42-3.89; P<.01) than controls.²⁹ The prevalence of COPD also was found to correlate with psoriasis severity. Dermatologists should educate patients about the association between smoking and psoriasis as well as advise patients to discontinue smoking to reduce their risk for developing COPD and cancer.

Patients with psoriasis also are at an increased risk for obstructive sleep apnea. Obstructive sleep apnea should be considered in patients with risk factors including snoring, obesity, hypertension, or diabetes.

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Patients with psoriasis have an increased risk for developing IBD. The prevalence ratios of both Crohn disease (2.49) and ulcerative colitis (1.64) are increased in patients with psoriasis relative to patients without psoriasis.³⁰ Physicians need to be aware of the association between psoriasis and IBD and the effect that their coexistence may have on treatment choice for patients.

Adalimumab and infliximab are approved for the treatment of IBD, and certolizumab and ustekinumab are approved for Crohn disease. Use of TNF inhibitors in patients with IBD may cause psoriasiform lesions to develop.³¹ Nonetheless, treatment should be individualized and psoriasiform lesions treated with standard psoriasis measures. Psoriasis patients with IBD are recommended to avoid IL-17–inhibitor therapy, given its potential to worsen IBD flares.

Malignancy

Psoriasis patients aged 0 to 79 years have a greater overall risk for malignancy compared with patients without psoriasis.³² Patients with psoriasis have an increased risk for respiratory tract cancer, upper aerodigestive tract cancer, urinary tract cancer, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma.³³ A mild association exists between PsA and lymphoma, nonmelanoma skin cancer (NMSC), and lung cancer.³⁴ More severe psoriasis is associated with greater risk for lymphoma and NMSC. Dermatologists are recommended to educate patients on their risk for certain malignancies and to refer patients to specialists upon suspicion of malignancy.

Risk for malignancy has been shown to be affected by psoriasis treatments. Patients treated with UVB have reduced overall cancer rates for all age groups (hazard ratio, 0.52; P=.3), while those treated with psoralen plus UVA have an increased incidence of squamous cell carcinoma.^32,33 Adalimumab was correlated with increased risk for NMSC in patients with psoriasis but did not have an increased risk for all cancers collectively when used for various immune-mediated inflammatory diseases.³⁵ In contrast, a meta-analysis of randomized clinical trials found no association with TNF inhibitor use and NMSC.³⁶ Ustekinumab had no association with malignancy.³⁷ Treatment history should be elucidated because of higher rates of squamous cell carcinoma in patients with prior psoralen plus UVA, cyclosporine, or methotrexate use.³³ To address malignancy risk, patients with psoriasis should undergo regular screenings for skin cancer and follow national guidelines for age-appropriate cancer screenings.

Lifestyle Choices and QOL

A crucial aspect of successful psoriasis management is patient education. The strongest recommendations support lifestyle changes, such as smoking cessation and limitation of alcohol use. A tactful discussion regarding substance use, work productivity, interpersonal relationships, and sexual function can address substantial effects of psoriasis on QOL so that support and resources can be provided.

Final Thoughts

Management of psoriasis is multifaceted and involves screening, education, monitoring, and collaboration with PCPs and specialists. Regular follow-up with a dermatologist and PCP is strongly recommended for patients with psoriasis given the systemic nature of the disease. The 2019 AAD-NPF recommendations provide important information for dermatologists to coordinate care for complicated psoriasis cases, but clinical judgment is paramount when making medical decisions. The consideration of comorbidities is critical for developing a comprehensive treatment approach, and this approach will lead to better health outcomes and improved QOL for patients with psoriasis.

Biologics have transformed the management of moderate to severe psoriasis. There currently are 11 biologics approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (Table) for psoriasis treatment that have been affirmed by various clinical studies. This article provides dosing initiation, maintenance information, and updated clinical data using phase 3 studies (N=8) published between May 2020 and February 2021. Generic names of the 11 biologics were searched separately in the PubMed database within the specified date range. Subsequent results were reviewed by title and selected for phase 3 and 4 trials. Clinical data in this review focus on reducing patient disease burden by allocating a biologic best fit for each patient’s individual health profile.

IL-17A Inhibitors Update

Secukinumab is safe and efficacious for skin clearance in the presence of comorbidities and can be used for improving plaque psoriasis and palmoplantar pustular psoriasis. An extension of a phase 3 randomized controlled trial (RCT)—2PRECISE—evaluated the efficacy and safety of secukinumab dosing at 300 mg (n=79) and 150 mg (n=80) in adults with moderate to severe palmoplantar pustular psoriasis (palmoplantar psoriasis area and severity index [PPPASI] score ≥12 and dermatology life quality index [DLQI] ≥10) over 148 weeks.¹ Extension patients were included from the 52-week 2PRECISE study per the investigator’s judgement of a meaningful clinical response (exact criteria not described). All treatment groups demonstrated a mean (SD) PPPASI of 22.7 (9.5) by the extension trial’s start. Results affirmed that clinical response waned after week 148 in all groups excluding placebo/secukinumab 150 mg, which maintained a mean (SD) PPPASI of 22.7 (9.5). The most frequent adverse events were nasopharyngitis, pustular psoriasis, headache, and pruritus.¹

Comorbidities do not have a major impact on secukinumab’s efficacy. A post hoc analysis of 4 phase 3 RCTs—ERASURE, FIXTURE, FEATURE, and JUNCTURE—gathered data from adult patients (N=2401) to assess baseline comorbidities with efficacy and safety of secukinumab vs etanercept after 12 weeks of treatment.² Sixty-one percent (n=1469) had at least 1 comorbidity, most frequently obesity, hypertension, psoriatic arthritis, hyperlipidemia, or diabetes mellitus. All patient groups had a greater likelihood of a psoriasis area and severity index (PASI) response with any dose of secukinumab vs patients with comorbidities who were taking etanercept or placebo (P<.05) at week 12. All groups had a greater likelihood of achieving investigator global assessment scores of 0/1 (clear/almost clear) vs patients with comorbidities taking etanercept or placebo (P<.05). Baseline comorbidities did not significantly affect treatment response, except obesity, which was associated with decreased probability of achieving all PASI and investigator global assessment (P<.01) responses. Secukinumab-treated patients with and without comorbidities had equivalent likelihood of treatment-emergent adverse events (TEAEs).²

Brodalumab is an effective biologic that has shown long-term safety with continuous administration. Continuous brodalumab and brodalumab after placebo demonstrated impactful skin clearance after 120 weeks in AMAGINE-1, a phase 3 RCT involving adults (N=442) with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis.³ Patients randomized to brodalumab 210 mg (n=222) or placebo (n=220) were rerandomized according to initial treatment response. In patients switching from brodalumab to placebo at week 12, 55% and 94% achieved PASI 75 at week 20 and week 120, respectively, and 75% reached PASI 100 at week 120. Of patients with static physician global assessment (sPGA) scores of 0/1 (clear/almost clear) at week 12 who were rerandomized to brodalumab, 96% and 80% (using observed data) achieved PASI 75 and PASI 100, respectively. Mean (SD) time to return of skin disease following withdrawal of brodalumab was 74.7 (50.5) days. Treatment-emergent adverse events included headaches, arthralgia, diarrhea, and nausea. Suicidal ideation was rare (this study had 1 completed suicide), and authors cited that no causal association has been made between brodalumab and suicidality. Brodalumab also demonstrated favorable treatment response in patients who underwent a lapse in treatment, offering real-world value, as intermittent treatment administration can occur because of personal or financial reasons.³

Ixekizumab is associated with more rapid skin clearance, better resolution of nail psoriasis, and superior improvement in quality-of-life measures when compared with guselkumab. The phase 3 study IXORA-R compared skin and nail clearance as well as patient-reported outcomes over 24 weeks with ixekizumab 80 mg (n=520) vs guselkumab 100 mg (n=507) in adults with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis.⁴ Ixekizumab (50%) was shown to be no worse than guselkumab (52%; difference, –2.3%) using a noninferiority test (noninferiority margin of –11.4%). The treatments exhibited similar efficacy, with no significant difference in proportion of patients reaching PASI 100 (P=.41). Ixekizumab patients tended to have skin clearance sooner than guselkumab patients, reaching PASI 50/75/90 and PASI 100 in a median time that was 2 weeks and 7.5 weeks earlier, respectively. More ixekizumab patients (52%) achieved clear nails vs guselkumab patients (31%; P=.007). Ixekizumab patients reported greater satisfaction with their skin disease affecting quality of life (DLQI), with more DLQI 0/1 (no effect at all on patient’s life) scores and being itch free (P<.05). Ixekizumab was associated with significantly more days of complete skin clearance (PASI 100) vs guselkumab (55.6 days vs 42.2 days; P<.001). Although an upper respiratory tract infection was the most common TEAE, the proportion of TEAEs was similar between treatments.⁴

