Case Reports

THE CASE

A 56-year-old white man presented at our dental clinic for routine care. The intraoral examination revealed an asymptomatic red lesion with white vesicle-like areas on the right side of the soft palate (FIGURE). The extraoral examination was normal, and regional lymph nodes were nonpalpable. The patient’s medical history included liver cirrhosis and pancreatitis. He also had a 30-year history of alcohol misuse (1-5 drinks per day) and a 30-pack-year smoking history. (The patient had stopped drinking at the time of presentation, and had quit smoking 2 years earlier.) We instructed him to gargle with warm salt water at home and return in 2 weeks. At follow-up, the lesion was unresolved, so a biopsy was performed.

THE DIAGNOSIS

The clinical diagnosis was erythroplakia. Trauma from food burn and inflammation of the salivary gland were both considered, but ultimately ruled out due to lack of symptoms and persistence of the lesion after 14 days. The pathology report confirmed a diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) in situ. Based on the pathology report, we referred the patient to an oral surgeon for wide surgical excision with evaluation of the margins.

Because of its location and subtle presentation, the lesion could have been easily overlooked, underscoring the importance of routinely going beyond dentition to examine the soft tissues of the mouth.

DISCUSSION

SCC is the most common cancer found in the oral cavity, accounting for 90% of all oral malignancies.^1,2 Other malignancies include lymphomas, sarcomas, melanomas, salivary gland neoplasms, and metastasis from other sites.^3,4 Predisposing factors include tobacco use (namely inhaled methods and chewing tobacco), alcohol misuse, human papillomavirus infection, and chewing betel nut.^1,5 (Betel nuts grow on a species of palm tree mainly found in India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh. They are commonly chewed for their caffeine-like effect and are known to be carcinogenic.)

Presentation. SCC of the oral cavity can have various presentations. The lesion can appear as white, red, a mix of white and red, as a mass, or as a nonhealing ulcer. While some patients may be asymptomatic (as was ours), some may have signs and symptoms such as pain, bleeding, difficulty swallowing, difficulty wearing dentures, or a neck mass.⁶ A history of smoking and alcohol misuse, which was present in this case, should heighten suspicion and prompt further investigation of oral lesions.

Location. The most common intraoral site for oral cancer is the tongue (on the posterolateral border) followed by the floor of the mouth. Other common sites in descending order are the soft palate, gingiva, buccal mucosa, labial mucosa, and hard palate.¹ (Our patient’s lesion was on the border of the hard and soft palate).

Treatment of oral cancer is surgical. In some cases, depending on the stage and size of the tumor, radiation and chemotherapy may be considered.^3,5 Approximately two-thirds of oral cancers are detected in the later stages.⁷ The 5-year survival rate for people with oral SCC found at stages III or IV ranges from 32% to 45%, while the rate for those with SCC detected at stages I or II is 58% to 72%.¹ Patients with a history of oral cancer have a 20-fold increased risk of a recurrence in the oral cavity or of developing cancer in the surrounding areas, such as the larynx, esophagus, and lungs, underscoring the necessity of adequate follow-up in these patients.^2,3,5

Who is at risk?

In 2015, there were an estimated 45,780 new cases of oral cavity and pharyngeal cancer and 8650 deaths from these causes.⁸ Although oral cancer accounts for only 3% of all cancers in the United States, it is the eighth most common cancer in males and the 15^th most common in females.¹ Prevalence differs tremendously by location, however. In India, for example, oral cancer accounts for 30% of all cancers.⁹ Regardless of location, incidence increases with age; 62 is the average age at diagnosis.² Oral cancers are also more common among African Americans than among Caucasians.^1,3,5

Smokers are 2 to 3 times more likely to develop oral cancer than nonsmokers.¹ This risk increases with amount and duration of smoking.¹ The combination of smoking and alcohol use has a synergistic effect, increasing the likelihood of developing oral cancer 15 fold.^1,3

Alcohol use. Among male patients with oral cancer, one-third are heavy alcohol users.¹ In fact, one study found that 20% of these patients have cirrhosis of the liver.¹ Thus, it makes good clinical sense to routinely examine the soft tissue of the oral cavity for abnormalities in patients with alcohol-induced cirrhosis of the liver.

The combination of smoking and alcohol use has a synergistic effect, increasing the likelihood of developing oral cancer 15 fold.

Our patient. We placed our patient on a 3-month recall and stressed the importance of not smoking. The patient had surgery and a good outcome was documented. The patient indicated at follow-up that he’d started drinking again and was referred for counseling.

TAKEAWAY

It’s important to pay attention to color differences in the oral cavity on routine visits, particularly in patients with known risk factors for SCC. Patients with a lesion in the oral cavity should be seen again within 2 weeks. If the lesion is unresolved, the patient should be referred for further examination and/or biopsy. The possibility of recurrent oral cancer or cancer in the surrounding areas makes these patients good candidates for frequent follow-up examinations.

We strongly suggest that primary care physicians encourage their patients with the known predisposing risk factors of tobacco use and chronic alcohol misuse to quit these habits, visit their dentists for annual oral cancer screenings, and report any oral symptoms promptly to their medical and/or dental care providers. The asymptomatic nature of many of these lesions underscores the importance of following this advice. As is the case with most other cancers, survival rate is dependent on the stage of the disease at diagnosis.

THE CASE

A 56-year-old white man presented at our dental clinic for routine care. The intraoral examination revealed an asymptomatic red lesion with white vesicle-like areas on the right side of the soft palate (FIGURE). The extraoral examination was normal, and regional lymph nodes were nonpalpable. The patient’s medical history included liver cirrhosis and pancreatitis. He also had a 30-year history of alcohol misuse (1-5 drinks per day) and a 30-pack-year smoking history. (The patient had stopped drinking at the time of presentation, and had quit smoking 2 years earlier.) We instructed him to gargle with warm salt water at home and return in 2 weeks. At follow-up, the lesion was unresolved, so a biopsy was performed.

THE DIAGNOSIS

The clinical diagnosis was erythroplakia. Trauma from food burn and inflammation of the salivary gland were both considered, but ultimately ruled out due to lack of symptoms and persistence of the lesion after 14 days. The pathology report confirmed a diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) in situ. Based on the pathology report, we referred the patient to an oral surgeon for wide surgical excision with evaluation of the margins.

Because of its location and subtle presentation, the lesion could have been easily overlooked, underscoring the importance of routinely going beyond dentition to examine the soft tissues of the mouth.

DISCUSSION

SCC is the most common cancer found in the oral cavity, accounting for 90% of all oral malignancies.^1,2 Other malignancies include lymphomas, sarcomas, melanomas, salivary gland neoplasms, and metastasis from other sites.^3,4 Predisposing factors include tobacco use (namely inhaled methods and chewing tobacco), alcohol misuse, human papillomavirus infection, and chewing betel nut.^1,5 (Betel nuts grow on a species of palm tree mainly found in India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh. They are commonly chewed for their caffeine-like effect and are known to be carcinogenic.)

Presentation. SCC of the oral cavity can have various presentations. The lesion can appear as white, red, a mix of white and red, as a mass, or as a nonhealing ulcer. While some patients may be asymptomatic (as was ours), some may have signs and symptoms such as pain, bleeding, difficulty swallowing, difficulty wearing dentures, or a neck mass.⁶ A history of smoking and alcohol misuse, which was present in this case, should heighten suspicion and prompt further investigation of oral lesions.

Location. The most common intraoral site for oral cancer is the tongue (on the posterolateral border) followed by the floor of the mouth. Other common sites in descending order are the soft palate, gingiva, buccal mucosa, labial mucosa, and hard palate.¹ (Our patient’s lesion was on the border of the hard and soft palate).

Treatment of oral cancer is surgical. In some cases, depending on the stage and size of the tumor, radiation and chemotherapy may be considered.^3,5 Approximately two-thirds of oral cancers are detected in the later stages.⁷ The 5-year survival rate for people with oral SCC found at stages III or IV ranges from 32% to 45%, while the rate for those with SCC detected at stages I or II is 58% to 72%.¹ Patients with a history of oral cancer have a 20-fold increased risk of a recurrence in the oral cavity or of developing cancer in the surrounding areas, such as the larynx, esophagus, and lungs, underscoring the necessity of adequate follow-up in these patients.^2,3,5

Who is at risk?

In 2015, there were an estimated 45,780 new cases of oral cavity and pharyngeal cancer and 8650 deaths from these causes.⁸ Although oral cancer accounts for only 3% of all cancers in the United States, it is the eighth most common cancer in males and the 15^th most common in females.¹ Prevalence differs tremendously by location, however. In India, for example, oral cancer accounts for 30% of all cancers.⁹ Regardless of location, incidence increases with age; 62 is the average age at diagnosis.² Oral cancers are also more common among African Americans than among Caucasians.^1,3,5

Smokers are 2 to 3 times more likely to develop oral cancer than nonsmokers.¹ This risk increases with amount and duration of smoking.¹ The combination of smoking and alcohol use has a synergistic effect, increasing the likelihood of developing oral cancer 15 fold.^1,3

Alcohol use. Among male patients with oral cancer, one-third are heavy alcohol users.¹ In fact, one study found that 20% of these patients have cirrhosis of the liver.¹ Thus, it makes good clinical sense to routinely examine the soft tissue of the oral cavity for abnormalities in patients with alcohol-induced cirrhosis of the liver.

The combination of smoking and alcohol use has a synergistic effect, increasing the likelihood of developing oral cancer 15 fold.

Our patient. We placed our patient on a 3-month recall and stressed the importance of not smoking. The patient had surgery and a good outcome was documented. The patient indicated at follow-up that he’d started drinking again and was referred for counseling.

TAKEAWAY

It’s important to pay attention to color differences in the oral cavity on routine visits, particularly in patients with known risk factors for SCC. Patients with a lesion in the oral cavity should be seen again within 2 weeks. If the lesion is unresolved, the patient should be referred for further examination and/or biopsy. The possibility of recurrent oral cancer or cancer in the surrounding areas makes these patients good candidates for frequent follow-up examinations.

We strongly suggest that primary care physicians encourage their patients with the known predisposing risk factors of tobacco use and chronic alcohol misuse to quit these habits, visit their dentists for annual oral cancer screenings, and report any oral symptoms promptly to their medical and/or dental care providers. The asymptomatic nature of many of these lesions underscores the importance of following this advice. As is the case with most other cancers, survival rate is dependent on the stage of the disease at diagnosis.

THE CASE

A 56-year-old white man presented at our dental clinic for routine care. The intraoral examination revealed an asymptomatic red lesion with white vesicle-like areas on the right side of the soft palate (FIGURE). The extraoral examination was normal, and regional lymph nodes were nonpalpable. The patient’s medical history included liver cirrhosis and pancreatitis. He also had a 30-year history of alcohol misuse (1-5 drinks per day) and a 30-pack-year smoking history. (The patient had stopped drinking at the time of presentation, and had quit smoking 2 years earlier.) We instructed him to gargle with warm salt water at home and return in 2 weeks. At follow-up, the lesion was unresolved, so a biopsy was performed.

THE DIAGNOSIS

The clinical diagnosis was erythroplakia. Trauma from food burn and inflammation of the salivary gland were both considered, but ultimately ruled out due to lack of symptoms and persistence of the lesion after 14 days. The pathology report confirmed a diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) in situ. Based on the pathology report, we referred the patient to an oral surgeon for wide surgical excision with evaluation of the margins.

Because of its location and subtle presentation, the lesion could have been easily overlooked, underscoring the importance of routinely going beyond dentition to examine the soft tissues of the mouth.

DISCUSSION

SCC is the most common cancer found in the oral cavity, accounting for 90% of all oral malignancies.^1,2 Other malignancies include lymphomas, sarcomas, melanomas, salivary gland neoplasms, and metastasis from other sites.^3,4 Predisposing factors include tobacco use (namely inhaled methods and chewing tobacco), alcohol misuse, human papillomavirus infection, and chewing betel nut.^1,5 (Betel nuts grow on a species of palm tree mainly found in India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh. They are commonly chewed for their caffeine-like effect and are known to be carcinogenic.)

Presentation. SCC of the oral cavity can have various presentations. The lesion can appear as white, red, a mix of white and red, as a mass, or as a nonhealing ulcer. While some patients may be asymptomatic (as was ours), some may have signs and symptoms such as pain, bleeding, difficulty swallowing, difficulty wearing dentures, or a neck mass.⁶ A history of smoking and alcohol misuse, which was present in this case, should heighten suspicion and prompt further investigation of oral lesions.

Location. The most common intraoral site for oral cancer is the tongue (on the posterolateral border) followed by the floor of the mouth. Other common sites in descending order are the soft palate, gingiva, buccal mucosa, labial mucosa, and hard palate.¹ (Our patient’s lesion was on the border of the hard and soft palate).