IL-23 Inhibitors Update

Tildrakizumab has similar long-term skin clearance efficacy and safety in patients with psoriasis with and without comorbid metabolic syndrome (MetS). A post hoc analysis of 2 phase 2 RCTs (reSURFACE 1/2) involving adults (N=338 and N=307) with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis assessed long-term efficacy (3 years), drug survival, and safety for 5 years of continuous tildrakizumab 100 mg and 200 mg in adults with comorbid MetS.⁵ Although no difference in efficacy was concluded, greater body mass index of the MetS population was shown to be associated with lower biologic efficacy compared to the general population. The proportion of patients who achieved PASI 75 at week 52 was comparable in patients with MetS and patients without MetS (tildrakizumab 100 mg, 85% and 86% vs 86% and 94% for reSURFACE 1/2, respectively; tildrakizumab 200 mg, 76% and 87% vs 76% and 87% for reSURFACE 1/2, respectively).⁵

Tildrakizumab also demonstrated efficacy and safety for up to 5 years in 2 other phase 3 RCTs with no dose-related differences in frequency of injections and malignancies. Tildrakizumab 100 mg is the recommended dose. The 200-mg dose can be utilized in patients with a high burden of disease and disability. reSURFACE 1 and reSURFACE 2 involved adults with chronic moderate to severe plaque psoriasis randomized to tildrakizumab 100 mg, 200 mg, or placebo with the option of long-term extension to week 244 if patients reached 50% or greater improvement from baseline PASI score.⁶ Patients in reSURFACE 2 also were randomized to etanercept 50 mg with partial responders and nonresponders at week 28 switching to tildrakizumab 200 mg until week 244. Extension results showed PASI 75 achievement in 88.7% (95% CI, 84.6%-92.1%) of patients taking tildrakizumab 100 mg (n=235), 92.5% (95% CI, 88.1%-95.7%) of patients taking tildrakizumab 200 mg (n=176), and 81.3% (95% CI, 72.6%-88.2%) of patients taking etanercept/partial nonresponders (n=85). The most common TEAE was nasopharyngitis (10.5/100 patient-years for tildrakizumab 100 mg and 10.7/100 patient-years for tildrakizumab 200 mg). The frequency of severe infections (eg, diverticulitis, pneumonia, cellulitis, appendicitis) was 1.2 per 100 patient-years for tildrakizumab 100 mg and 1.3 per 100 patient-years for tildrakizumab 200 mg.⁶

Risankizumab and tildrakizumab require the lowest number of injections, thereby providing sustainable skin clearance with a convenient injection dosing schedule for patients. Risankizumab efficacy (8.2% with inferiority margin of 12%) was noninferior to secukinumab when assessing the proportion of PASI 90 responders at week 16 (after 2 doses of risankizumab vs 7 doses of secukinumab).⁷ IMMerge, an international phase 3 RCT, involved adults (N=327) with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis to compare the safety and efficacy of risankizumab 150 mg (n=164) vs secukinumab 300 mg (n=163) up to 52 weeks. A greater proportion of the risankizumab arm (86.6%) achieved PASI 90 in 52 weeks compared to the secukinumab arm (57.1%). Superior skin clearance (PASI 90) at week 52 was achieved after 5 doses with risankizumab vs 16 doses of secukinumab. Risankizumab TEAEs were nasopharyngitis, upper respiratory tract infection, headache, arthralgia, diarrhea, and bronchitis.⁷

Continuous risankizumab treatment shows substantially stronger skin clearing performance compared with intermittent treatment following drug withdrawal, demonstrating that treatment gaps minimize therapeutic response. IMMhance, an international phase 3 RCT involving adults (N=507) with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis, evaluated the safety and efficacy with risankizumab 150 mg after 52 weeks and 104 weeks.⁸ Part A randomized patients to risankizumab 150 mg (n=407) or placebo (n=100). Part B rerandomized patients at week 28 to continue risankizumab 150 mg or placebo (designated as withdrawal of treatment; later re-treated with risankizumab 150 mg if patients had sPGA ≥3). At week 52, significantly more patients reached sPGA score of 0/1 with risankizumab/risankizumab (n=97 [87.4%]) vs risankizumab/placebo (n=138 [61.3%]; P<.001). At week 104, significantly more patients reached an sPGA score of 0/1 with risankizumab/risankizumab (n=90 [81.1%]) vs risankizumab/placebo (n=16 [7.1%]; P<.001). Risankizumab exhibited longevity following withdrawal, as median time to loss of response and relapse was 42 weeks (sPGA ≥3). The extent of TEAEs was similar between risankizumab and placebo and included nasopharyngitis, upper respiratory tract infection, headache, and back pain.⁸

Final Thoughts

Biologics for psoriasis help produce intended results for skin disease clearance and are tools for precision medicine. Recent data demonstrate safe, durable, and continuous efficacy with biologics, which offer patients a better chance of treatment success. This guide may serve as a quick reference for biologic selection with special consideration of individual disease characteristics and comorbidities.

Biologics have transformed the management of moderate to severe psoriasis. There currently are 11 biologics approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (Table) for psoriasis treatment that have been affirmed by various clinical studies. This article provides dosing initiation, maintenance information, and updated clinical data using phase 3 studies (N=8) published between May 2020 and February 2021. Generic names of the 11 biologics were searched separately in the PubMed database within the specified date range. Subsequent results were reviewed by title and selected for phase 3 and 4 trials. Clinical data in this review focus on reducing patient disease burden by allocating a biologic best fit for each patient’s individual health profile.

IL-17A Inhibitors Update

Secukinumab is safe and efficacious for skin clearance in the presence of comorbidities and can be used for improving plaque psoriasis and palmoplantar pustular psoriasis. An extension of a phase 3 randomized controlled trial (RCT)—2PRECISE—evaluated the efficacy and safety of secukinumab dosing at 300 mg (n=79) and 150 mg (n=80) in adults with moderate to severe palmoplantar pustular psoriasis (palmoplantar psoriasis area and severity index [PPPASI] score ≥12 and dermatology life quality index [DLQI] ≥10) over 148 weeks.¹ Extension patients were included from the 52-week 2PRECISE study per the investigator’s judgement of a meaningful clinical response (exact criteria not described). All treatment groups demonstrated a mean (SD) PPPASI of 22.7 (9.5) by the extension trial’s start. Results affirmed that clinical response waned after week 148 in all groups excluding placebo/secukinumab 150 mg, which maintained a mean (SD) PPPASI of 22.7 (9.5). The most frequent adverse events were nasopharyngitis, pustular psoriasis, headache, and pruritus.¹

Comorbidities do not have a major impact on secukinumab’s efficacy. A post hoc analysis of 4 phase 3 RCTs—ERASURE, FIXTURE, FEATURE, and JUNCTURE—gathered data from adult patients (N=2401) to assess baseline comorbidities with efficacy and safety of secukinumab vs etanercept after 12 weeks of treatment.² Sixty-one percent (n=1469) had at least 1 comorbidity, most frequently obesity, hypertension, psoriatic arthritis, hyperlipidemia, or diabetes mellitus. All patient groups had a greater likelihood of a psoriasis area and severity index (PASI) response with any dose of secukinumab vs patients with comorbidities who were taking etanercept or placebo (P<.05) at week 12. All groups had a greater likelihood of achieving investigator global assessment scores of 0/1 (clear/almost clear) vs patients with comorbidities taking etanercept or placebo (P<.05). Baseline comorbidities did not significantly affect treatment response, except obesity, which was associated with decreased probability of achieving all PASI and investigator global assessment (P<.01) responses. Secukinumab-treated patients with and without comorbidities had equivalent likelihood of treatment-emergent adverse events (TEAEs).²

Brodalumab is an effective biologic that has shown long-term safety with continuous administration. Continuous brodalumab and brodalumab after placebo demonstrated impactful skin clearance after 120 weeks in AMAGINE-1, a phase 3 RCT involving adults (N=442) with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis.³ Patients randomized to brodalumab 210 mg (n=222) or placebo (n=220) were rerandomized according to initial treatment response. In patients switching from brodalumab to placebo at week 12, 55% and 94% achieved PASI 75 at week 20 and week 120, respectively, and 75% reached PASI 100 at week 120. Of patients with static physician global assessment (sPGA) scores of 0/1 (clear/almost clear) at week 12 who were rerandomized to brodalumab, 96% and 80% (using observed data) achieved PASI 75 and PASI 100, respectively. Mean (SD) time to return of skin disease following withdrawal of brodalumab was 74.7 (50.5) days. Treatment-emergent adverse events included headaches, arthralgia, diarrhea, and nausea. Suicidal ideation was rare (this study had 1 completed suicide), and authors cited that no causal association has been made between brodalumab and suicidality. Brodalumab also demonstrated favorable treatment response in patients who underwent a lapse in treatment, offering real-world value, as intermittent treatment administration can occur because of personal or financial reasons.³

Ixekizumab is associated with more rapid skin clearance, better resolution of nail psoriasis, and superior improvement in quality-of-life measures when compared with guselkumab. The phase 3 study IXORA-R compared skin and nail clearance as well as patient-reported outcomes over 24 weeks with ixekizumab 80 mg (n=520) vs guselkumab 100 mg (n=507) in adults with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis.⁴ Ixekizumab (50%) was shown to be no worse than guselkumab (52%; difference, –2.3%) using a noninferiority test (noninferiority margin of –11.4%). The treatments exhibited similar efficacy, with no significant difference in proportion of patients reaching PASI 100 (P=.41). Ixekizumab patients tended to have skin clearance sooner than guselkumab patients, reaching PASI 50/75/90 and PASI 100 in a median time that was 2 weeks and 7.5 weeks earlier, respectively. More ixekizumab patients (52%) achieved clear nails vs guselkumab patients (31%; P=.007). Ixekizumab patients reported greater satisfaction with their skin disease affecting quality of life (DLQI), with more DLQI 0/1 (no effect at all on patient’s life) scores and being itch free (P<.05). Ixekizumab was associated with significantly more days of complete skin clearance (PASI 100) vs guselkumab (55.6 days vs 42.2 days; P<.001). Although an upper respiratory tract infection was the most common TEAE, the proportion of TEAEs was similar between treatments.⁴

IL-23 Inhibitors Update

Tildrakizumab has similar long-term skin clearance efficacy and safety in patients with psoriasis with and without comorbid metabolic syndrome (MetS). A post hoc analysis of 2 phase 2 RCTs (reSURFACE 1/2) involving adults (N=338 and N=307) with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis assessed long-term efficacy (3 years), drug survival, and safety for 5 years of continuous tildrakizumab 100 mg and 200 mg in adults with comorbid MetS.⁵ Although no difference in efficacy was concluded, greater body mass index of the MetS population was shown to be associated with lower biologic efficacy compared to the general population. The proportion of patients who achieved PASI 75 at week 52 was comparable in patients with MetS and patients without MetS (tildrakizumab 100 mg, 85% and 86% vs 86% and 94% for reSURFACE 1/2, respectively; tildrakizumab 200 mg, 76% and 87% vs 76% and 87% for reSURFACE 1/2, respectively).⁵

Tildrakizumab also demonstrated efficacy and safety for up to 5 years in 2 other phase 3 RCTs with no dose-related differences in frequency of injections and malignancies. Tildrakizumab 100 mg is the recommended dose. The 200-mg dose can be utilized in patients with a high burden of disease and disability. reSURFACE 1 and reSURFACE 2 involved adults with chronic moderate to severe plaque psoriasis randomized to tildrakizumab 100 mg, 200 mg, or placebo with the option of long-term extension to week 244 if patients reached 50% or greater improvement from baseline PASI score.⁶ Patients in reSURFACE 2 also were randomized to etanercept 50 mg with partial responders and nonresponders at week 28 switching to tildrakizumab 200 mg until week 244. Extension results showed PASI 75 achievement in 88.7% (95% CI, 84.6%-92.1%) of patients taking tildrakizumab 100 mg (n=235), 92.5% (95% CI, 88.1%-95.7%) of patients taking tildrakizumab 200 mg (n=176), and 81.3% (95% CI, 72.6%-88.2%) of patients taking etanercept/partial nonresponders (n=85). The most common TEAE was nasopharyngitis (10.5/100 patient-years for tildrakizumab 100 mg and 10.7/100 patient-years for tildrakizumab 200 mg). The frequency of severe infections (eg, diverticulitis, pneumonia, cellulitis, appendicitis) was 1.2 per 100 patient-years for tildrakizumab 100 mg and 1.3 per 100 patient-years for tildrakizumab 200 mg.⁶

Risankizumab and tildrakizumab require the lowest number of injections, thereby providing sustainable skin clearance with a convenient injection dosing schedule for patients. Risankizumab efficacy (8.2% with inferiority margin of 12%) was noninferior to secukinumab when assessing the proportion of PASI 90 responders at week 16 (after 2 doses of risankizumab vs 7 doses of secukinumab).⁷ IMMerge, an international phase 3 RCT, involved adults (N=327) with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis to compare the safety and efficacy of risankizumab 150 mg (n=164) vs secukinumab 300 mg (n=163) up to 52 weeks. A greater proportion of the risankizumab arm (86.6%) achieved PASI 90 in 52 weeks compared to the secukinumab arm (57.1%). Superior skin clearance (PASI 90) at week 52 was achieved after 5 doses with risankizumab vs 16 doses of secukinumab. Risankizumab TEAEs were nasopharyngitis, upper respiratory tract infection, headache, arthralgia, diarrhea, and bronchitis.⁷

Continuous risankizumab treatment shows substantially stronger skin clearing performance compared with intermittent treatment following drug withdrawal, demonstrating that treatment gaps minimize therapeutic response. IMMhance, an international phase 3 RCT involving adults (N=507) with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis, evaluated the safety and efficacy with risankizumab 150 mg after 52 weeks and 104 weeks.⁸ Part A randomized patients to risankizumab 150 mg (n=407) or placebo (n=100). Part B rerandomized patients at week 28 to continue risankizumab 150 mg or placebo (designated as withdrawal of treatment; later re-treated with risankizumab 150 mg if patients had sPGA ≥3). At week 52, significantly more patients reached sPGA score of 0/1 with risankizumab/risankizumab (n=97 [87.4%]) vs risankizumab/placebo (n=138 [61.3%]; P<.001). At week 104, significantly more patients reached an sPGA score of 0/1 with risankizumab/risankizumab (n=90 [81.1%]) vs risankizumab/placebo (n=16 [7.1%]; P<.001). Risankizumab exhibited longevity following withdrawal, as median time to loss of response and relapse was 42 weeks (sPGA ≥3). The extent of TEAEs was similar between risankizumab and placebo and included nasopharyngitis, upper respiratory tract infection, headache, and back pain.⁸

Final Thoughts

Biologics for psoriasis help produce intended results for skin disease clearance and are tools for precision medicine. Recent data demonstrate safe, durable, and continuous efficacy with biologics, which offer patients a better chance of treatment success. This guide may serve as a quick reference for biologic selection with special consideration of individual disease characteristics and comorbidities.

Biologics have transformed the management of moderate to severe psoriasis. There currently are 11 biologics approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (Table) for psoriasis treatment that have been affirmed by various clinical studies. This article provides dosing initiation, maintenance information, and updated clinical data using phase 3 studies (N=8) published between May 2020 and February 2021. Generic names of the 11 biologics were searched separately in the PubMed database within the specified date range. Subsequent results were reviewed by title and selected for phase 3 and 4 trials. Clinical data in this review focus on reducing patient disease burden by allocating a biologic best fit for each patient’s individual health profile.

IL-17A Inhibitors Update

Secukinumab is safe and efficacious for skin clearance in the presence of comorbidities and can be used for improving plaque psoriasis and palmoplantar pustular psoriasis. An extension of a phase 3 randomized controlled trial (RCT)—2PRECISE—evaluated the efficacy and safety of secukinumab dosing at 300 mg (n=79) and 150 mg (n=80) in adults with moderate to severe palmoplantar pustular psoriasis (palmoplantar psoriasis area and severity index [PPPASI] score ≥12 and dermatology life quality index [DLQI] ≥10) over 148 weeks.¹ Extension patients were included from the 52-week 2PRECISE study per the investigator’s judgement of a meaningful clinical response (exact criteria not described). All treatment groups demonstrated a mean (SD) PPPASI of 22.7 (9.5) by the extension trial’s start. Results affirmed that clinical response waned after week 148 in all groups excluding placebo/secukinumab 150 mg, which maintained a mean (SD) PPPASI of 22.7 (9.5). The most frequent adverse events were nasopharyngitis, pustular psoriasis, headache, and pruritus.¹

Comorbidities do not have a major impact on secukinumab’s efficacy. A post hoc analysis of 4 phase 3 RCTs—ERASURE, FIXTURE, FEATURE, and JUNCTURE—gathered data from adult patients (N=2401) to assess baseline comorbidities with efficacy and safety of secukinumab vs etanercept after 12 weeks of treatment.² Sixty-one percent (n=1469) had at least 1 comorbidity, most frequently obesity, hypertension, psoriatic arthritis, hyperlipidemia, or diabetes mellitus. All patient groups had a greater likelihood of a psoriasis area and severity index (PASI) response with any dose of secukinumab vs patients with comorbidities who were taking etanercept or placebo (P<.05) at week 12. All groups had a greater likelihood of achieving investigator global assessment scores of 0/1 (clear/almost clear) vs patients with comorbidities taking etanercept or placebo (P<.05). Baseline comorbidities did not significantly affect treatment response, except obesity, which was associated with decreased probability of achieving all PASI and investigator global assessment (P<.01) responses. Secukinumab-treated patients with and without comorbidities had equivalent likelihood of treatment-emergent adverse events (TEAEs).²