Treatment of oral cancer is surgical. In some cases, depending on the stage and size of the tumor, radiation and chemotherapy may be considered.^3,5 Approximately two-thirds of oral cancers are detected in the later stages.⁷ The 5-year survival rate for people with oral SCC found at stages III or IV ranges from 32% to 45%, while the rate for those with SCC detected at stages I or II is 58% to 72%.¹ Patients with a history of oral cancer have a 20-fold increased risk of a recurrence in the oral cavity or of developing cancer in the surrounding areas, such as the larynx, esophagus, and lungs, underscoring the necessity of adequate follow-up in these patients.^2,3,5

Who is at risk?

In 2015, there were an estimated 45,780 new cases of oral cavity and pharyngeal cancer and 8650 deaths from these causes.⁸ Although oral cancer accounts for only 3% of all cancers in the United States, it is the eighth most common cancer in males and the 15^th most common in females.¹ Prevalence differs tremendously by location, however. In India, for example, oral cancer accounts for 30% of all cancers.⁹ Regardless of location, incidence increases with age; 62 is the average age at diagnosis.² Oral cancers are also more common among African Americans than among Caucasians.^1,3,5

Smokers are 2 to 3 times more likely to develop oral cancer than nonsmokers.¹ This risk increases with amount and duration of smoking.¹ The combination of smoking and alcohol use has a synergistic effect, increasing the likelihood of developing oral cancer 15 fold.^1,3

Alcohol use. Among male patients with oral cancer, one-third are heavy alcohol users.¹ In fact, one study found that 20% of these patients have cirrhosis of the liver.¹ Thus, it makes good clinical sense to routinely examine the soft tissue of the oral cavity for abnormalities in patients with alcohol-induced cirrhosis of the liver.

The combination of smoking and alcohol use has a synergistic effect, increasing the likelihood of developing oral cancer 15 fold.

Our patient. We placed our patient on a 3-month recall and stressed the importance of not smoking. The patient had surgery and a good outcome was documented. The patient indicated at follow-up that he’d started drinking again and was referred for counseling.

TAKEAWAY

It’s important to pay attention to color differences in the oral cavity on routine visits, particularly in patients with known risk factors for SCC. Patients with a lesion in the oral cavity should be seen again within 2 weeks. If the lesion is unresolved, the patient should be referred for further examination and/or biopsy. The possibility of recurrent oral cancer or cancer in the surrounding areas makes these patients good candidates for frequent follow-up examinations.

We strongly suggest that primary care physicians encourage their patients with the known predisposing risk factors of tobacco use and chronic alcohol misuse to quit these habits, visit their dentists for annual oral cancer screenings, and report any oral symptoms promptly to their medical and/or dental care providers. The asymptomatic nature of many of these lesions underscores the importance of following this advice. As is the case with most other cancers, survival rate is dependent on the stage of the disease at diagnosis.

Atypical fibroxanthoma (AFX) is a low-grade dermal malignancy comprised of atypical spindle cells.¹ Classified as a superficial fibrohistiocytic tumor with intermediate malignant potential, AFX has an incidence of approximately 0.24% worldwide.² The tumor appears mainly on the head and neck in sun-exposed areas but can occur less frequently on the trunk and limbs in non–sun-exposed areas. There is a 70% to 80% predominance in men aged 69 to 77 years, with lesions primarily occurring in sun-exposed areas of the head and neck.³ A median period of 4 months between time of onset and time of diagnosis has been previously established.⁴

When AFX does occur in non–sun-exposed areas, it tends to be in a younger patient population. Clinically, it presents as a rather nondescript, firm, erythematous papule or nodule less than 2 cm in diameter. Atypical fibroxanthoma most often presents asymptomatically, but the tumor may ulcerate and bleed, though pain and pruritus are uncommon.5 Findings are nonspecific, and the diagnosis must be confirmed with biopsy, as it can resemble other common dermatological lesions. The pathogenesis of AFX has been controversial. Two different studies looked at AFX using electron microscopy and concluded that the tumor most closely resembled a myofibroblast,^6,7 which is consistent with current thinking today.

Atypical fibroxanthoma is believed to be associated with p53 mutation and is closely linked with exposure to UV radiation due to its predominance in sun-exposed areas. Other predisposing factors may include prior exposure to UV radiation, history of organ transplantation, immunosuppression, advanced age in men, and xeroderma pigmentosum. The differential diagnosis for AFX encompasses basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, Merkel cell carcinoma, adnexal tumor, and pyogenic granuloma.

Case Report

A 93-year-old man was referred to our clinic for treatment of erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp with photodynamic therapy (PDT). He had a more than 20-year history of multiple skin lesions including basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and actinic keratoses (AKs). For one year prior to the current presentation the patient had concerns of pustules, scaling, itching, and scabbing on the scalp. The patient admitted that the pruritus caused him to pick at the scabs on the scalp. He had previously been treated with lactic acid 12% neutralized with ammonium hydroxide, tacrolimus, and halobetasol, all to no avail.

On physical examination, the lesions appeared erosive with crusting and granulation tissue (Figure 1A). The presentation was consistent with erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp. Biopsy revealed granulation tissue. The patient underwent PDT and prednisone treatment with improvement. Additional biopsies revealed AKs. His condition improved with 2 PDT sessions but never fully cleared. During the PDT sessions, the patient reported intense unilateral headaches without visual changes. The headaches were intermittent and not apparently related to the treatments. He was referred for a temporal artery biopsy and rebiopsy of the remaining lesion on the scalp. The temporal artery biopsy was negative. The lesion that remained was a large nodule on the vertex scalp, and biopsy revealed AFX.

Immunohistochemical marker studies for S-100 and cytokeratin were negative. Invasion into subcutaneous fat was encountered (Figure 2A). Highly atypical spindle cells and mitoses were present (Figure 2B). Neoplastic cells were noted adjacent to nerve (Figure 2C). Excision of the lesion was curative, and his symptoms of pain and erosive pustular dermatosis resolved weeks thereafter (Figure 1B). The area of erosive pustular dermatosis was not excised, but symptoms resolved weeks following excision of the AFX.

Comment

Our case of AFX is unique due to the patient’s atypical presentation of severe pain. Because AFX usually presents asymptomatically, pain is an uncommon symptom. Based on the histologic findings in our case, we suspected that neural involvement of the tumor most likely explained the intense pain that our patient experienced.

The presence of erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp also is interesting in our case. This elderly man had an extensive history of actinic damage and had reported pustules, scaling, itching, and scabbing of the scalp. It is possible that erosive pustular dermatosis was superimposed over the tumor and could have been the reason that multiple biopsies were needed to eventually arrive at a diagnosis. The coexistence of the 2 entities suggests that the chronic actinic damage played a role in the etiology of both.

Classification
There is a question regarding nomenclature when discussing AFX. Atypical fibroxanthoma has been referred to as a variant of undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma, which is a type of soft tissue sarcoma. Atypical fibroxanthoma can be referred to as undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma if it is more than 2 cm in diameter, if it involves the fascia or subcutaneous tissue, or if there is evidence of necrosis.³ Atypical fibroxanthoma generally is confined to the head and neck region and usually is less than 2 cm in diameter. In this patient, the presentation was consistent with AFX, as there was evidence of necrosis and invasion into the subcutaneous fat. The fact that the lesion also appeared on the scalp further supported the diagnosis of AFX.

Pathology
Biopsy of AFX typically reveals a spindle cell proliferation that usually arises in the setting of profound actinic damage. The epidermis may or may not be ulcerated, and in most cases, it is seen in close proximity to the overlying epidermis but not arising from it.8 Classic AFX is composed of highly atypical histiocytelike (epithelioid) cells admixed with pleomorphic spindle cells and giant cells, all showing frequent mitoses including atypical ones.9 Several histologic subtypes of AFX have been described, including clear cell, granular cell, pigmented cell, chondroid, osteoid, osteoclastic, and the most common spindle cell subtype.9 Features that indicate potential aggressive behavior include infiltration into the subcutaneous tissue, vascular invasion, and presence of necrosis. A diagnosis of AFX is made by exclusion of other malignant neoplasms with similar morphology, namely spindle cell squamous cell carcinoma, spindle cell melanoma, and leiomyoscarcoma.9 As such, immunohistochemistry plays a critical role in distinguishing these lesions, as they arise as part of the differential diagnosis. A panel of immunohistochemical stains is helpful for diagnosis and commonly includes but is not limited to S-100, Melan-A, smooth muscle actin, desmin, and cytokeratin.

Sampling error is an inherent flaw in any biopsy specimen. The eventual diagnosis of AFX in our case supports the argument for multiple biopsies of an unknown lesion, seeing as the affected area was interpreted as both granulation tissue and AK prior to the eventual diagnosis. Repeat biopsies, especially if a lesion is nonhealing, often can help clinicians arrive at a definitive diagnosis.

Treatment
Different treatment options have been used to manage AFX. Mohs micrographic surgery is most often used because of its tissue-sparing potential, often giving the most cosmetically appealing result. Wide local excision is another surgical technique utilized, generally with fixed margins of at least 1 cm.¹⁰ Radiation at the tumor site is used as a treatment method but most often during cases of reoccurrence. Cryotherapy as well as electrodesiccation and curettage are possible treatment options but are not the standard of care.

Atypical fibroxanthoma (AFX) is a low-grade dermal malignancy comprised of atypical spindle cells.¹ Classified as a superficial fibrohistiocytic tumor with intermediate malignant potential, AFX has an incidence of approximately 0.24% worldwide.² The tumor appears mainly on the head and neck in sun-exposed areas but can occur less frequently on the trunk and limbs in non–sun-exposed areas. There is a 70% to 80% predominance in men aged 69 to 77 years, with lesions primarily occurring in sun-exposed areas of the head and neck.³ A median period of 4 months between time of onset and time of diagnosis has been previously established.⁴

When AFX does occur in non–sun-exposed areas, it tends to be in a younger patient population. Clinically, it presents as a rather nondescript, firm, erythematous papule or nodule less than 2 cm in diameter. Atypical fibroxanthoma most often presents asymptomatically, but the tumor may ulcerate and bleed, though pain and pruritus are uncommon.5 Findings are nonspecific, and the diagnosis must be confirmed with biopsy, as it can resemble other common dermatological lesions. The pathogenesis of AFX has been controversial. Two different studies looked at AFX using electron microscopy and concluded that the tumor most closely resembled a myofibroblast,^6,7 which is consistent with current thinking today.

Atypical fibroxanthoma is believed to be associated with p53 mutation and is closely linked with exposure to UV radiation due to its predominance in sun-exposed areas. Other predisposing factors may include prior exposure to UV radiation, history of organ transplantation, immunosuppression, advanced age in men, and xeroderma pigmentosum. The differential diagnosis for AFX encompasses basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, Merkel cell carcinoma, adnexal tumor, and pyogenic granuloma.

Case Report

A 93-year-old man was referred to our clinic for treatment of erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp with photodynamic therapy (PDT). He had a more than 20-year history of multiple skin lesions including basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and actinic keratoses (AKs). For one year prior to the current presentation the patient had concerns of pustules, scaling, itching, and scabbing on the scalp. The patient admitted that the pruritus caused him to pick at the scabs on the scalp. He had previously been treated with lactic acid 12% neutralized with ammonium hydroxide, tacrolimus, and halobetasol, all to no avail.

On physical examination, the lesions appeared erosive with crusting and granulation tissue (Figure 1A). The presentation was consistent with erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp. Biopsy revealed granulation tissue. The patient underwent PDT and prednisone treatment with improvement. Additional biopsies revealed AKs. His condition improved with 2 PDT sessions but never fully cleared. During the PDT sessions, the patient reported intense unilateral headaches without visual changes. The headaches were intermittent and not apparently related to the treatments. He was referred for a temporal artery biopsy and rebiopsy of the remaining lesion on the scalp. The temporal artery biopsy was negative. The lesion that remained was a large nodule on the vertex scalp, and biopsy revealed AFX.

Immunohistochemical marker studies for S-100 and cytokeratin were negative. Invasion into subcutaneous fat was encountered (Figure 2A). Highly atypical spindle cells and mitoses were present (Figure 2B). Neoplastic cells were noted adjacent to nerve (Figure 2C). Excision of the lesion was curative, and his symptoms of pain and erosive pustular dermatosis resolved weeks thereafter (Figure 1B). The area of erosive pustular dermatosis was not excised, but symptoms resolved weeks following excision of the AFX.

Comment

Our case of AFX is unique due to the patient’s atypical presentation of severe pain. Because AFX usually presents asymptomatically, pain is an uncommon symptom. Based on the histologic findings in our case, we suspected that neural involvement of the tumor most likely explained the intense pain that our patient experienced.

The presence of erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp also is interesting in our case. This elderly man had an extensive history of actinic damage and had reported pustules, scaling, itching, and scabbing of the scalp. It is possible that erosive pustular dermatosis was superimposed over the tumor and could have been the reason that multiple biopsies were needed to eventually arrive at a diagnosis. The coexistence of the 2 entities suggests that the chronic actinic damage played a role in the etiology of both.