Brodalumab is an effective biologic that has shown long-term safety with continuous administration. Continuous brodalumab and brodalumab after placebo demonstrated impactful skin clearance after 120 weeks in AMAGINE-1, a phase 3 RCT involving adults (N=442) with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis.³ Patients randomized to brodalumab 210 mg (n=222) or placebo (n=220) were rerandomized according to initial treatment response. In patients switching from brodalumab to placebo at week 12, 55% and 94% achieved PASI 75 at week 20 and week 120, respectively, and 75% reached PASI 100 at week 120. Of patients with static physician global assessment (sPGA) scores of 0/1 (clear/almost clear) at week 12 who were rerandomized to brodalumab, 96% and 80% (using observed data) achieved PASI 75 and PASI 100, respectively. Mean (SD) time to return of skin disease following withdrawal of brodalumab was 74.7 (50.5) days. Treatment-emergent adverse events included headaches, arthralgia, diarrhea, and nausea. Suicidal ideation was rare (this study had 1 completed suicide), and authors cited that no causal association has been made between brodalumab and suicidality. Brodalumab also demonstrated favorable treatment response in patients who underwent a lapse in treatment, offering real-world value, as intermittent treatment administration can occur because of personal or financial reasons.³

Ixekizumab is associated with more rapid skin clearance, better resolution of nail psoriasis, and superior improvement in quality-of-life measures when compared with guselkumab. The phase 3 study IXORA-R compared skin and nail clearance as well as patient-reported outcomes over 24 weeks with ixekizumab 80 mg (n=520) vs guselkumab 100 mg (n=507) in adults with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis.⁴ Ixekizumab (50%) was shown to be no worse than guselkumab (52%; difference, –2.3%) using a noninferiority test (noninferiority margin of –11.4%). The treatments exhibited similar efficacy, with no significant difference in proportion of patients reaching PASI 100 (P=.41). Ixekizumab patients tended to have skin clearance sooner than guselkumab patients, reaching PASI 50/75/90 and PASI 100 in a median time that was 2 weeks and 7.5 weeks earlier, respectively. More ixekizumab patients (52%) achieved clear nails vs guselkumab patients (31%; P=.007). Ixekizumab patients reported greater satisfaction with their skin disease affecting quality of life (DLQI), with more DLQI 0/1 (no effect at all on patient’s life) scores and being itch free (P<.05). Ixekizumab was associated with significantly more days of complete skin clearance (PASI 100) vs guselkumab (55.6 days vs 42.2 days; P<.001). Although an upper respiratory tract infection was the most common TEAE, the proportion of TEAEs was similar between treatments.⁴

IL-23 Inhibitors Update

Tildrakizumab has similar long-term skin clearance efficacy and safety in patients with psoriasis with and without comorbid metabolic syndrome (MetS). A post hoc analysis of 2 phase 2 RCTs (reSURFACE 1/2) involving adults (N=338 and N=307) with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis assessed long-term efficacy (3 years), drug survival, and safety for 5 years of continuous tildrakizumab 100 mg and 200 mg in adults with comorbid MetS.⁵ Although no difference in efficacy was concluded, greater body mass index of the MetS population was shown to be associated with lower biologic efficacy compared to the general population. The proportion of patients who achieved PASI 75 at week 52 was comparable in patients with MetS and patients without MetS (tildrakizumab 100 mg, 85% and 86% vs 86% and 94% for reSURFACE 1/2, respectively; tildrakizumab 200 mg, 76% and 87% vs 76% and 87% for reSURFACE 1/2, respectively).⁵

Tildrakizumab also demonstrated efficacy and safety for up to 5 years in 2 other phase 3 RCTs with no dose-related differences in frequency of injections and malignancies. Tildrakizumab 100 mg is the recommended dose. The 200-mg dose can be utilized in patients with a high burden of disease and disability. reSURFACE 1 and reSURFACE 2 involved adults with chronic moderate to severe plaque psoriasis randomized to tildrakizumab 100 mg, 200 mg, or placebo with the option of long-term extension to week 244 if patients reached 50% or greater improvement from baseline PASI score.⁶ Patients in reSURFACE 2 also were randomized to etanercept 50 mg with partial responders and nonresponders at week 28 switching to tildrakizumab 200 mg until week 244. Extension results showed PASI 75 achievement in 88.7% (95% CI, 84.6%-92.1%) of patients taking tildrakizumab 100 mg (n=235), 92.5% (95% CI, 88.1%-95.7%) of patients taking tildrakizumab 200 mg (n=176), and 81.3% (95% CI, 72.6%-88.2%) of patients taking etanercept/partial nonresponders (n=85). The most common TEAE was nasopharyngitis (10.5/100 patient-years for tildrakizumab 100 mg and 10.7/100 patient-years for tildrakizumab 200 mg). The frequency of severe infections (eg, diverticulitis, pneumonia, cellulitis, appendicitis) was 1.2 per 100 patient-years for tildrakizumab 100 mg and 1.3 per 100 patient-years for tildrakizumab 200 mg.⁶

Risankizumab and tildrakizumab require the lowest number of injections, thereby providing sustainable skin clearance with a convenient injection dosing schedule for patients. Risankizumab efficacy (8.2% with inferiority margin of 12%) was noninferior to secukinumab when assessing the proportion of PASI 90 responders at week 16 (after 2 doses of risankizumab vs 7 doses of secukinumab).⁷ IMMerge, an international phase 3 RCT, involved adults (N=327) with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis to compare the safety and efficacy of risankizumab 150 mg (n=164) vs secukinumab 300 mg (n=163) up to 52 weeks. A greater proportion of the risankizumab arm (86.6%) achieved PASI 90 in 52 weeks compared to the secukinumab arm (57.1%). Superior skin clearance (PASI 90) at week 52 was achieved after 5 doses with risankizumab vs 16 doses of secukinumab. Risankizumab TEAEs were nasopharyngitis, upper respiratory tract infection, headache, arthralgia, diarrhea, and bronchitis.⁷

Continuous risankizumab treatment shows substantially stronger skin clearing performance compared with intermittent treatment following drug withdrawal, demonstrating that treatment gaps minimize therapeutic response. IMMhance, an international phase 3 RCT involving adults (N=507) with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis, evaluated the safety and efficacy with risankizumab 150 mg after 52 weeks and 104 weeks.⁸ Part A randomized patients to risankizumab 150 mg (n=407) or placebo (n=100). Part B rerandomized patients at week 28 to continue risankizumab 150 mg or placebo (designated as withdrawal of treatment; later re-treated with risankizumab 150 mg if patients had sPGA ≥3). At week 52, significantly more patients reached sPGA score of 0/1 with risankizumab/risankizumab (n=97 [87.4%]) vs risankizumab/placebo (n=138 [61.3%]; P<.001). At week 104, significantly more patients reached an sPGA score of 0/1 with risankizumab/risankizumab (n=90 [81.1%]) vs risankizumab/placebo (n=16 [7.1%]; P<.001). Risankizumab exhibited longevity following withdrawal, as median time to loss of response and relapse was 42 weeks (sPGA ≥3). The extent of TEAEs was similar between risankizumab and placebo and included nasopharyngitis, upper respiratory tract infection, headache, and back pain.⁸

Final Thoughts

Biologics for psoriasis help produce intended results for skin disease clearance and are tools for precision medicine. Recent data demonstrate safe, durable, and continuous efficacy with biologics, which offer patients a better chance of treatment success. This guide may serve as a quick reference for biologic selection with special consideration of individual disease characteristics and comorbidities.

Prostate cancer (PC) is the most commonly and newly diagnosed nonskin cancer and the second leading cause of cancer death in men in the United States. About 191,930 cases and about 33,330 deaths from PC were expected for the year 2020.¹ About 1 in 41 men will die of PC. Most men diagnosed with PC are aged > 65 years and do not die of their disease. The 5-year survival rate of localized and regional disease is nearly 100%, and disease with distant metastases is 31%. As a result, more than 3.1 million men in the United States who have been diagnosed with PC are still alive today.¹ Among veterans, there is a substantial population living with PC. Skolarus and Hawley reported in 2014 that an estimated 200,000 veterans with PC were survivors and 12,000 were newly diagnosed.²

In PC, skeletal strength can be affected by several factors, such as aging, malnutrition, androgen-deprivation therapy (ADT), and bone metastasis.^3,4 In fact, most men can live the rest of their life with PC by using strategies to monitor and treat it, once it shows either radiographic or chemical signs of progression.⁵ ADT is the standard of care to treat hormone-sensitive PC, which is associated with significant skeletal-related adverse effects (AEs).^6,7

Men undergoing ADT are 4 times more likely to develop substantial bone deficiency, Shahinian and colleagues found that in men surviving 5 years after PC diagnosis, 19.4% of those who received ADT had a fracture compared with 12% in men who did not (P < .001). The authors established a significant relation between the number of doses of gonadotropin-releasing hormone given in the first 12 months and the risk of fracture.⁸ Of those who progressed to metastatic disease, the first metastatic nonnodal site is most commonly to the bone.⁹ Advanced PC is characterized by increased bone turnover, which further raises concerns for bone health and patient performance.¹⁰

Skeletal-related events (SREs) include pathologic fracture, spinal cord compression, palliative radiation, or surgery to bone, and change in antineoplastic therapy secondary to bone pain. The concept of bone health refers to the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of idiopathic, pathogenic, and treatment-related bone loss and delay or prevention of SREs.^6,11 Guidelines and expert groups have recommended screening for osteoporosis at the start of ADT with bone mineral density testing, ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, modifying lifestyle behaviors (smoking cessation, alcohol moderation, and regular exercise), and prescribing bisphosphonates or receptor-activated nuclear factor κ-B ligand inhibitor, denosumab, for men with osteoporosis or who are at general high-fracture risk.^12,13 The overuse of these medications results in undue cost to patients as well as AEs, such as osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ), hypocalcemia, and bone/joint pains.^14-17 There are evidence-based guidelines for appropriate use of bisphosphonates and denosumab for delay and prevention of SREs in the setting of advanced PC.¹⁸ These doses also typically differ in frequency to those of osteoporosis.¹⁹ We summarize the evidence and guidance for health care providers who care for patients with PC at various stages and complications from both disease-related and treatment-related comorbidities.

Bone-Strengthening Agents

Overall, there is evidence to support the use of bone-strengthening agents in patients with osteopenia/osteoporosis in the prevention of SREs with significant risk factors for progressive bone demineralization, such as lifestyle factors and, in particular, treatments such as ADT. Bone-remodeling agents for treatment of bony metastasis have been shown to provide therapeutic advantage only in limited instances in the castration-resistant PC (CRPC) setting. Hence, in patients with hormone-sensitive PC due to medication-related AEs, treatment with bone-strengthening agents is indicated only if the patient has a significant preexisting risk for fracture from osteopenia/osteoporosis (Table). The Figure depicts an algorithm for the management of bone health in men with PC who are being treated with ADT.

Denosumab and bisphosphonates have an established role in preventing SREs in metastatic CRPC.²⁰ The choice of denosumab or a bisphosphonate typically varies based on the indication, possible AEs, and cost of therapy. There are multiple studies involving initiation of these agents at various stages of disease to improve both time to progression as well as management of SREs. There is a lack of evidence that bisphosphonates prevent metastatic-bone lesions in castration-sensitive PC; therefore, prophylactic use of this agent is not recommended in patients unless they have significant bone demineralization.^21,22

Bone Health in Patients

Nonmetastatic Hormone-Sensitive PC

ADT forms the backbone of treatment for patients with local and advanced metastatic castration-sensitive PC along with surgical and focal radiotherapy options. Cancer treatment-induced bone loss is known to occur with prolonged use of ADT. The ZEUS trial found no prevention of bone metastasis in patients with high-risk localized PC with the use of ZA in the absence of bone metastasis. A Kaplan-Meier estimated proportion of bone metastases after a median follow-up of 4.8 years was found to be not statistically significant: 14.7% in the ZA group vs 13.2% in the control/placebo group.²⁹ The STAMPEDE trial showed no significant overall survival (OS) benefit with the addition of ZA to ADT vs ADT alone (HR, 0.94; 95% CI, 0.79-1.11; P = .45), 5-year survival with ADT alone was 55% compared to ADT plus ZA with 57% 5-year survival.³⁰ The RADAR trial showed that at 5 years in high Gleason score patients, use of ZA in the absence of bone metastasis was beneficial, but not in low- or intermediate-risk patients. However, at 10-year analysis there was no significant difference in any of the high-stratified groups with or without ZA.³¹

The PR04 trial showed no effect on OS with clodronate compared with placebo in nonmetastatic castration-sensitive PC, with a HR of 1.12 (95% CI, 0.89-1.42; P = .94). The estimated 5-year survival was 80% with placebo and 78% with clodronate; 10-year survival rates were 51% with placebo and 48% with clodronate.³² Data from the HALT trial showed an increased bone mineral density and reduced risk of new vertebral fractures vs placebo (1.5% vs 3.9%, respectively) in the absence of metastatic bone lesions and a reduction in new vertebral fractures in patients with nonmetastatic PC.³³ Most of these studies showed no benefit with the addition of ZA to nonmetastatic PC; although, the HALT trial provides evidence to support use of denosumab in patients with nonmetastatic PC for preventing vertebral fragility fractures in men receiving ADT.

Metastatic Hormone-Sensitive PC

ZA is often used to treat men with metastatic castration-sensitive PC despite limited efficacy and safety data. The CALGB 90202 (Alliance) trial authors found that the early use of ZA was not associated with increased time to first SRE. The median time to first SRE was 31.9 months in the ZA group (95% CI, 24.2-40.3) and 29.8 months in the placebo group (stratified HR, 0.97; 95% CI, 0-1.17; 1-sided stratified log-rank P = .39).³⁴ OS was similar between the groups (HR, 0.88; 95% CI, 0.70-1.12; P = .29) as were reported AEs.³⁴ Results from these studies suggest limited benefit in treating patients with metastatic hormone-sensitive PC with bisphosphonates without other medical indications for use. Additional studies suggest similar results for treatment with denosumab to that of bisphosphonate therapies.³⁵

Nonmetastatic CRPC

Reasonable interest among treating clinicians exists to be able to delay or prevent the development of metastatic bone disease in patients who are showing biochemical signs of castration resistance but have not yet developed distant metastatic disease. Time to progression on ADT to castration resistance usually occurs 2 to 3 years following initiation of treatment. This typically occurs in patients with rising prostate-specific antigen (PSA). As per the Prostate Cancer Working Group 3, in the absence of radiologic progression, CRPC is defined by a 25% increase from the nadir (considering a starting value of ≥ 1 ng/mL), with a minimum rise of 2 ng/mL in the setting of castrate serum testosterone < 50 ng/dL despite good adherence to an ADT regimen, with proven serologic castration either by undetectable or a near undetectable nadir of serum testosterone concentration. Therapeutic implications include prevention of SREs as well as time to metastatic bone lesions. The Zometa 704 trial examined the use of ZA to reduce time to first metastatic bone lesion in the setting of patients with nonmetastatic CRPC.³⁶ The trial was discontinued prematurely due to low patient accrual, but initial analysis provided information on the natural history of a rising PSA in this patient population. At 2 years, one-third of patients had developed bone metastases. Median bone metastasis-free survival was 30 months. Median time to first bone metastasis and OS were not reached. Baseline PSA and PSA velocity independently predicted a shorter time to first bone metastasis, metastasis-free survival, and OS.³⁶

Denosumab was also studied in the setting of nonmetastatic CRPC in the Denosumab 147 trial. The study enrolled 1432 patients and found a significantly increased bone metastasis-free survival by a median of 4.2 months over placebo (HR, 0.85; 95% CI, 0.73-0.98; P = .03). Denosumab significantly delayed time to first bone metastasis (HR, 0.84; 95% CI, 0.71-0.98; P = .03). OS was similar between groups (HR, 1.01; 95% CI, 0.85-1.20; P = .91). Rates of AEs and serious AEs were similar between groups, except for ONJ and hypocalcemia. The rates of ONJ for denosumab were 1%, 3%, 4% in years 1,2, 3, respectively; overall, < 5% (n = 33). Hypocalcemia occurred in < 2% (n = 12) in denosumab-treated patients. The authors concluded that in men with CRPC, denosumab significantly prolonged bone metastasis–free survival and delayed time-to-bone metastasis.³⁷ These 2 studies suggest a role of receptor-activated nuclear factor κ-B ligand inhibitor denosumab in patients with nonmetastatic CRPC in the appropriate setting. There were delays in bony metastatic disease, but no difference in OS. Rare denosumab treatment–related specific AEs were noted. Hence, denosumab is not recommended for use in this setting.

Metastatic CRPC

Castration resistance typically occurs 2 to 3 years following initiation of ADT and the most common extranodal site of disease is within the bone in metastatic PC. Disease progression within bones after ADT can be challenging given both the nature of progressive cancer with osteoblastic metastatic lesions and the prolonged effects of ADT on unaffected bone. The Zometa 039 study compared ZA with placebo and found a significant difference in SREs (38% and 49%, respectively; P .03). No survival benefit was observed with the addition of ZA. Use of other bisphosphonates pamidronate and clodronate did not have a similar degree of benefit.^38,39

A phase 3 study of 1904 patients found that denosumab was superior to ZA in delaying the time to first on-study SRE (HR, 0.82; 95% CI, 0.71-0.95) and reducing rates of multiple SREs (HR, 0.82; 95% CI, 0.71-0.94).⁴⁰ This was later confirmed with an additional study that demonstrated treatment with denosumab significantly reduced the risk of developing a first symptomatic SRE, defined as a pathologic fracture, spinal cord compression, necessity for radiation, or surgery (HR, 0.78; 95% CI, 0.66-0.93; P = .005) and first and subsequent symptomatic SREs (rate ratio, 0.78; 95% CI, 0.65-0.92; P = .004) compared with ZA.²⁸ These findings suggest a continued role of denosumab in the treatment of advanced metastatic CRPC from both control of bone disease as well as quality of life and palliation of cancer-related symptoms.