Classification
There is a question regarding nomenclature when discussing AFX. Atypical fibroxanthoma has been referred to as a variant of undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma, which is a type of soft tissue sarcoma. Atypical fibroxanthoma can be referred to as undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma if it is more than 2 cm in diameter, if it involves the fascia or subcutaneous tissue, or if there is evidence of necrosis.³ Atypical fibroxanthoma generally is confined to the head and neck region and usually is less than 2 cm in diameter. In this patient, the presentation was consistent with AFX, as there was evidence of necrosis and invasion into the subcutaneous fat. The fact that the lesion also appeared on the scalp further supported the diagnosis of AFX.

Pathology
Biopsy of AFX typically reveals a spindle cell proliferation that usually arises in the setting of profound actinic damage. The epidermis may or may not be ulcerated, and in most cases, it is seen in close proximity to the overlying epidermis but not arising from it.8 Classic AFX is composed of highly atypical histiocytelike (epithelioid) cells admixed with pleomorphic spindle cells and giant cells, all showing frequent mitoses including atypical ones.9 Several histologic subtypes of AFX have been described, including clear cell, granular cell, pigmented cell, chondroid, osteoid, osteoclastic, and the most common spindle cell subtype.9 Features that indicate potential aggressive behavior include infiltration into the subcutaneous tissue, vascular invasion, and presence of necrosis. A diagnosis of AFX is made by exclusion of other malignant neoplasms with similar morphology, namely spindle cell squamous cell carcinoma, spindle cell melanoma, and leiomyoscarcoma.9 As such, immunohistochemistry plays a critical role in distinguishing these lesions, as they arise as part of the differential diagnosis. A panel of immunohistochemical stains is helpful for diagnosis and commonly includes but is not limited to S-100, Melan-A, smooth muscle actin, desmin, and cytokeratin.

Sampling error is an inherent flaw in any biopsy specimen. The eventual diagnosis of AFX in our case supports the argument for multiple biopsies of an unknown lesion, seeing as the affected area was interpreted as both granulation tissue and AK prior to the eventual diagnosis. Repeat biopsies, especially if a lesion is nonhealing, often can help clinicians arrive at a definitive diagnosis.

Treatment
Different treatment options have been used to manage AFX. Mohs micrographic surgery is most often used because of its tissue-sparing potential, often giving the most cosmetically appealing result. Wide local excision is another surgical technique utilized, generally with fixed margins of at least 1 cm.¹⁰ Radiation at the tumor site is used as a treatment method but most often during cases of reoccurrence. Cryotherapy as well as electrodesiccation and curettage are possible treatment options but are not the standard of care.

Atypical fibroxanthoma (AFX) is a low-grade dermal malignancy comprised of atypical spindle cells.¹ Classified as a superficial fibrohistiocytic tumor with intermediate malignant potential, AFX has an incidence of approximately 0.24% worldwide.² The tumor appears mainly on the head and neck in sun-exposed areas but can occur less frequently on the trunk and limbs in non–sun-exposed areas. There is a 70% to 80% predominance in men aged 69 to 77 years, with lesions primarily occurring in sun-exposed areas of the head and neck.³ A median period of 4 months between time of onset and time of diagnosis has been previously established.⁴

When AFX does occur in non–sun-exposed areas, it tends to be in a younger patient population. Clinically, it presents as a rather nondescript, firm, erythematous papule or nodule less than 2 cm in diameter. Atypical fibroxanthoma most often presents asymptomatically, but the tumor may ulcerate and bleed, though pain and pruritus are uncommon.5 Findings are nonspecific, and the diagnosis must be confirmed with biopsy, as it can resemble other common dermatological lesions. The pathogenesis of AFX has been controversial. Two different studies looked at AFX using electron microscopy and concluded that the tumor most closely resembled a myofibroblast,^6,7 which is consistent with current thinking today.

Atypical fibroxanthoma is believed to be associated with p53 mutation and is closely linked with exposure to UV radiation due to its predominance in sun-exposed areas. Other predisposing factors may include prior exposure to UV radiation, history of organ transplantation, immunosuppression, advanced age in men, and xeroderma pigmentosum. The differential diagnosis for AFX encompasses basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, Merkel cell carcinoma, adnexal tumor, and pyogenic granuloma.

Case Report

A 93-year-old man was referred to our clinic for treatment of erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp with photodynamic therapy (PDT). He had a more than 20-year history of multiple skin lesions including basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and actinic keratoses (AKs). For one year prior to the current presentation the patient had concerns of pustules, scaling, itching, and scabbing on the scalp. The patient admitted that the pruritus caused him to pick at the scabs on the scalp. He had previously been treated with lactic acid 12% neutralized with ammonium hydroxide, tacrolimus, and halobetasol, all to no avail.

On physical examination, the lesions appeared erosive with crusting and granulation tissue (Figure 1A). The presentation was consistent with erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp. Biopsy revealed granulation tissue. The patient underwent PDT and prednisone treatment with improvement. Additional biopsies revealed AKs. His condition improved with 2 PDT sessions but never fully cleared. During the PDT sessions, the patient reported intense unilateral headaches without visual changes. The headaches were intermittent and not apparently related to the treatments. He was referred for a temporal artery biopsy and rebiopsy of the remaining lesion on the scalp. The temporal artery biopsy was negative. The lesion that remained was a large nodule on the vertex scalp, and biopsy revealed AFX.

Immunohistochemical marker studies for S-100 and cytokeratin were negative. Invasion into subcutaneous fat was encountered (Figure 2A). Highly atypical spindle cells and mitoses were present (Figure 2B). Neoplastic cells were noted adjacent to nerve (Figure 2C). Excision of the lesion was curative, and his symptoms of pain and erosive pustular dermatosis resolved weeks thereafter (Figure 1B). The area of erosive pustular dermatosis was not excised, but symptoms resolved weeks following excision of the AFX.

Comment

Our case of AFX is unique due to the patient’s atypical presentation of severe pain. Because AFX usually presents asymptomatically, pain is an uncommon symptom. Based on the histologic findings in our case, we suspected that neural involvement of the tumor most likely explained the intense pain that our patient experienced.

The presence of erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp also is interesting in our case. This elderly man had an extensive history of actinic damage and had reported pustules, scaling, itching, and scabbing of the scalp. It is possible that erosive pustular dermatosis was superimposed over the tumor and could have been the reason that multiple biopsies were needed to eventually arrive at a diagnosis. The coexistence of the 2 entities suggests that the chronic actinic damage played a role in the etiology of both.

Classification
There is a question regarding nomenclature when discussing AFX. Atypical fibroxanthoma has been referred to as a variant of undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma, which is a type of soft tissue sarcoma. Atypical fibroxanthoma can be referred to as undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma if it is more than 2 cm in diameter, if it involves the fascia or subcutaneous tissue, or if there is evidence of necrosis.³ Atypical fibroxanthoma generally is confined to the head and neck region and usually is less than 2 cm in diameter. In this patient, the presentation was consistent with AFX, as there was evidence of necrosis and invasion into the subcutaneous fat. The fact that the lesion also appeared on the scalp further supported the diagnosis of AFX.

Pathology
Biopsy of AFX typically reveals a spindle cell proliferation that usually arises in the setting of profound actinic damage. The epidermis may or may not be ulcerated, and in most cases, it is seen in close proximity to the overlying epidermis but not arising from it.8 Classic AFX is composed of highly atypical histiocytelike (epithelioid) cells admixed with pleomorphic spindle cells and giant cells, all showing frequent mitoses including atypical ones.9 Several histologic subtypes of AFX have been described, including clear cell, granular cell, pigmented cell, chondroid, osteoid, osteoclastic, and the most common spindle cell subtype.9 Features that indicate potential aggressive behavior include infiltration into the subcutaneous tissue, vascular invasion, and presence of necrosis. A diagnosis of AFX is made by exclusion of other malignant neoplasms with similar morphology, namely spindle cell squamous cell carcinoma, spindle cell melanoma, and leiomyoscarcoma.9 As such, immunohistochemistry plays a critical role in distinguishing these lesions, as they arise as part of the differential diagnosis. A panel of immunohistochemical stains is helpful for diagnosis and commonly includes but is not limited to S-100, Melan-A, smooth muscle actin, desmin, and cytokeratin.

Sampling error is an inherent flaw in any biopsy specimen. The eventual diagnosis of AFX in our case supports the argument for multiple biopsies of an unknown lesion, seeing as the affected area was interpreted as both granulation tissue and AK prior to the eventual diagnosis. Repeat biopsies, especially if a lesion is nonhealing, often can help clinicians arrive at a definitive diagnosis.

Treatment
Different treatment options have been used to manage AFX. Mohs micrographic surgery is most often used because of its tissue-sparing potential, often giving the most cosmetically appealing result. Wide local excision is another surgical technique utilized, generally with fixed margins of at least 1 cm.¹⁰ Radiation at the tumor site is used as a treatment method but most often during cases of reoccurrence. Cryotherapy as well as electrodesiccation and curettage are possible treatment options but are not the standard of care.

Take-Home Points

• Prevalence of the medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament is 1% to 4%.
• It is important to distinguish this ligament from a meniscus tear on MRI.
• The functional characteristics of this ligament are not well understood.
• What may appear to be a meniscal tear in a younger patient could be a medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament.
• Dr. Flanigan recommends leaving the ligament intact unless resection is needed to provide better visualization.

We report a case of aberrant meniscus attachment in the setting of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury. An anomalous cordlike attachment ran from the anterior horn of the medial meniscus to the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus through the intercondylar notch. This attachment was previously named the medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament1 but has seldom been reported in the literature. Prevalence is 1% to 4%.^1,2 This case was treated at Ohio State University Wexner Medical Center in Columbus. The patient provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

Case Report

An 18-year-old man presented with left knee pain after sustaining 2 injuries to the knee. The first injury occurred during a dodgeball game—when the knee buckled on landing from a jump. A “pop” was felt, and the knee swelled immediately. The second injury occurred about 3 months later, during soccer play. The patient was running when his foot slipped and caused the knee to buckle. Again, a “pop” was felt, and there was swelling. Mechanical symptoms of clicking then started. The patient reported no instability episodes. His medical history and family history were otherwise unremarkable. The patient was healthy and had a body mass index of 23.05 kg/m2.

Physical examination revealed no effusion, erythema, or warmth in the left knee. Range of motion was 0° to 135° in the left knee and 0° to 140° in the right knee. There was no pain on hyperextension of the knee or medial or lateral joint-line tenderness, but there was pain on hyperflexion, and the McMurray test was positive. Ligament examination was negative except for positive anterior drawer, Lachman, and pivot-shift tests.

Radiographs taken the day of the first clinic visit showed no acute osseous abnormality. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showed complete disruption of the proximal fibers of the ACL (Figures 1, 2). 

Also observed was a small oblique tear of the body of the lateral meniscus with slight blunting of the anterior horn of the medial meniscus, which may have been related to a small tear. A pivot-shift contusion pattern with impaction fracture of the lateral femoral condyle was also appreciated. There were no definite cartilage defects identified.

Discussion

The medial and lateral menisci typically are separate fibrocartilaginous structures acting as a cushion for the knee, but normal variant connections between the structures have been described. These connections include the anterior transverse meniscal ligament, the posterior transverse meniscal ligament, and the medial and lateral oblique meniscomeniscal ligaments.³ In the present case, a medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament was identified. Its path between menisci was traceable on coronal and axial views. Video taken during arthroscopy also clearly showed its path and its relationship to other structures in the knee. To Dr. Flanigan’s knowledge, this ligament was not previously described with video. It is important to distinguish this ligament from a horizontal tear of the meniscus, given the potential for misinterpretation on MRI. A horizontal tear is a degenerative change that often occurs in older patients. Our patient was 18 years old at time of injury. In addition, the surface of his lower meniscus was smooth, whereas in a tear the edge is irregular and discontinuous. Dr. Flanigan prefers to leave this ligament intact unless resection would provide better visualization during arthroscopy. His reasoning is that the functional characteristics of the ligament are not well understood.

There are few reports on the medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament.¹ Sanders and colleagues¹ found 3 cases of this normal variant. In the first, the ligament was interpreted as a flap tear on MRI; in the other 2 cases, the ligament was correctly identified. Kim and Laor² and Dervin and Paterson⁴ also described this variant in case reports.

There are many abnormalities of the meniscus. In our literature review, we found reports on various anomalies, including discoid meniscus,⁵ ring-shape meniscus,^6,7 accessory meniscus,⁸ double-layer meniscus,^9-12 abnormal band formation,^13,14 hypoplasia,¹⁵ Wrisberg meniscus,⁶ and congenital absence of meniscus.¹⁶ These variations have multifactorial causes, including congenital and developmental influences.

In a recent case report, Giordano and Goldblatt¹⁴ described an abnormal band of lateral meniscus extending from the posterior horn to the anterior-mid portion of the same meniscus. Lee and Min¹³ described the same band earlier, in a 2-patient case report.¹³ One patient presented symptomatically, nontraumatically, and the other with a posterior cruciate ligament tear. Each case was deemed congenital given the characteristic appearance and bilaterality of the anomaly.

In an 11-patient case series in Finland, Rainio and colleagues¹⁷ described an attachment from the anterior horn of the medial meniscus inserting into the ACL—a crescent band from the upper surface of the anterior horn that attached along the upper two thirds of the ACL.

At 2-year follow-up, our patient was doing well with rehabilitation and experienced only minimal symptoms. Radiologists and surgeons should be able to identify such variants. Knowing the common and rare variants, radiologists can help surgeons by identifying normal anatomy from pathology and providing a more clinically relevant report. Surgeons should be aware of the anatomical variability in the knee in order to provide the best care for their patients. 

Take-Home Points

• Prevalence of the medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament is 1% to 4%.
• It is important to distinguish this ligament from a meniscus tear on MRI.
• The functional characteristics of this ligament are not well understood.
• What may appear to be a meniscal tear in a younger patient could be a medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament.
• Dr. Flanigan recommends leaving the ligament intact unless resection is needed to provide better visualization.

We report a case of aberrant meniscus attachment in the setting of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury. An anomalous cordlike attachment ran from the anterior horn of the medial meniscus to the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus through the intercondylar notch. This attachment was previously named the medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament1 but has seldom been reported in the literature. Prevalence is 1% to 4%.^1,2 This case was treated at Ohio State University Wexner Medical Center in Columbus. The patient provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

Case Report

An 18-year-old man presented with left knee pain after sustaining 2 injuries to the knee. The first injury occurred during a dodgeball game—when the knee buckled on landing from a jump. A “pop” was felt, and the knee swelled immediately. The second injury occurred about 3 months later, during soccer play. The patient was running when his foot slipped and caused the knee to buckle. Again, a “pop” was felt, and there was swelling. Mechanical symptoms of clicking then started. The patient reported no instability episodes. His medical history and family history were otherwise unremarkable. The patient was healthy and had a body mass index of 23.05 kg/m2.

Physical examination revealed no effusion, erythema, or warmth in the left knee. Range of motion was 0° to 135° in the left knee and 0° to 140° in the right knee. There was no pain on hyperextension of the knee or medial or lateral joint-line tenderness, but there was pain on hyperflexion, and the McMurray test was positive. Ligament examination was negative except for positive anterior drawer, Lachman, and pivot-shift tests.

Radiographs taken the day of the first clinic visit showed no acute osseous abnormality. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showed complete disruption of the proximal fibers of the ACL (Figures 1, 2). 

Also observed was a small oblique tear of the body of the lateral meniscus with slight blunting of the anterior horn of the medial meniscus, which may have been related to a small tear. A pivot-shift contusion pattern with impaction fracture of the lateral femoral condyle was also appreciated. There were no definite cartilage defects identified.

Discussion

The medial and lateral menisci typically are separate fibrocartilaginous structures acting as a cushion for the knee, but normal variant connections between the structures have been described. These connections include the anterior transverse meniscal ligament, the posterior transverse meniscal ligament, and the medial and lateral oblique meniscomeniscal ligaments.³ In the present case, a medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament was identified. Its path between menisci was traceable on coronal and axial views. Video taken during arthroscopy also clearly showed its path and its relationship to other structures in the knee. To Dr. Flanigan’s knowledge, this ligament was not previously described with video. It is important to distinguish this ligament from a horizontal tear of the meniscus, given the potential for misinterpretation on MRI. A horizontal tear is a degenerative change that often occurs in older patients. Our patient was 18 years old at time of injury. In addition, the surface of his lower meniscus was smooth, whereas in a tear the edge is irregular and discontinuous. Dr. Flanigan prefers to leave this ligament intact unless resection would provide better visualization during arthroscopy. His reasoning is that the functional characteristics of the ligament are not well understood.

There are few reports on the medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament.¹ Sanders and colleagues¹ found 3 cases of this normal variant. In the first, the ligament was interpreted as a flap tear on MRI; in the other 2 cases, the ligament was correctly identified. Kim and Laor² and Dervin and Paterson⁴ also described this variant in case reports.

There are many abnormalities of the meniscus. In our literature review, we found reports on various anomalies, including discoid meniscus,⁵ ring-shape meniscus,^6,7 accessory meniscus,⁸ double-layer meniscus,^9-12 abnormal band formation,^13,14 hypoplasia,¹⁵ Wrisberg meniscus,⁶ and congenital absence of meniscus.¹⁶ These variations have multifactorial causes, including congenital and developmental influences.

In a recent case report, Giordano and Goldblatt¹⁴ described an abnormal band of lateral meniscus extending from the posterior horn to the anterior-mid portion of the same meniscus. Lee and Min¹³ described the same band earlier, in a 2-patient case report.¹³ One patient presented symptomatically, nontraumatically, and the other with a posterior cruciate ligament tear. Each case was deemed congenital given the characteristic appearance and bilaterality of the anomaly.

In an 11-patient case series in Finland, Rainio and colleagues¹⁷ described an attachment from the anterior horn of the medial meniscus inserting into the ACL—a crescent band from the upper surface of the anterior horn that attached along the upper two thirds of the ACL.

At 2-year follow-up, our patient was doing well with rehabilitation and experienced only minimal symptoms. Radiologists and surgeons should be able to identify such variants. Knowing the common and rare variants, radiologists can help surgeons by identifying normal anatomy from pathology and providing a more clinically relevant report. Surgeons should be aware of the anatomical variability in the knee in order to provide the best care for their patients. 

Take-Home Points

• Prevalence of the medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament is 1% to 4%.
• It is important to distinguish this ligament from a meniscus tear on MRI.
• The functional characteristics of this ligament are not well understood.
• What may appear to be a meniscal tear in a younger patient could be a medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament.
• Dr. Flanigan recommends leaving the ligament intact unless resection is needed to provide better visualization.

We report a case of aberrant meniscus attachment in the setting of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury. An anomalous cordlike attachment ran from the anterior horn of the medial meniscus to the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus through the intercondylar notch. This attachment was previously named the medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament1 but has seldom been reported in the literature. Prevalence is 1% to 4%.^1,2 This case was treated at Ohio State University Wexner Medical Center in Columbus. The patient provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

Case Report

An 18-year-old man presented with left knee pain after sustaining 2 injuries to the knee. The first injury occurred during a dodgeball game—when the knee buckled on landing from a jump. A “pop” was felt, and the knee swelled immediately. The second injury occurred about 3 months later, during soccer play. The patient was running when his foot slipped and caused the knee to buckle. Again, a “pop” was felt, and there was swelling. Mechanical symptoms of clicking then started. The patient reported no instability episodes. His medical history and family history were otherwise unremarkable. The patient was healthy and had a body mass index of 23.05 kg/m2.

Physical examination revealed no effusion, erythema, or warmth in the left knee. Range of motion was 0° to 135° in the left knee and 0° to 140° in the right knee. There was no pain on hyperextension of the knee or medial or lateral joint-line tenderness, but there was pain on hyperflexion, and the McMurray test was positive. Ligament examination was negative except for positive anterior drawer, Lachman, and pivot-shift tests.

Radiographs taken the day of the first clinic visit showed no acute osseous abnormality. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showed complete disruption of the proximal fibers of the ACL (Figures 1, 2). 

Also observed was a small oblique tear of the body of the lateral meniscus with slight blunting of the anterior horn of the medial meniscus, which may have been related to a small tear. A pivot-shift contusion pattern with impaction fracture of the lateral femoral condyle was also appreciated. There were no definite cartilage defects identified.

Discussion

The medial and lateral menisci typically are separate fibrocartilaginous structures acting as a cushion for the knee, but normal variant connections between the structures have been described. These connections include the anterior transverse meniscal ligament, the posterior transverse meniscal ligament, and the medial and lateral oblique meniscomeniscal ligaments.³ In the present case, a medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament was identified. Its path between menisci was traceable on coronal and axial views. Video taken during arthroscopy also clearly showed its path and its relationship to other structures in the knee. To Dr. Flanigan’s knowledge, this ligament was not previously described with video. It is important to distinguish this ligament from a horizontal tear of the meniscus, given the potential for misinterpretation on MRI. A horizontal tear is a degenerative change that often occurs in older patients. Our patient was 18 years old at time of injury. In addition, the surface of his lower meniscus was smooth, whereas in a tear the edge is irregular and discontinuous. Dr. Flanigan prefers to leave this ligament intact unless resection would provide better visualization during arthroscopy. His reasoning is that the functional characteristics of the ligament are not well understood.

There are few reports on the medial oblique meniscomeniscal ligament.¹ Sanders and colleagues¹ found 3 cases of this normal variant. In the first, the ligament was interpreted as a flap tear on MRI; in the other 2 cases, the ligament was correctly identified. Kim and Laor² and Dervin and Paterson⁴ also described this variant in case reports.

There are many abnormalities of the meniscus. In our literature review, we found reports on various anomalies, including discoid meniscus,⁵ ring-shape meniscus,^6,7 accessory meniscus,⁸ double-layer meniscus,^9-12 abnormal band formation,^13,14 hypoplasia,¹⁵ Wrisberg meniscus,⁶ and congenital absence of meniscus.¹⁶ These variations have multifactorial causes, including congenital and developmental influences.

In a recent case report, Giordano and Goldblatt¹⁴ described an abnormal band of lateral meniscus extending from the posterior horn to the anterior-mid portion of the same meniscus. Lee and Min¹³ described the same band earlier, in a 2-patient case report.¹³ One patient presented symptomatically, nontraumatically, and the other with a posterior cruciate ligament tear. Each case was deemed congenital given the characteristic appearance and bilaterality of the anomaly.

In an 11-patient case series in Finland, Rainio and colleagues¹⁷ described an attachment from the anterior horn of the medial meniscus inserting into the ACL—a crescent band from the upper surface of the anterior horn that attached along the upper two thirds of the ACL.

At 2-year follow-up, our patient was doing well with rehabilitation and experienced only minimal symptoms. Radiologists and surgeons should be able to identify such variants. Knowing the common and rare variants, radiologists can help surgeons by identifying normal anatomy from pathology and providing a more clinically relevant report. Surgeons should be aware of the anatomical variability in the knee in order to provide the best care for their patients. 

Imipramine is a tricyclic medication uncommonly used to treat depression, anxiety, and other psychiatric illnesses. Although relatively rare, it has been associated with hyperpigmentation of the skin including slate gray discoloration of sun-exposed areas.

We present the case of a 63-year-old woman who had been taking imipramine for more than 20 years when she developed bluish gray discoloration on the face and neck. Histopathology of biopsy specimens showed numerous perivascular and interstitial brown globules in the dermis that were composed of melanin only, as evidenced by positive Fontana-Masson staining and negative Perls Prussian blue staining. A diagnosis of imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation was made based on histopathology and clinical history.

In addition to the case presentation, we provide a review of drugs that commonly cause hyperpigmentation as well as their associated histopathologic staining characteristics.

Case Report

A 63-year-old woman presented with blue-gray discoloration on the face and neck. She first noted the discoloration on the left side of the forehead 3 years prior; it then spread to the right side of the forehead, cheeks, and neck. She denied pruritus, pain, redness, and scaling of the involved areas; any recent changes in medications; or the use of any topical products on the affected areas. Her medical history was remarkable for hypertension, which was inconsistently controlled with lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide, and depression, which had been managed with oral imipramine.

Physical examination disclosed blue-gray hyperpigmented patches with irregular borders on the bilateral forehead, temples, and periorbital skin (Figure 1). Reticulated brown patches were noted on the bilateral cheeks, and the neck displayed diffuse muddy brown patches with sparing of the submental areas.

Punch biopsies obtained from the lateral forehead showed an unremarkable epidermis with deposition of numerous golden brown granules in the upper and mid dermis and in perivascular macrophages (Figure 2). The pigmented granules showed positive staining with Fontana-Masson (Figure 3), and a Perls Prussian blue stain for hemosiderin was negative. Based on the clinical history, a diagnosis of imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation was made.

The patient revealed that she had taken imipramine for more than 20 years for depression as prescribed by her mental health professional. She had tried several other antidepressants but none were as effective as imipramine. Therefore, she was not willing to discontinue it despite the likelihood that the hyperpigmentation would persist and could worsen with continued use of the medication. Diligent photoprotection was advised. Additionally, she started taking lisinopril some time after the appearance of the hyperpigmentation presented and had not taken hydrochlorothiazide consistently for several years. Although these drugs are known to cause various cutaneous reactions, it was not considered likely in this case.