Radium-223 dichloride (radium-223) is an α-emitting radionuclide for treatment of metastatic CRPC with bone metastasis, but otherwise no additional metastatic sites. Radium-223 is a calcium-mimetic that preferentially accumulates into areas of high-bone turnover, such as where bone metastases tend to occur. Radium-223 induces apoptosis of tumor cells through double-stranded DNA breaks. Studies have shown radium-223 to prolong OS and time-to-first symptomatic SRE.⁴¹ The ERA-223 trial showed that when radium-223 was combined with abiraterone acetate, there was an increase in fragility fracture risk compared with placebo combined with abiraterone. Data from the study revealed that the median symptomatic SRE-free survival was 22.3 months (95% CI, 20.4-24.8) in the radium-223 group and 26.0 months (21.8-28.3) in the placebo group. Concurrent treatment with abiraterone acetate plus prednisone or prednisolone and radium-223 was associated with increased fracture risk. Osteoporotic fractures were the most common type of fracture in the radium-223 group and of all fracture types, differed the most between the study groups.⁴²

Conclusions

Convincing evidence supports the ongoing use of bisphosphonates and denosumab in patients with osteoporosis, significant osteopenia with risk factors, and in patients with CRPC with bone metastasis. Bone metastases can cause considerable morbidity and mortality among men with advanced PC. Pain, fracture, and neurologic injury can occur with metastatic bone lesions as well as with ADT-related bone loss. Prevention of SREs in patients with PC is a reasonable goal in PC survivors while being mindful of managing the risks of these therapies.

Prostate cancer (PC) is the most commonly and newly diagnosed nonskin cancer and the second leading cause of cancer death in men in the United States. About 191,930 cases and about 33,330 deaths from PC were expected for the year 2020.¹ About 1 in 41 men will die of PC. Most men diagnosed with PC are aged > 65 years and do not die of their disease. The 5-year survival rate of localized and regional disease is nearly 100%, and disease with distant metastases is 31%. As a result, more than 3.1 million men in the United States who have been diagnosed with PC are still alive today.¹ Among veterans, there is a substantial population living with PC. Skolarus and Hawley reported in 2014 that an estimated 200,000 veterans with PC were survivors and 12,000 were newly diagnosed.²

In PC, skeletal strength can be affected by several factors, such as aging, malnutrition, androgen-deprivation therapy (ADT), and bone metastasis.^3,4 In fact, most men can live the rest of their life with PC by using strategies to monitor and treat it, once it shows either radiographic or chemical signs of progression.⁵ ADT is the standard of care to treat hormone-sensitive PC, which is associated with significant skeletal-related adverse effects (AEs).^6,7

Men undergoing ADT are 4 times more likely to develop substantial bone deficiency, Shahinian and colleagues found that in men surviving 5 years after PC diagnosis, 19.4% of those who received ADT had a fracture compared with 12% in men who did not (P < .001). The authors established a significant relation between the number of doses of gonadotropin-releasing hormone given in the first 12 months and the risk of fracture.⁸ Of those who progressed to metastatic disease, the first metastatic nonnodal site is most commonly to the bone.⁹ Advanced PC is characterized by increased bone turnover, which further raises concerns for bone health and patient performance.¹⁰

Skeletal-related events (SREs) include pathologic fracture, spinal cord compression, palliative radiation, or surgery to bone, and change in antineoplastic therapy secondary to bone pain. The concept of bone health refers to the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of idiopathic, pathogenic, and treatment-related bone loss and delay or prevention of SREs.^6,11 Guidelines and expert groups have recommended screening for osteoporosis at the start of ADT with bone mineral density testing, ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, modifying lifestyle behaviors (smoking cessation, alcohol moderation, and regular exercise), and prescribing bisphosphonates or receptor-activated nuclear factor κ-B ligand inhibitor, denosumab, for men with osteoporosis or who are at general high-fracture risk.^12,13 The overuse of these medications results in undue cost to patients as well as AEs, such as osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ), hypocalcemia, and bone/joint pains.^14-17 There are evidence-based guidelines for appropriate use of bisphosphonates and denosumab for delay and prevention of SREs in the setting of advanced PC.¹⁸ These doses also typically differ in frequency to those of osteoporosis.¹⁹ We summarize the evidence and guidance for health care providers who care for patients with PC at various stages and complications from both disease-related and treatment-related comorbidities.

Bone-Strengthening Agents

Overall, there is evidence to support the use of bone-strengthening agents in patients with osteopenia/osteoporosis in the prevention of SREs with significant risk factors for progressive bone demineralization, such as lifestyle factors and, in particular, treatments such as ADT. Bone-remodeling agents for treatment of bony metastasis have been shown to provide therapeutic advantage only in limited instances in the castration-resistant PC (CRPC) setting. Hence, in patients with hormone-sensitive PC due to medication-related AEs, treatment with bone-strengthening agents is indicated only if the patient has a significant preexisting risk for fracture from osteopenia/osteoporosis (Table). The Figure depicts an algorithm for the management of bone health in men with PC who are being treated with ADT.

Denosumab and bisphosphonates have an established role in preventing SREs in metastatic CRPC.²⁰ The choice of denosumab or a bisphosphonate typically varies based on the indication, possible AEs, and cost of therapy. There are multiple studies involving initiation of these agents at various stages of disease to improve both time to progression as well as management of SREs. There is a lack of evidence that bisphosphonates prevent metastatic-bone lesions in castration-sensitive PC; therefore, prophylactic use of this agent is not recommended in patients unless they have significant bone demineralization.^21,22

Bone Health in Patients

Nonmetastatic Hormone-Sensitive PC

ADT forms the backbone of treatment for patients with local and advanced metastatic castration-sensitive PC along with surgical and focal radiotherapy options. Cancer treatment-induced bone loss is known to occur with prolonged use of ADT. The ZEUS trial found no prevention of bone metastasis in patients with high-risk localized PC with the use of ZA in the absence of bone metastasis. A Kaplan-Meier estimated proportion of bone metastases after a median follow-up of 4.8 years was found to be not statistically significant: 14.7% in the ZA group vs 13.2% in the control/placebo group.²⁹ The STAMPEDE trial showed no significant overall survival (OS) benefit with the addition of ZA to ADT vs ADT alone (HR, 0.94; 95% CI, 0.79-1.11; P = .45), 5-year survival with ADT alone was 55% compared to ADT plus ZA with 57% 5-year survival.³⁰ The RADAR trial showed that at 5 years in high Gleason score patients, use of ZA in the absence of bone metastasis was beneficial, but not in low- or intermediate-risk patients. However, at 10-year analysis there was no significant difference in any of the high-stratified groups with or without ZA.³¹

The PR04 trial showed no effect on OS with clodronate compared with placebo in nonmetastatic castration-sensitive PC, with a HR of 1.12 (95% CI, 0.89-1.42; P = .94). The estimated 5-year survival was 80% with placebo and 78% with clodronate; 10-year survival rates were 51% with placebo and 48% with clodronate.³² Data from the HALT trial showed an increased bone mineral density and reduced risk of new vertebral fractures vs placebo (1.5% vs 3.9%, respectively) in the absence of metastatic bone lesions and a reduction in new vertebral fractures in patients with nonmetastatic PC.³³ Most of these studies showed no benefit with the addition of ZA to nonmetastatic PC; although, the HALT trial provides evidence to support use of denosumab in patients with nonmetastatic PC for preventing vertebral fragility fractures in men receiving ADT.