Comment

Drug-induced hyperpigmentation accounts for 10% to 20% of all cases of acquired hyperpigmentation.¹ Common causative drugs include amiodarone, antimalarials, minocycline, and rarely psychotropics including phenothiazines and tricyclic antidepressants such as imipramine.^1-4 Although amiodarone-induced hyperpigmentation is associated with lipofuscin in addition to melanin, most other medications, including imipramine, induce cutaneous effects through deposition of melanin and/or hemosiderin. A review of the histopathologic staining characteristics in pigment anomalies caused by these drugs is summarized in the Table.

Imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation presents as slate gray discrete macules and patches on sun-exposed skin that may appear anywhere from 2 to 22 years after initiating the medication.^1-4 Affected areas include the malar cheeks, temples, periorbital areas, hands, forearms, and seldom the iris and sclera.^2-4 Although the blue to slate gray coloring is classic, other colors have been described including brown, golden brown, and purple.²

Histopathology of imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation shows golden brown, round to oval granules in the superficial dermis and within dermal macrophages.^1,3 Generally, Fontana-Masson staining is positive for melanin and Perls Prussian blue staining is negative for iron.^1,2,4

Imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation likely results from photoexcitation of imipramine or one of its metabolites. These compounds activate tyrosinase, increasing melanogenesis and leading to formation of melanin-imipramine or melanin-metabolite complexes.^1-3 Complexes are deposited in the dermis and basal layer or are engulfed by dermal macrophages and darkened on sun exposure due to their high melanin content.¹ Other possible mechanisms of hyperpigmentation include nonspecific inflammation caused by the drug in the skin, hemosiderin deposition from vessel damage and subsequent erythrocyte extravasation, or deposition of newly formed pigments related to the drug.¹

Most patients report satisfactory resolution of imipramine-induced discoloration within 1 year of stopping imipramine or switching to a different antidepressant.^1,4 Patients who are unwilling to discontinue imipramine may achieve resolution with alexandrite or Q-switched ruby laser therapy.^1,4 Strict sun protective measures are necessary, both to prevent new deposition of melanin and to prevent darkening of existing pigment.

Despite the advent of new psychotropic medications, imipramine remains the antidepressant of choice for many patients. Although rare, it is important to be able to recognize imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation and to encourage patient-psychiatrist communication to determine an antidepressant regimen that avoids unnecessary cutaneous side effects.

Imipramine is a tricyclic medication uncommonly used to treat depression, anxiety, and other psychiatric illnesses. Although relatively rare, it has been associated with hyperpigmentation of the skin including slate gray discoloration of sun-exposed areas.

We present the case of a 63-year-old woman who had been taking imipramine for more than 20 years when she developed bluish gray discoloration on the face and neck. Histopathology of biopsy specimens showed numerous perivascular and interstitial brown globules in the dermis that were composed of melanin only, as evidenced by positive Fontana-Masson staining and negative Perls Prussian blue staining. A diagnosis of imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation was made based on histopathology and clinical history.

In addition to the case presentation, we provide a review of drugs that commonly cause hyperpigmentation as well as their associated histopathologic staining characteristics.

Case Report

A 63-year-old woman presented with blue-gray discoloration on the face and neck. She first noted the discoloration on the left side of the forehead 3 years prior; it then spread to the right side of the forehead, cheeks, and neck. She denied pruritus, pain, redness, and scaling of the involved areas; any recent changes in medications; or the use of any topical products on the affected areas. Her medical history was remarkable for hypertension, which was inconsistently controlled with lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide, and depression, which had been managed with oral imipramine.

Physical examination disclosed blue-gray hyperpigmented patches with irregular borders on the bilateral forehead, temples, and periorbital skin (Figure 1). Reticulated brown patches were noted on the bilateral cheeks, and the neck displayed diffuse muddy brown patches with sparing of the submental areas.

Punch biopsies obtained from the lateral forehead showed an unremarkable epidermis with deposition of numerous golden brown granules in the upper and mid dermis and in perivascular macrophages (Figure 2). The pigmented granules showed positive staining with Fontana-Masson (Figure 3), and a Perls Prussian blue stain for hemosiderin was negative. Based on the clinical history, a diagnosis of imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation was made.

The patient revealed that she had taken imipramine for more than 20 years for depression as prescribed by her mental health professional. She had tried several other antidepressants but none were as effective as imipramine. Therefore, she was not willing to discontinue it despite the likelihood that the hyperpigmentation would persist and could worsen with continued use of the medication. Diligent photoprotection was advised. Additionally, she started taking lisinopril some time after the appearance of the hyperpigmentation presented and had not taken hydrochlorothiazide consistently for several years. Although these drugs are known to cause various cutaneous reactions, it was not considered likely in this case.

Comment

Drug-induced hyperpigmentation accounts for 10% to 20% of all cases of acquired hyperpigmentation.¹ Common causative drugs include amiodarone, antimalarials, minocycline, and rarely psychotropics including phenothiazines and tricyclic antidepressants such as imipramine.^1-4 Although amiodarone-induced hyperpigmentation is associated with lipofuscin in addition to melanin, most other medications, including imipramine, induce cutaneous effects through deposition of melanin and/or hemosiderin. A review of the histopathologic staining characteristics in pigment anomalies caused by these drugs is summarized in the Table.

Imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation presents as slate gray discrete macules and patches on sun-exposed skin that may appear anywhere from 2 to 22 years after initiating the medication.^1-4 Affected areas include the malar cheeks, temples, periorbital areas, hands, forearms, and seldom the iris and sclera.^2-4 Although the blue to slate gray coloring is classic, other colors have been described including brown, golden brown, and purple.²

Histopathology of imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation shows golden brown, round to oval granules in the superficial dermis and within dermal macrophages.^1,3 Generally, Fontana-Masson staining is positive for melanin and Perls Prussian blue staining is negative for iron.^1,2,4

Imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation likely results from photoexcitation of imipramine or one of its metabolites. These compounds activate tyrosinase, increasing melanogenesis and leading to formation of melanin-imipramine or melanin-metabolite complexes.^1-3 Complexes are deposited in the dermis and basal layer or are engulfed by dermal macrophages and darkened on sun exposure due to their high melanin content.¹ Other possible mechanisms of hyperpigmentation include nonspecific inflammation caused by the drug in the skin, hemosiderin deposition from vessel damage and subsequent erythrocyte extravasation, or deposition of newly formed pigments related to the drug.¹

Most patients report satisfactory resolution of imipramine-induced discoloration within 1 year of stopping imipramine or switching to a different antidepressant.^1,4 Patients who are unwilling to discontinue imipramine may achieve resolution with alexandrite or Q-switched ruby laser therapy.^1,4 Strict sun protective measures are necessary, both to prevent new deposition of melanin and to prevent darkening of existing pigment.

Despite the advent of new psychotropic medications, imipramine remains the antidepressant of choice for many patients. Although rare, it is important to be able to recognize imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation and to encourage patient-psychiatrist communication to determine an antidepressant regimen that avoids unnecessary cutaneous side effects.

Imipramine is a tricyclic medication uncommonly used to treat depression, anxiety, and other psychiatric illnesses. Although relatively rare, it has been associated with hyperpigmentation of the skin including slate gray discoloration of sun-exposed areas.

We present the case of a 63-year-old woman who had been taking imipramine for more than 20 years when she developed bluish gray discoloration on the face and neck. Histopathology of biopsy specimens showed numerous perivascular and interstitial brown globules in the dermis that were composed of melanin only, as evidenced by positive Fontana-Masson staining and negative Perls Prussian blue staining. A diagnosis of imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation was made based on histopathology and clinical history.

In addition to the case presentation, we provide a review of drugs that commonly cause hyperpigmentation as well as their associated histopathologic staining characteristics.

Case Report

A 63-year-old woman presented with blue-gray discoloration on the face and neck. She first noted the discoloration on the left side of the forehead 3 years prior; it then spread to the right side of the forehead, cheeks, and neck. She denied pruritus, pain, redness, and scaling of the involved areas; any recent changes in medications; or the use of any topical products on the affected areas. Her medical history was remarkable for hypertension, which was inconsistently controlled with lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide, and depression, which had been managed with oral imipramine.

Physical examination disclosed blue-gray hyperpigmented patches with irregular borders on the bilateral forehead, temples, and periorbital skin (Figure 1). Reticulated brown patches were noted on the bilateral cheeks, and the neck displayed diffuse muddy brown patches with sparing of the submental areas.

Punch biopsies obtained from the lateral forehead showed an unremarkable epidermis with deposition of numerous golden brown granules in the upper and mid dermis and in perivascular macrophages (Figure 2). The pigmented granules showed positive staining with Fontana-Masson (Figure 3), and a Perls Prussian blue stain for hemosiderin was negative. Based on the clinical history, a diagnosis of imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation was made.

The patient revealed that she had taken imipramine for more than 20 years for depression as prescribed by her mental health professional. She had tried several other antidepressants but none were as effective as imipramine. Therefore, she was not willing to discontinue it despite the likelihood that the hyperpigmentation would persist and could worsen with continued use of the medication. Diligent photoprotection was advised. Additionally, she started taking lisinopril some time after the appearance of the hyperpigmentation presented and had not taken hydrochlorothiazide consistently for several years. Although these drugs are known to cause various cutaneous reactions, it was not considered likely in this case.

Comment

Drug-induced hyperpigmentation accounts for 10% to 20% of all cases of acquired hyperpigmentation.¹ Common causative drugs include amiodarone, antimalarials, minocycline, and rarely psychotropics including phenothiazines and tricyclic antidepressants such as imipramine.^1-4 Although amiodarone-induced hyperpigmentation is associated with lipofuscin in addition to melanin, most other medications, including imipramine, induce cutaneous effects through deposition of melanin and/or hemosiderin. A review of the histopathologic staining characteristics in pigment anomalies caused by these drugs is summarized in the Table.

Imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation presents as slate gray discrete macules and patches on sun-exposed skin that may appear anywhere from 2 to 22 years after initiating the medication.^1-4 Affected areas include the malar cheeks, temples, periorbital areas, hands, forearms, and seldom the iris and sclera.^2-4 Although the blue to slate gray coloring is classic, other colors have been described including brown, golden brown, and purple.²

Histopathology of imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation shows golden brown, round to oval granules in the superficial dermis and within dermal macrophages.^1,3 Generally, Fontana-Masson staining is positive for melanin and Perls Prussian blue staining is negative for iron.^1,2,4

Imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation likely results from photoexcitation of imipramine or one of its metabolites. These compounds activate tyrosinase, increasing melanogenesis and leading to formation of melanin-imipramine or melanin-metabolite complexes.^1-3 Complexes are deposited in the dermis and basal layer or are engulfed by dermal macrophages and darkened on sun exposure due to their high melanin content.¹ Other possible mechanisms of hyperpigmentation include nonspecific inflammation caused by the drug in the skin, hemosiderin deposition from vessel damage and subsequent erythrocyte extravasation, or deposition of newly formed pigments related to the drug.¹

Most patients report satisfactory resolution of imipramine-induced discoloration within 1 year of stopping imipramine or switching to a different antidepressant.^1,4 Patients who are unwilling to discontinue imipramine may achieve resolution with alexandrite or Q-switched ruby laser therapy.^1,4 Strict sun protective measures are necessary, both to prevent new deposition of melanin and to prevent darkening of existing pigment.

Despite the advent of new psychotropic medications, imipramine remains the antidepressant of choice for many patients. Although rare, it is important to be able to recognize imipramine-induced hyperpigmentation and to encourage patient-psychiatrist communication to determine an antidepressant regimen that avoids unnecessary cutaneous side effects.

An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture is very rare.^1-5 More interestingly, an isolated thyroid cartilage fracture from a wrestling injury, especially in a non-sports competition context, such as horseplay, has not been previously reported in the literature. Sports-related injuries to the larynx and related structures are uncommon.^6,7

Case

A 38-year-old man presented with a complaint of throat pain after wrestling at home, in horseplay, with his 15-year-old son. He reported that when his son placed a choke hold on him, he felt a "crack" in the area of his neck, and soon afterwards felt throat pain with swallowing, along with discomfort with breathing. He also felt a sensation of "fluid building up in his throat." There were no changes noted with his voice and the patient was speaking in full sentences. There was no wheezing or stridor. He denied shortness of breath or any other complaints. He denied pain over the posterior elements of his cervical spine. At the time of the incident, there was no loss of consciousness. Palpation of the neck and chest did not elicit any crepitance to suggest subcutaneous emphysema. The trachea was midline. There was no pain overlying the carotids bilaterally, and the patient had no bruits. The neck examination did not show any surface abnormalities to suggest trauma, such as ecchymosis or swelling. He did have slight tenderness to palpation over the thyroid cartilage.

The patient was sent for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the soft-tissue neck with intravenous (IV) contrast, and a CT scan of the cervical spine. The results showed no cervical spine fracture. However, there was a minimally displaced fracture of the left thyroid cartilage, with soft-tissue swelling that was noted, along with minimal narrowing of the subglottic trachea. There were no abnormal enhancements or fluid collections. No evidence of vocal cord abnormality or asymmetry was seen, and there was no evidence of airway compromise (Figure).

Discussion

Our patient sustained an isolated thyroid cartilage fracture. A thyroid cartilage fracture is a type of laryngeal fracture. Using an anatomic system in which such injuries are classified by location (supraglottic, glottis, or infraglottic), a thyroid cartilage fracture is classified as a supraglottic laryngeal injury.^1,2 In our case, the fracture was due to a blunt force mechanism. Most blunt force laryngeal fractures are associated with multiple trauma.⁸ An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture is very rare.^1-5 More interestingly, an isolated thyroid cartilage fracture from a wrestling injury, especially in a non-sports competition context, such as horseplay, has not been previously reported in the literature.

Sports-related injuries to the larynx and related structures are uncommon.^6,7 When reported, significant force is usually involved. For example, Tasca et al⁶ reported a thyroid cartilage fracture from direct blunt trauma (rugby, opponent stamped on patient’s throat) in which the patient presented with pain with swallowing and a lowering of the pitch of his voice. Rejali et al⁹ reported the case of a midair collision in a soccer match, resulting in an obvious mandibular fracture, but with an arytenoid cartilage fracture that was not initially identified. A football struck a 17-year-old boy with a resulting fracture of the superior cornu of the larynx and a puncture of the laryngeal mucosal wall in a case reported by Saab and Birkinshaw.¹⁰ The patient presented with neck pain and dysphagia, as well as subcutaneous air.¹⁰ A 21-year-old collegiate basketball player was struck in the neck by a teammate’s head while jumping for a rebound. He sustained a fracture of the thyroid cartilage and a fracture of the anterior cricoid ring.³ Patients with such injuries "may appear deceptively normal when seeking medical attention."⁸ Kragha² refers to such injuries as "rare but potentially deadly."

Symptoms can include neck pain, voice changes, pain with swallowing, and shortness of breath. Signs can include tenderness, ecchymosis, and even subcutaneous emphysema. There may be loss of prominence of the thyroid cartilage.³ Tracheal deviation and stridor can occur.^10,11 Computed tomography scan and laryngoscopy can be helpful in the diagnostic process; 3-dimensional (3-D) reconstructions may be needed.

Various classification systems have been proposed with related treatment strategies. Percevik et al¹¹ summarized a five-part clinical classification. Group 1 (hematoma, no fracture) and Group 2 (non-displaced fracture) may be treated conservatively. Group 3 (stable, displaced fracture), Group 4 (unstable, displaced fracture), and Group 5 (laryngotracheal disinsertion) are more likely to be treated with surgery.¹¹ Surgical techniques vary and have been refined over time.¹²

In this case, the patient sustained a thyroid cartilage fracture without the energy and force involved in a motor vehicle collision and without significant sports-related force. It is possible that this injury may have involved neck hyperflexion, rather than direct compressive force. Lin et al,¹ described a case of neck hyperflexion in an unrestrained driver, with a resulting isolated thyroid cartilage fracture without direct impact to the neck. Walsh and Trotter⁵ presented a case of a motorcyclist with a blow to the back of the head, with resulting neck hyperflexion, which resulted in a fracture of the thyroid cartilage. Beato-Martínez et al,¹³ reported a case of thyroid cartilage fracture following a sneezing episode. The patient presented with odynophagia, dysphonia and neck pain.¹³ In our review of the literature, we found that only one other similar case has been reported. In that case, a patient experienced a feeling of a neck click, followed by neck pain and hoarseness. He sustained a fracture of the thyroid cartilage.¹⁴

In reviewing the hyperflexion mechanism, Lin et al¹ noted that isolated thyroid cartilage fractures are rare and that "most of these are caused by direct injury to the neck, except for two patients reported in the literature who sustained isolated thyroid cartilage fractures after sneezing." Lin et al¹ proposed an interesting hypothesis—that "the mechanism causing thyroid cartilage fracture during impaction may be the same with sneezing." Sneezing can be associated with sudden and forceful flexion of the neck.

It is certainly possible that this hyperflexion mechanism was involved in our case, given there was no history of significant blunt force to the neck, as in the sports-related injuries discussed. Wrestling holds can produce hyperflexion. The patient described a feeling of a "crack", which is similar to the clicking sound described in one of the sneezing-related cases. An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture is rare in the absence of major trauma. However, as noted by Rejali et al,⁹ this can create a potential management pitfall. "In the context of non-contact sports, the attendant doctor may not realize the significance of apparently minor head and neck trauma."⁹

There are no series data to provide us with an exact incidence of airway compromise. However, seemingly minor insults to the anterior neck can cause posterior compression of the larynx and can result in airway compromise.^9-11

The CT scan is described as an important imaging modality to rule out cervical spine fracture. Although there was no significant blunt force, the cervical spine was exposed to hyperflexion forces. Another important potential consequence is long-term injury to the vocal cords, with subsequent speech difficulties.¹¹ Computed tomography can visualize the thyroid fracture, but many authors point out that visualization of the vocal cords, with nasopharyngeal laryngoscopy or other modality, is an important adjunct to the CT scan.^9-11

Otolaryngologist consultation should be strongly considered. This patient was transferred to a tertiary care center with expertise in thyroid fractures, and planned nasopharyngeal laryngoscopy to be performed at the receiving institution.

Conclusion

Our patient sustained an isolated thyroid cartilage fracture. Most blunt force laryngeal fractures are associated with multiple trauma. An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture is very rare. An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture from a wrestling injury, especially in a non-sports competition context, such as horseplay, has not been previously reported in the literature. Symptoms can include neck pain, voice changes, pain with swallowing, and shortness of breath. Signs can include tenderness, ecchymosis, or even subcutaneous emphysema. There may be loss of the prominence of the thyroid cartilage, tracheal deviation, and stridor. Computed tomography scan imaging with 3-D reconstructions and laryngoscopy can be helpful in the diagnostic process. In our case, the patient sustained a thyroid cartilage fracture without the energy and force involved in a motor vehicle collision and without significant sports-related force. It is possible this injury may have involved neck hyperflexion, rather than direct compressive forces, similar to that described by Lin et al.¹ Certainly, there was no history of significant blunt force to the neck on the level of the sports-related injuries discussed.

An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture is very rare.^1-5 More interestingly, an isolated thyroid cartilage fracture from a wrestling injury, especially in a non-sports competition context, such as horseplay, has not been previously reported in the literature. Sports-related injuries to the larynx and related structures are uncommon.^6,7

Case

A 38-year-old man presented with a complaint of throat pain after wrestling at home, in horseplay, with his 15-year-old son. He reported that when his son placed a choke hold on him, he felt a "crack" in the area of his neck, and soon afterwards felt throat pain with swallowing, along with discomfort with breathing. He also felt a sensation of "fluid building up in his throat." There were no changes noted with his voice and the patient was speaking in full sentences. There was no wheezing or stridor. He denied shortness of breath or any other complaints. He denied pain over the posterior elements of his cervical spine. At the time of the incident, there was no loss of consciousness. Palpation of the neck and chest did not elicit any crepitance to suggest subcutaneous emphysema. The trachea was midline. There was no pain overlying the carotids bilaterally, and the patient had no bruits. The neck examination did not show any surface abnormalities to suggest trauma, such as ecchymosis or swelling. He did have slight tenderness to palpation over the thyroid cartilage.

The patient was sent for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the soft-tissue neck with intravenous (IV) contrast, and a CT scan of the cervical spine. The results showed no cervical spine fracture. However, there was a minimally displaced fracture of the left thyroid cartilage, with soft-tissue swelling that was noted, along with minimal narrowing of the subglottic trachea. There were no abnormal enhancements or fluid collections. No evidence of vocal cord abnormality or asymmetry was seen, and there was no evidence of airway compromise (Figure).

Discussion

Our patient sustained an isolated thyroid cartilage fracture. A thyroid cartilage fracture is a type of laryngeal fracture. Using an anatomic system in which such injuries are classified by location (supraglottic, glottis, or infraglottic), a thyroid cartilage fracture is classified as a supraglottic laryngeal injury.^1,2 In our case, the fracture was due to a blunt force mechanism. Most blunt force laryngeal fractures are associated with multiple trauma.⁸ An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture is very rare.^1-5 More interestingly, an isolated thyroid cartilage fracture from a wrestling injury, especially in a non-sports competition context, such as horseplay, has not been previously reported in the literature.

Sports-related injuries to the larynx and related structures are uncommon.^6,7 When reported, significant force is usually involved. For example, Tasca et al⁶ reported a thyroid cartilage fracture from direct blunt trauma (rugby, opponent stamped on patient’s throat) in which the patient presented with pain with swallowing and a lowering of the pitch of his voice. Rejali et al⁹ reported the case of a midair collision in a soccer match, resulting in an obvious mandibular fracture, but with an arytenoid cartilage fracture that was not initially identified. A football struck a 17-year-old boy with a resulting fracture of the superior cornu of the larynx and a puncture of the laryngeal mucosal wall in a case reported by Saab and Birkinshaw.¹⁰ The patient presented with neck pain and dysphagia, as well as subcutaneous air.¹⁰ A 21-year-old collegiate basketball player was struck in the neck by a teammate’s head while jumping for a rebound. He sustained a fracture of the thyroid cartilage and a fracture of the anterior cricoid ring.³ Patients with such injuries "may appear deceptively normal when seeking medical attention."⁸ Kragha² refers to such injuries as "rare but potentially deadly."

Symptoms can include neck pain, voice changes, pain with swallowing, and shortness of breath. Signs can include tenderness, ecchymosis, and even subcutaneous emphysema. There may be loss of prominence of the thyroid cartilage.³ Tracheal deviation and stridor can occur.^10,11 Computed tomography scan and laryngoscopy can be helpful in the diagnostic process; 3-dimensional (3-D) reconstructions may be needed.

Various classification systems have been proposed with related treatment strategies. Percevik et al¹¹ summarized a five-part clinical classification. Group 1 (hematoma, no fracture) and Group 2 (non-displaced fracture) may be treated conservatively. Group 3 (stable, displaced fracture), Group 4 (unstable, displaced fracture), and Group 5 (laryngotracheal disinsertion) are more likely to be treated with surgery.¹¹ Surgical techniques vary and have been refined over time.¹²

In this case, the patient sustained a thyroid cartilage fracture without the energy and force involved in a motor vehicle collision and without significant sports-related force. It is possible that this injury may have involved neck hyperflexion, rather than direct compressive force. Lin et al,¹ described a case of neck hyperflexion in an unrestrained driver, with a resulting isolated thyroid cartilage fracture without direct impact to the neck. Walsh and Trotter⁵ presented a case of a motorcyclist with a blow to the back of the head, with resulting neck hyperflexion, which resulted in a fracture of the thyroid cartilage. Beato-Martínez et al,¹³ reported a case of thyroid cartilage fracture following a sneezing episode. The patient presented with odynophagia, dysphonia and neck pain.¹³ In our review of the literature, we found that only one other similar case has been reported. In that case, a patient experienced a feeling of a neck click, followed by neck pain and hoarseness. He sustained a fracture of the thyroid cartilage.¹⁴

In reviewing the hyperflexion mechanism, Lin et al¹ noted that isolated thyroid cartilage fractures are rare and that "most of these are caused by direct injury to the neck, except for two patients reported in the literature who sustained isolated thyroid cartilage fractures after sneezing." Lin et al¹ proposed an interesting hypothesis—that "the mechanism causing thyroid cartilage fracture during impaction may be the same with sneezing." Sneezing can be associated with sudden and forceful flexion of the neck.

It is certainly possible that this hyperflexion mechanism was involved in our case, given there was no history of significant blunt force to the neck, as in the sports-related injuries discussed. Wrestling holds can produce hyperflexion. The patient described a feeling of a "crack", which is similar to the clicking sound described in one of the sneezing-related cases. An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture is rare in the absence of major trauma. However, as noted by Rejali et al,⁹ this can create a potential management pitfall. "In the context of non-contact sports, the attendant doctor may not realize the significance of apparently minor head and neck trauma."⁹

There are no series data to provide us with an exact incidence of airway compromise. However, seemingly minor insults to the anterior neck can cause posterior compression of the larynx and can result in airway compromise.^9-11

The CT scan is described as an important imaging modality to rule out cervical spine fracture. Although there was no significant blunt force, the cervical spine was exposed to hyperflexion forces. Another important potential consequence is long-term injury to the vocal cords, with subsequent speech difficulties.¹¹ Computed tomography can visualize the thyroid fracture, but many authors point out that visualization of the vocal cords, with nasopharyngeal laryngoscopy or other modality, is an important adjunct to the CT scan.^9-11

Otolaryngologist consultation should be strongly considered. This patient was transferred to a tertiary care center with expertise in thyroid fractures, and planned nasopharyngeal laryngoscopy to be performed at the receiving institution.