Metastatic Hormone-Sensitive PC

ZA is often used to treat men with metastatic castration-sensitive PC despite limited efficacy and safety data. The CALGB 90202 (Alliance) trial authors found that the early use of ZA was not associated with increased time to first SRE. The median time to first SRE was 31.9 months in the ZA group (95% CI, 24.2-40.3) and 29.8 months in the placebo group (stratified HR, 0.97; 95% CI, 0-1.17; 1-sided stratified log-rank P = .39).³⁴ OS was similar between the groups (HR, 0.88; 95% CI, 0.70-1.12; P = .29) as were reported AEs.³⁴ Results from these studies suggest limited benefit in treating patients with metastatic hormone-sensitive PC with bisphosphonates without other medical indications for use. Additional studies suggest similar results for treatment with denosumab to that of bisphosphonate therapies.³⁵

Nonmetastatic CRPC

Reasonable interest among treating clinicians exists to be able to delay or prevent the development of metastatic bone disease in patients who are showing biochemical signs of castration resistance but have not yet developed distant metastatic disease. Time to progression on ADT to castration resistance usually occurs 2 to 3 years following initiation of treatment. This typically occurs in patients with rising prostate-specific antigen (PSA). As per the Prostate Cancer Working Group 3, in the absence of radiologic progression, CRPC is defined by a 25% increase from the nadir (considering a starting value of ≥ 1 ng/mL), with a minimum rise of 2 ng/mL in the setting of castrate serum testosterone < 50 ng/dL despite good adherence to an ADT regimen, with proven serologic castration either by undetectable or a near undetectable nadir of serum testosterone concentration. Therapeutic implications include prevention of SREs as well as time to metastatic bone lesions. The Zometa 704 trial examined the use of ZA to reduce time to first metastatic bone lesion in the setting of patients with nonmetastatic CRPC.³⁶ The trial was discontinued prematurely due to low patient accrual, but initial analysis provided information on the natural history of a rising PSA in this patient population. At 2 years, one-third of patients had developed bone metastases. Median bone metastasis-free survival was 30 months. Median time to first bone metastasis and OS were not reached. Baseline PSA and PSA velocity independently predicted a shorter time to first bone metastasis, metastasis-free survival, and OS.³⁶

Denosumab was also studied in the setting of nonmetastatic CRPC in the Denosumab 147 trial. The study enrolled 1432 patients and found a significantly increased bone metastasis-free survival by a median of 4.2 months over placebo (HR, 0.85; 95% CI, 0.73-0.98; P = .03). Denosumab significantly delayed time to first bone metastasis (HR, 0.84; 95% CI, 0.71-0.98; P = .03). OS was similar between groups (HR, 1.01; 95% CI, 0.85-1.20; P = .91). Rates of AEs and serious AEs were similar between groups, except for ONJ and hypocalcemia. The rates of ONJ for denosumab were 1%, 3%, 4% in years 1,2, 3, respectively; overall, < 5% (n = 33). Hypocalcemia occurred in < 2% (n = 12) in denosumab-treated patients. The authors concluded that in men with CRPC, denosumab significantly prolonged bone metastasis–free survival and delayed time-to-bone metastasis.³⁷ These 2 studies suggest a role of receptor-activated nuclear factor κ-B ligand inhibitor denosumab in patients with nonmetastatic CRPC in the appropriate setting. There were delays in bony metastatic disease, but no difference in OS. Rare denosumab treatment–related specific AEs were noted. Hence, denosumab is not recommended for use in this setting.

Metastatic CRPC

Castration resistance typically occurs 2 to 3 years following initiation of ADT and the most common extranodal site of disease is within the bone in metastatic PC. Disease progression within bones after ADT can be challenging given both the nature of progressive cancer with osteoblastic metastatic lesions and the prolonged effects of ADT on unaffected bone. The Zometa 039 study compared ZA with placebo and found a significant difference in SREs (38% and 49%, respectively; P .03). No survival benefit was observed with the addition of ZA. Use of other bisphosphonates pamidronate and clodronate did not have a similar degree of benefit.^38,39

A phase 3 study of 1904 patients found that denosumab was superior to ZA in delaying the time to first on-study SRE (HR, 0.82; 95% CI, 0.71-0.95) and reducing rates of multiple SREs (HR, 0.82; 95% CI, 0.71-0.94).⁴⁰ This was later confirmed with an additional study that demonstrated treatment with denosumab significantly reduced the risk of developing a first symptomatic SRE, defined as a pathologic fracture, spinal cord compression, necessity for radiation, or surgery (HR, 0.78; 95% CI, 0.66-0.93; P = .005) and first and subsequent symptomatic SREs (rate ratio, 0.78; 95% CI, 0.65-0.92; P = .004) compared with ZA.²⁸ These findings suggest a continued role of denosumab in the treatment of advanced metastatic CRPC from both control of bone disease as well as quality of life and palliation of cancer-related symptoms.

Radium-223 dichloride (radium-223) is an α-emitting radionuclide for treatment of metastatic CRPC with bone metastasis, but otherwise no additional metastatic sites. Radium-223 is a calcium-mimetic that preferentially accumulates into areas of high-bone turnover, such as where bone metastases tend to occur. Radium-223 induces apoptosis of tumor cells through double-stranded DNA breaks. Studies have shown radium-223 to prolong OS and time-to-first symptomatic SRE.⁴¹ The ERA-223 trial showed that when radium-223 was combined with abiraterone acetate, there was an increase in fragility fracture risk compared with placebo combined with abiraterone. Data from the study revealed that the median symptomatic SRE-free survival was 22.3 months (95% CI, 20.4-24.8) in the radium-223 group and 26.0 months (21.8-28.3) in the placebo group. Concurrent treatment with abiraterone acetate plus prednisone or prednisolone and radium-223 was associated with increased fracture risk. Osteoporotic fractures were the most common type of fracture in the radium-223 group and of all fracture types, differed the most between the study groups.⁴²

Conclusions

Convincing evidence supports the ongoing use of bisphosphonates and denosumab in patients with osteoporosis, significant osteopenia with risk factors, and in patients with CRPC with bone metastasis. Bone metastases can cause considerable morbidity and mortality among men with advanced PC. Pain, fracture, and neurologic injury can occur with metastatic bone lesions as well as with ADT-related bone loss. Prevention of SREs in patients with PC is a reasonable goal in PC survivors while being mindful of managing the risks of these therapies.

Prostate cancer (PC) is the most commonly and newly diagnosed nonskin cancer and the second leading cause of cancer death in men in the United States. About 191,930 cases and about 33,330 deaths from PC were expected for the year 2020.¹ About 1 in 41 men will die of PC. Most men diagnosed with PC are aged > 65 years and do not die of their disease. The 5-year survival rate of localized and regional disease is nearly 100%, and disease with distant metastases is 31%. As a result, more than 3.1 million men in the United States who have been diagnosed with PC are still alive today.¹ Among veterans, there is a substantial population living with PC. Skolarus and Hawley reported in 2014 that an estimated 200,000 veterans with PC were survivors and 12,000 were newly diagnosed.²

In PC, skeletal strength can be affected by several factors, such as aging, malnutrition, androgen-deprivation therapy (ADT), and bone metastasis.^3,4 In fact, most men can live the rest of their life with PC by using strategies to monitor and treat it, once it shows either radiographic or chemical signs of progression.⁵ ADT is the standard of care to treat hormone-sensitive PC, which is associated with significant skeletal-related adverse effects (AEs).^6,7

Men undergoing ADT are 4 times more likely to develop substantial bone deficiency, Shahinian and colleagues found that in men surviving 5 years after PC diagnosis, 19.4% of those who received ADT had a fracture compared with 12% in men who did not (P < .001). The authors established a significant relation between the number of doses of gonadotropin-releasing hormone given in the first 12 months and the risk of fracture.⁸ Of those who progressed to metastatic disease, the first metastatic nonnodal site is most commonly to the bone.⁹ Advanced PC is characterized by increased bone turnover, which further raises concerns for bone health and patient performance.¹⁰

Skeletal-related events (SREs) include pathologic fracture, spinal cord compression, palliative radiation, or surgery to bone, and change in antineoplastic therapy secondary to bone pain. The concept of bone health refers to the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of idiopathic, pathogenic, and treatment-related bone loss and delay or prevention of SREs.^6,11 Guidelines and expert groups have recommended screening for osteoporosis at the start of ADT with bone mineral density testing, ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, modifying lifestyle behaviors (smoking cessation, alcohol moderation, and regular exercise), and prescribing bisphosphonates or receptor-activated nuclear factor κ-B ligand inhibitor, denosumab, for men with osteoporosis or who are at general high-fracture risk.^12,13 The overuse of these medications results in undue cost to patients as well as AEs, such as osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ), hypocalcemia, and bone/joint pains.^14-17 There are evidence-based guidelines for appropriate use of bisphosphonates and denosumab for delay and prevention of SREs in the setting of advanced PC.¹⁸ These doses also typically differ in frequency to those of osteoporosis.¹⁹ We summarize the evidence and guidance for health care providers who care for patients with PC at various stages and complications from both disease-related and treatment-related comorbidities.

Bone-Strengthening Agents

Overall, there is evidence to support the use of bone-strengthening agents in patients with osteopenia/osteoporosis in the prevention of SREs with significant risk factors for progressive bone demineralization, such as lifestyle factors and, in particular, treatments such as ADT. Bone-remodeling agents for treatment of bony metastasis have been shown to provide therapeutic advantage only in limited instances in the castration-resistant PC (CRPC) setting. Hence, in patients with hormone-sensitive PC due to medication-related AEs, treatment with bone-strengthening agents is indicated only if the patient has a significant preexisting risk for fracture from osteopenia/osteoporosis (Table). The Figure depicts an algorithm for the management of bone health in men with PC who are being treated with ADT.