Conclusion

Our patient sustained an isolated thyroid cartilage fracture. Most blunt force laryngeal fractures are associated with multiple trauma. An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture is very rare. An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture from a wrestling injury, especially in a non-sports competition context, such as horseplay, has not been previously reported in the literature. Symptoms can include neck pain, voice changes, pain with swallowing, and shortness of breath. Signs can include tenderness, ecchymosis, or even subcutaneous emphysema. There may be loss of the prominence of the thyroid cartilage, tracheal deviation, and stridor. Computed tomography scan imaging with 3-D reconstructions and laryngoscopy can be helpful in the diagnostic process. In our case, the patient sustained a thyroid cartilage fracture without the energy and force involved in a motor vehicle collision and without significant sports-related force. It is possible this injury may have involved neck hyperflexion, rather than direct compressive forces, similar to that described by Lin et al.¹ Certainly, there was no history of significant blunt force to the neck on the level of the sports-related injuries discussed.

An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture is very rare.^1-5 More interestingly, an isolated thyroid cartilage fracture from a wrestling injury, especially in a non-sports competition context, such as horseplay, has not been previously reported in the literature. Sports-related injuries to the larynx and related structures are uncommon.^6,7

Case

A 38-year-old man presented with a complaint of throat pain after wrestling at home, in horseplay, with his 15-year-old son. He reported that when his son placed a choke hold on him, he felt a "crack" in the area of his neck, and soon afterwards felt throat pain with swallowing, along with discomfort with breathing. He also felt a sensation of "fluid building up in his throat." There were no changes noted with his voice and the patient was speaking in full sentences. There was no wheezing or stridor. He denied shortness of breath or any other complaints. He denied pain over the posterior elements of his cervical spine. At the time of the incident, there was no loss of consciousness. Palpation of the neck and chest did not elicit any crepitance to suggest subcutaneous emphysema. The trachea was midline. There was no pain overlying the carotids bilaterally, and the patient had no bruits. The neck examination did not show any surface abnormalities to suggest trauma, such as ecchymosis or swelling. He did have slight tenderness to palpation over the thyroid cartilage.

The patient was sent for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the soft-tissue neck with intravenous (IV) contrast, and a CT scan of the cervical spine. The results showed no cervical spine fracture. However, there was a minimally displaced fracture of the left thyroid cartilage, with soft-tissue swelling that was noted, along with minimal narrowing of the subglottic trachea. There were no abnormal enhancements or fluid collections. No evidence of vocal cord abnormality or asymmetry was seen, and there was no evidence of airway compromise (Figure).

Discussion

Our patient sustained an isolated thyroid cartilage fracture. A thyroid cartilage fracture is a type of laryngeal fracture. Using an anatomic system in which such injuries are classified by location (supraglottic, glottis, or infraglottic), a thyroid cartilage fracture is classified as a supraglottic laryngeal injury.^1,2 In our case, the fracture was due to a blunt force mechanism. Most blunt force laryngeal fractures are associated with multiple trauma.⁸ An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture is very rare.^1-5 More interestingly, an isolated thyroid cartilage fracture from a wrestling injury, especially in a non-sports competition context, such as horseplay, has not been previously reported in the literature.

Sports-related injuries to the larynx and related structures are uncommon.^6,7 When reported, significant force is usually involved. For example, Tasca et al⁶ reported a thyroid cartilage fracture from direct blunt trauma (rugby, opponent stamped on patient’s throat) in which the patient presented with pain with swallowing and a lowering of the pitch of his voice. Rejali et al⁹ reported the case of a midair collision in a soccer match, resulting in an obvious mandibular fracture, but with an arytenoid cartilage fracture that was not initially identified. A football struck a 17-year-old boy with a resulting fracture of the superior cornu of the larynx and a puncture of the laryngeal mucosal wall in a case reported by Saab and Birkinshaw.¹⁰ The patient presented with neck pain and dysphagia, as well as subcutaneous air.¹⁰ A 21-year-old collegiate basketball player was struck in the neck by a teammate’s head while jumping for a rebound. He sustained a fracture of the thyroid cartilage and a fracture of the anterior cricoid ring.³ Patients with such injuries "may appear deceptively normal when seeking medical attention."⁸ Kragha² refers to such injuries as "rare but potentially deadly."

Symptoms can include neck pain, voice changes, pain with swallowing, and shortness of breath. Signs can include tenderness, ecchymosis, and even subcutaneous emphysema. There may be loss of prominence of the thyroid cartilage.³ Tracheal deviation and stridor can occur.^10,11 Computed tomography scan and laryngoscopy can be helpful in the diagnostic process; 3-dimensional (3-D) reconstructions may be needed.

Various classification systems have been proposed with related treatment strategies. Percevik et al¹¹ summarized a five-part clinical classification. Group 1 (hematoma, no fracture) and Group 2 (non-displaced fracture) may be treated conservatively. Group 3 (stable, displaced fracture), Group 4 (unstable, displaced fracture), and Group 5 (laryngotracheal disinsertion) are more likely to be treated with surgery.¹¹ Surgical techniques vary and have been refined over time.¹²

In this case, the patient sustained a thyroid cartilage fracture without the energy and force involved in a motor vehicle collision and without significant sports-related force. It is possible that this injury may have involved neck hyperflexion, rather than direct compressive force. Lin et al,¹ described a case of neck hyperflexion in an unrestrained driver, with a resulting isolated thyroid cartilage fracture without direct impact to the neck. Walsh and Trotter⁵ presented a case of a motorcyclist with a blow to the back of the head, with resulting neck hyperflexion, which resulted in a fracture of the thyroid cartilage. Beato-Martínez et al,¹³ reported a case of thyroid cartilage fracture following a sneezing episode. The patient presented with odynophagia, dysphonia and neck pain.¹³ In our review of the literature, we found that only one other similar case has been reported. In that case, a patient experienced a feeling of a neck click, followed by neck pain and hoarseness. He sustained a fracture of the thyroid cartilage.¹⁴

In reviewing the hyperflexion mechanism, Lin et al¹ noted that isolated thyroid cartilage fractures are rare and that "most of these are caused by direct injury to the neck, except for two patients reported in the literature who sustained isolated thyroid cartilage fractures after sneezing." Lin et al¹ proposed an interesting hypothesis—that "the mechanism causing thyroid cartilage fracture during impaction may be the same with sneezing." Sneezing can be associated with sudden and forceful flexion of the neck.

It is certainly possible that this hyperflexion mechanism was involved in our case, given there was no history of significant blunt force to the neck, as in the sports-related injuries discussed. Wrestling holds can produce hyperflexion. The patient described a feeling of a "crack", which is similar to the clicking sound described in one of the sneezing-related cases. An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture is rare in the absence of major trauma. However, as noted by Rejali et al,⁹ this can create a potential management pitfall. "In the context of non-contact sports, the attendant doctor may not realize the significance of apparently minor head and neck trauma."⁹

There are no series data to provide us with an exact incidence of airway compromise. However, seemingly minor insults to the anterior neck can cause posterior compression of the larynx and can result in airway compromise.^9-11

The CT scan is described as an important imaging modality to rule out cervical spine fracture. Although there was no significant blunt force, the cervical spine was exposed to hyperflexion forces. Another important potential consequence is long-term injury to the vocal cords, with subsequent speech difficulties.¹¹ Computed tomography can visualize the thyroid fracture, but many authors point out that visualization of the vocal cords, with nasopharyngeal laryngoscopy or other modality, is an important adjunct to the CT scan.^9-11

Otolaryngologist consultation should be strongly considered. This patient was transferred to a tertiary care center with expertise in thyroid fractures, and planned nasopharyngeal laryngoscopy to be performed at the receiving institution.

Conclusion

Our patient sustained an isolated thyroid cartilage fracture. Most blunt force laryngeal fractures are associated with multiple trauma. An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture is very rare. An isolated thyroid cartilage fracture from a wrestling injury, especially in a non-sports competition context, such as horseplay, has not been previously reported in the literature. Symptoms can include neck pain, voice changes, pain with swallowing, and shortness of breath. Signs can include tenderness, ecchymosis, or even subcutaneous emphysema. There may be loss of the prominence of the thyroid cartilage, tracheal deviation, and stridor. Computed tomography scan imaging with 3-D reconstructions and laryngoscopy can be helpful in the diagnostic process. In our case, the patient sustained a thyroid cartilage fracture without the energy and force involved in a motor vehicle collision and without significant sports-related force. It is possible this injury may have involved neck hyperflexion, rather than direct compressive forces, similar to that described by Lin et al.¹ Certainly, there was no history of significant blunt force to the neck on the level of the sports-related injuries discussed.

Case

A 90-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; hypertension; chronic kidney disease; diastolic dysfunction; severe tricuspid regurgitation; and atrial fibrillation (AF), for which she was taking rivaroxaban, presented to the ED for evaluation of injuries she sustained during a fall. The patient’s family stated that she fell while walking with the assistance of a walker and landed on her face. There was no reported loss of consciousness. Upon arrival at the ED, the patient’s vital signs were: blood pressure, 188/105 mm Hg; heart rate, 91 beats/min; respiratory rate, 20 breaths/min; and temperature, 97.88°F (36.6°C). Oxygen (O₂) saturation was 90% on room air, but increased to 98% after the patient received 10 L/min of O₂ through a non-rebreather mask.

On physical examination, the patient was awake, alert, and oriented to person, place, and time, with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15. She was able to move all four extremities and had 4/5 motor strength in the upper extremities bilaterally, and 3/5 motor strength in the bilateral lower limbs, which her family reported was the same as her baseline. On pulmonary examination, the lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally and had no stridor. On auscultation she had a regular rate, with no murmurs or rubs.

The patient had nasal bone tenderness with epistaxis that resolved spontaneously and did not require packing; she had no other facial tenderness. The oropharynx was clear. There was mild posterior midline tenderness over C5 and C6, but no skin ecchymosis or neck swelling. Along with the non-rebreather mask, the patient was placed in a neck collar while she awaited transport to radiology for computed tomography (CT) studies.

The CT scan of the cervical spine demonstrated a minimally displaced fracture of the right anterior arch, both sides of the posterior arch of C1, and a comminuted minimally displaced fracture involving the posterior arch and spinous process of C5, with mild retrolisthesis of C5 over C6.

Based on the CT findings, the patient was taken to the operating room (OR) where she underwent awake fiberoptic laryngoscopy. During transfer to the OR, the patient’s O₂ dropped to 87%; however, after successful intubation without complication, O₂ saturation improved to 95%. After intubation, the patient was admitted to the intensive care unit for observation, and rivaroxaban therapy was discontinued.

A CT scan of the neck postintubation showed a mild interval decrease in the retropharyngeal hematoma, but an increase in the anterior disc space at C5-C6 with mild retrolisthesis, which raised suspicion for an anterior longitudinal ligamentous injury. A repeat CT scan on hospital day 4 revealed a new bleed within the old retropharyngeal hematoma, with no increase in thickness or size of the initial hematoma. The head and neck surgical team kept the patient intubated while awaiting resolution of the hematoma, with no plan of surgery.

On hospital day 6, the patient was transferred to another facility for continued long-term care. She was transitioned to a tracheostomy 4 days later. Follow-up approximately 2 weeks after presentation confirmed complete resolution of the hematoma, and no surgical intervention was required.

Discussion

Overview

Retropharyngeal hematomas are infrequent, but potentially life-threatening complications of cervical fractures, foreign body trauma, infection, violent coughing, and anticoagulation therapy.¹ Although retropharyngeal hematomas associated with warfarin have been well described, to our knowledge, there are no reported cases associated with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC).²

Though multiple studies have supported the effectiveness and safety of DOACs for prevention of stroke and systemic embolism in patients with AF, the risk of hemorrhage still exists.³ Postmarketing surveillance studies of DOACs report an overall risk of bleeding comparable to warfarin. Gastrointestinal bleeding was found to be slightly higher in patients taking a DOAC compared to those on warfarin, but the risk of intracranial bleeding from DOACs was notably lower.³ With limited effective reversal agents, DOACs present a tremendous challenge in managing acute life-threatening hemorrhage.⁴

Signs and Symptoms

Patients with retropharyngeal hematomas can present with dyspnea, sore throat, dysphagia, or odynophagia. Neck tenderness and swelling can suggest a retropharyngeal hematoma.⁵ The diagnosis of a retropharyngeal hemorrhage is of clinical importance because of the possible threat of airway obstruction—which may not be initially detectable clinically, and depends on how quickly the blood fills the retropharyngeal space.^1,6

Diagnosis

Computed tomography with intravenous contrast is the imaging study of choice for diagnosing retropharyngeal hematomas in the emergent care setting, and can detect the presence of any associated vertebral facture.^5,7,8 Lateral neck X-ray imaging can detect prevertebral swelling, but is not as sensitive as CT and may underestimate the extent of spinal injury; moreover, lesions or early bleeding may be missed.⁹ In the absence of vertebral fracture on CT imaging, magnetic resonance imaging should be considered to evaluate for possible associated ligamentous injury.⁹

Treatment and Management

Airway Management. Given the risk of progression to complete airway obstruction, the first step in managing retropharyngeal hematomas is to secure the patient’s airway. Even though the published literature recommends either endotracheal intubation or tracheostomy, the latter should only be considered as a last resort for patients on DOACs because of the increased risk of bleeding.