Denosumab and bisphosphonates have an established role in preventing SREs in metastatic CRPC.²⁰ The choice of denosumab or a bisphosphonate typically varies based on the indication, possible AEs, and cost of therapy. There are multiple studies involving initiation of these agents at various stages of disease to improve both time to progression as well as management of SREs. There is a lack of evidence that bisphosphonates prevent metastatic-bone lesions in castration-sensitive PC; therefore, prophylactic use of this agent is not recommended in patients unless they have significant bone demineralization.^21,22

Bone Health in Patients

Nonmetastatic Hormone-Sensitive PC

ADT forms the backbone of treatment for patients with local and advanced metastatic castration-sensitive PC along with surgical and focal radiotherapy options. Cancer treatment-induced bone loss is known to occur with prolonged use of ADT. The ZEUS trial found no prevention of bone metastasis in patients with high-risk localized PC with the use of ZA in the absence of bone metastasis. A Kaplan-Meier estimated proportion of bone metastases after a median follow-up of 4.8 years was found to be not statistically significant: 14.7% in the ZA group vs 13.2% in the control/placebo group.²⁹ The STAMPEDE trial showed no significant overall survival (OS) benefit with the addition of ZA to ADT vs ADT alone (HR, 0.94; 95% CI, 0.79-1.11; P = .45), 5-year survival with ADT alone was 55% compared to ADT plus ZA with 57% 5-year survival.³⁰ The RADAR trial showed that at 5 years in high Gleason score patients, use of ZA in the absence of bone metastasis was beneficial, but not in low- or intermediate-risk patients. However, at 10-year analysis there was no significant difference in any of the high-stratified groups with or without ZA.³¹

The PR04 trial showed no effect on OS with clodronate compared with placebo in nonmetastatic castration-sensitive PC, with a HR of 1.12 (95% CI, 0.89-1.42; P = .94). The estimated 5-year survival was 80% with placebo and 78% with clodronate; 10-year survival rates were 51% with placebo and 48% with clodronate.³² Data from the HALT trial showed an increased bone mineral density and reduced risk of new vertebral fractures vs placebo (1.5% vs 3.9%, respectively) in the absence of metastatic bone lesions and a reduction in new vertebral fractures in patients with nonmetastatic PC.³³ Most of these studies showed no benefit with the addition of ZA to nonmetastatic PC; although, the HALT trial provides evidence to support use of denosumab in patients with nonmetastatic PC for preventing vertebral fragility fractures in men receiving ADT.

Metastatic Hormone-Sensitive PC

ZA is often used to treat men with metastatic castration-sensitive PC despite limited efficacy and safety data. The CALGB 90202 (Alliance) trial authors found that the early use of ZA was not associated with increased time to first SRE. The median time to first SRE was 31.9 months in the ZA group (95% CI, 24.2-40.3) and 29.8 months in the placebo group (stratified HR, 0.97; 95% CI, 0-1.17; 1-sided stratified log-rank P = .39).³⁴ OS was similar between the groups (HR, 0.88; 95% CI, 0.70-1.12; P = .29) as were reported AEs.³⁴ Results from these studies suggest limited benefit in treating patients with metastatic hormone-sensitive PC with bisphosphonates without other medical indications for use. Additional studies suggest similar results for treatment with denosumab to that of bisphosphonate therapies.³⁵

Nonmetastatic CRPC

Reasonable interest among treating clinicians exists to be able to delay or prevent the development of metastatic bone disease in patients who are showing biochemical signs of castration resistance but have not yet developed distant metastatic disease. Time to progression on ADT to castration resistance usually occurs 2 to 3 years following initiation of treatment. This typically occurs in patients with rising prostate-specific antigen (PSA). As per the Prostate Cancer Working Group 3, in the absence of radiologic progression, CRPC is defined by a 25% increase from the nadir (considering a starting value of ≥ 1 ng/mL), with a minimum rise of 2 ng/mL in the setting of castrate serum testosterone < 50 ng/dL despite good adherence to an ADT regimen, with proven serologic castration either by undetectable or a near undetectable nadir of serum testosterone concentration. Therapeutic implications include prevention of SREs as well as time to metastatic bone lesions. The Zometa 704 trial examined the use of ZA to reduce time to first metastatic bone lesion in the setting of patients with nonmetastatic CRPC.³⁶ The trial was discontinued prematurely due to low patient accrual, but initial analysis provided information on the natural history of a rising PSA in this patient population. At 2 years, one-third of patients had developed bone metastases. Median bone metastasis-free survival was 30 months. Median time to first bone metastasis and OS were not reached. Baseline PSA and PSA velocity independently predicted a shorter time to first bone metastasis, metastasis-free survival, and OS.³⁶

Denosumab was also studied in the setting of nonmetastatic CRPC in the Denosumab 147 trial. The study enrolled 1432 patients and found a significantly increased bone metastasis-free survival by a median of 4.2 months over placebo (HR, 0.85; 95% CI, 0.73-0.98; P = .03). Denosumab significantly delayed time to first bone metastasis (HR, 0.84; 95% CI, 0.71-0.98; P = .03). OS was similar between groups (HR, 1.01; 95% CI, 0.85-1.20; P = .91). Rates of AEs and serious AEs were similar between groups, except for ONJ and hypocalcemia. The rates of ONJ for denosumab were 1%, 3%, 4% in years 1,2, 3, respectively; overall, < 5% (n = 33). Hypocalcemia occurred in < 2% (n = 12) in denosumab-treated patients. The authors concluded that in men with CRPC, denosumab significantly prolonged bone metastasis–free survival and delayed time-to-bone metastasis.³⁷ These 2 studies suggest a role of receptor-activated nuclear factor κ-B ligand inhibitor denosumab in patients with nonmetastatic CRPC in the appropriate setting. There were delays in bony metastatic disease, but no difference in OS. Rare denosumab treatment–related specific AEs were noted. Hence, denosumab is not recommended for use in this setting.

Metastatic CRPC

Castration resistance typically occurs 2 to 3 years following initiation of ADT and the most common extranodal site of disease is within the bone in metastatic PC. Disease progression within bones after ADT can be challenging given both the nature of progressive cancer with osteoblastic metastatic lesions and the prolonged effects of ADT on unaffected bone. The Zometa 039 study compared ZA with placebo and found a significant difference in SREs (38% and 49%, respectively; P .03). No survival benefit was observed with the addition of ZA. Use of other bisphosphonates pamidronate and clodronate did not have a similar degree of benefit.^38,39

A phase 3 study of 1904 patients found that denosumab was superior to ZA in delaying the time to first on-study SRE (HR, 0.82; 95% CI, 0.71-0.95) and reducing rates of multiple SREs (HR, 0.82; 95% CI, 0.71-0.94).⁴⁰ This was later confirmed with an additional study that demonstrated treatment with denosumab significantly reduced the risk of developing a first symptomatic SRE, defined as a pathologic fracture, spinal cord compression, necessity for radiation, or surgery (HR, 0.78; 95% CI, 0.66-0.93; P = .005) and first and subsequent symptomatic SREs (rate ratio, 0.78; 95% CI, 0.65-0.92; P = .004) compared with ZA.²⁸ These findings suggest a continued role of denosumab in the treatment of advanced metastatic CRPC from both control of bone disease as well as quality of life and palliation of cancer-related symptoms.

Radium-223 dichloride (radium-223) is an α-emitting radionuclide for treatment of metastatic CRPC with bone metastasis, but otherwise no additional metastatic sites. Radium-223 is a calcium-mimetic that preferentially accumulates into areas of high-bone turnover, such as where bone metastases tend to occur. Radium-223 induces apoptosis of tumor cells through double-stranded DNA breaks. Studies have shown radium-223 to prolong OS and time-to-first symptomatic SRE.⁴¹ The ERA-223 trial showed that when radium-223 was combined with abiraterone acetate, there was an increase in fragility fracture risk compared with placebo combined with abiraterone. Data from the study revealed that the median symptomatic SRE-free survival was 22.3 months (95% CI, 20.4-24.8) in the radium-223 group and 26.0 months (21.8-28.3) in the placebo group. Concurrent treatment with abiraterone acetate plus prednisone or prednisolone and radium-223 was associated with increased fracture risk. Osteoporotic fractures were the most common type of fracture in the radium-223 group and of all fracture types, differed the most between the study groups.⁴²

Conclusions

Convincing evidence supports the ongoing use of bisphosphonates and denosumab in patients with osteoporosis, significant osteopenia with risk factors, and in patients with CRPC with bone metastasis. Bone metastases can cause considerable morbidity and mortality among men with advanced PC. Pain, fracture, and neurologic injury can occur with metastatic bone lesions as well as with ADT-related bone loss. Prevention of SREs in patients with PC is a reasonable goal in PC survivors while being mindful of managing the risks of these therapies.