The fiberoptic approach to endotracheal intubation minimizes the risk of further trauma and rupture of the hematoma.^1,10 Once the patient’s airway is secure, the hematoma can be managed conservatively with spinal immobilization and observation for resolution, which may take 2 to 3 weeks.^6,11

Surgical Intervention. Some clinicians believe early surgical intervention leads to early recovery and a shorter hospitalization.¹² Surgical intervention using a transoral or anterior cervical approach is recommended for large hematomas that fail to regress.⁶ Surgical intervention may be considered for patients taking warfarin after successful anticoagulation reversal is achieved using fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and vitamin K. However, due to the increased bleeding potential and limited reversal options, there is an increased risk of surgical complications in patients on DOACs.⁵

Direct Oral Anticoagulation Reversal

The anticoagulation effect of DOACs resolves after five half-lives from the last administered dose, which in the case of rivaroxaban, is between 1 to 2 days.¹³ Therefore, when emergent surgical intervention is required for a retropharyngeal hematoma, understanding the options and limitations of reversal agents is necessary.

Idarucizumab. Currently the only DOAC anticoagulation reversal agent approved by the US Food and Drug Administration, idarucizumab is only effective for reversing the anticoagulation effects of dabigatran.^4,14

Prothrombin Complex Concentrate. Also referred to as factor IX complex, prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) has been shown to correct prolonged prothrombin time in experimental models of bleeding. Although there is no clinical evidence for its use in DOAC-associated bleeding, PCC should be considered in life-threatening cases, including large or expanding prevertebral hematoma, or other cases in which the potential benefit outweighs the potential risk of thrombosis associated with PCC.⁴

Fresh Frozen Plasma. In the absence of PCC, FFP may be considered, though there are no data supporting its use as a reversal agent for rivaroxaban.¹⁵

Conclusion

Although a rare entity, retropharyngeal hematoma should be suspected in patients with cervical fractures or trauma, especially in the setting of anticoagulation. Early airway management should be considered in a patient with a retropharyngeal hematoma, as symptoms of airway obstruction may be insidious. In patients on DOACs, the potential benefit of earlier resolution with surgical intervention must be strongly weighed against the increased risk of bleeding.

Case

A 90-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; hypertension; chronic kidney disease; diastolic dysfunction; severe tricuspid regurgitation; and atrial fibrillation (AF), for which she was taking rivaroxaban, presented to the ED for evaluation of injuries she sustained during a fall. The patient’s family stated that she fell while walking with the assistance of a walker and landed on her face. There was no reported loss of consciousness. Upon arrival at the ED, the patient’s vital signs were: blood pressure, 188/105 mm Hg; heart rate, 91 beats/min; respiratory rate, 20 breaths/min; and temperature, 97.88°F (36.6°C). Oxygen (O₂) saturation was 90% on room air, but increased to 98% after the patient received 10 L/min of O₂ through a non-rebreather mask.

On physical examination, the patient was awake, alert, and oriented to person, place, and time, with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15. She was able to move all four extremities and had 4/5 motor strength in the upper extremities bilaterally, and 3/5 motor strength in the bilateral lower limbs, which her family reported was the same as her baseline. On pulmonary examination, the lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally and had no stridor. On auscultation she had a regular rate, with no murmurs or rubs.

The patient had nasal bone tenderness with epistaxis that resolved spontaneously and did not require packing; she had no other facial tenderness. The oropharynx was clear. There was mild posterior midline tenderness over C5 and C6, but no skin ecchymosis or neck swelling. Along with the non-rebreather mask, the patient was placed in a neck collar while she awaited transport to radiology for computed tomography (CT) studies.

The CT scan of the cervical spine demonstrated a minimally displaced fracture of the right anterior arch, both sides of the posterior arch of C1, and a comminuted minimally displaced fracture involving the posterior arch and spinous process of C5, with mild retrolisthesis of C5 over C6.

Based on the CT findings, the patient was taken to the operating room (OR) where she underwent awake fiberoptic laryngoscopy. During transfer to the OR, the patient’s O₂ dropped to 87%; however, after successful intubation without complication, O₂ saturation improved to 95%. After intubation, the patient was admitted to the intensive care unit for observation, and rivaroxaban therapy was discontinued.

A CT scan of the neck postintubation showed a mild interval decrease in the retropharyngeal hematoma, but an increase in the anterior disc space at C5-C6 with mild retrolisthesis, which raised suspicion for an anterior longitudinal ligamentous injury. A repeat CT scan on hospital day 4 revealed a new bleed within the old retropharyngeal hematoma, with no increase in thickness or size of the initial hematoma. The head and neck surgical team kept the patient intubated while awaiting resolution of the hematoma, with no plan of surgery.

On hospital day 6, the patient was transferred to another facility for continued long-term care. She was transitioned to a tracheostomy 4 days later. Follow-up approximately 2 weeks after presentation confirmed complete resolution of the hematoma, and no surgical intervention was required.

Discussion

Overview

Retropharyngeal hematomas are infrequent, but potentially life-threatening complications of cervical fractures, foreign body trauma, infection, violent coughing, and anticoagulation therapy.¹ Although retropharyngeal hematomas associated with warfarin have been well described, to our knowledge, there are no reported cases associated with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC).²

Though multiple studies have supported the effectiveness and safety of DOACs for prevention of stroke and systemic embolism in patients with AF, the risk of hemorrhage still exists.³ Postmarketing surveillance studies of DOACs report an overall risk of bleeding comparable to warfarin. Gastrointestinal bleeding was found to be slightly higher in patients taking a DOAC compared to those on warfarin, but the risk of intracranial bleeding from DOACs was notably lower.³ With limited effective reversal agents, DOACs present a tremendous challenge in managing acute life-threatening hemorrhage.⁴

Signs and Symptoms

Patients with retropharyngeal hematomas can present with dyspnea, sore throat, dysphagia, or odynophagia. Neck tenderness and swelling can suggest a retropharyngeal hematoma.⁵ The diagnosis of a retropharyngeal hemorrhage is of clinical importance because of the possible threat of airway obstruction—which may not be initially detectable clinically, and depends on how quickly the blood fills the retropharyngeal space.^1,6

Diagnosis

Computed tomography with intravenous contrast is the imaging study of choice for diagnosing retropharyngeal hematomas in the emergent care setting, and can detect the presence of any associated vertebral facture.^5,7,8 Lateral neck X-ray imaging can detect prevertebral swelling, but is not as sensitive as CT and may underestimate the extent of spinal injury; moreover, lesions or early bleeding may be missed.⁹ In the absence of vertebral fracture on CT imaging, magnetic resonance imaging should be considered to evaluate for possible associated ligamentous injury.⁹

Treatment and Management

Airway Management. Given the risk of progression to complete airway obstruction, the first step in managing retropharyngeal hematomas is to secure the patient’s airway. Even though the published literature recommends either endotracheal intubation or tracheostomy, the latter should only be considered as a last resort for patients on DOACs because of the increased risk of bleeding.

The fiberoptic approach to endotracheal intubation minimizes the risk of further trauma and rupture of the hematoma.^1,10 Once the patient’s airway is secure, the hematoma can be managed conservatively with spinal immobilization and observation for resolution, which may take 2 to 3 weeks.^6,11

Surgical Intervention. Some clinicians believe early surgical intervention leads to early recovery and a shorter hospitalization.¹² Surgical intervention using a transoral or anterior cervical approach is recommended for large hematomas that fail to regress.⁶ Surgical intervention may be considered for patients taking warfarin after successful anticoagulation reversal is achieved using fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and vitamin K. However, due to the increased bleeding potential and limited reversal options, there is an increased risk of surgical complications in patients on DOACs.⁵

Direct Oral Anticoagulation Reversal

The anticoagulation effect of DOACs resolves after five half-lives from the last administered dose, which in the case of rivaroxaban, is between 1 to 2 days.¹³ Therefore, when emergent surgical intervention is required for a retropharyngeal hematoma, understanding the options and limitations of reversal agents is necessary.

Idarucizumab. Currently the only DOAC anticoagulation reversal agent approved by the US Food and Drug Administration, idarucizumab is only effective for reversing the anticoagulation effects of dabigatran.^4,14

Prothrombin Complex Concentrate. Also referred to as factor IX complex, prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) has been shown to correct prolonged prothrombin time in experimental models of bleeding. Although there is no clinical evidence for its use in DOAC-associated bleeding, PCC should be considered in life-threatening cases, including large or expanding prevertebral hematoma, or other cases in which the potential benefit outweighs the potential risk of thrombosis associated with PCC.⁴

Fresh Frozen Plasma. In the absence of PCC, FFP may be considered, though there are no data supporting its use as a reversal agent for rivaroxaban.¹⁵

Conclusion

Although a rare entity, retropharyngeal hematoma should be suspected in patients with cervical fractures or trauma, especially in the setting of anticoagulation. Early airway management should be considered in a patient with a retropharyngeal hematoma, as symptoms of airway obstruction may be insidious. In patients on DOACs, the potential benefit of earlier resolution with surgical intervention must be strongly weighed against the increased risk of bleeding.

Case

A 90-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; hypertension; chronic kidney disease; diastolic dysfunction; severe tricuspid regurgitation; and atrial fibrillation (AF), for which she was taking rivaroxaban, presented to the ED for evaluation of injuries she sustained during a fall. The patient’s family stated that she fell while walking with the assistance of a walker and landed on her face. There was no reported loss of consciousness. Upon arrival at the ED, the patient’s vital signs were: blood pressure, 188/105 mm Hg; heart rate, 91 beats/min; respiratory rate, 20 breaths/min; and temperature, 97.88°F (36.6°C). Oxygen (O₂) saturation was 90% on room air, but increased to 98% after the patient received 10 L/min of O₂ through a non-rebreather mask.

On physical examination, the patient was awake, alert, and oriented to person, place, and time, with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15. She was able to move all four extremities and had 4/5 motor strength in the upper extremities bilaterally, and 3/5 motor strength in the bilateral lower limbs, which her family reported was the same as her baseline. On pulmonary examination, the lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally and had no stridor. On auscultation she had a regular rate, with no murmurs or rubs.

The patient had nasal bone tenderness with epistaxis that resolved spontaneously and did not require packing; she had no other facial tenderness. The oropharynx was clear. There was mild posterior midline tenderness over C5 and C6, but no skin ecchymosis or neck swelling. Along with the non-rebreather mask, the patient was placed in a neck collar while she awaited transport to radiology for computed tomography (CT) studies.

The CT scan of the cervical spine demonstrated a minimally displaced fracture of the right anterior arch, both sides of the posterior arch of C1, and a comminuted minimally displaced fracture involving the posterior arch and spinous process of C5, with mild retrolisthesis of C5 over C6.

Based on the CT findings, the patient was taken to the operating room (OR) where she underwent awake fiberoptic laryngoscopy. During transfer to the OR, the patient’s O₂ dropped to 87%; however, after successful intubation without complication, O₂ saturation improved to 95%. After intubation, the patient was admitted to the intensive care unit for observation, and rivaroxaban therapy was discontinued.

A CT scan of the neck postintubation showed a mild interval decrease in the retropharyngeal hematoma, but an increase in the anterior disc space at C5-C6 with mild retrolisthesis, which raised suspicion for an anterior longitudinal ligamentous injury. A repeat CT scan on hospital day 4 revealed a new bleed within the old retropharyngeal hematoma, with no increase in thickness or size of the initial hematoma. The head and neck surgical team kept the patient intubated while awaiting resolution of the hematoma, with no plan of surgery.

On hospital day 6, the patient was transferred to another facility for continued long-term care. She was transitioned to a tracheostomy 4 days later. Follow-up approximately 2 weeks after presentation confirmed complete resolution of the hematoma, and no surgical intervention was required.

Discussion

Overview

Retropharyngeal hematomas are infrequent, but potentially life-threatening complications of cervical fractures, foreign body trauma, infection, violent coughing, and anticoagulation therapy.¹ Although retropharyngeal hematomas associated with warfarin have been well described, to our knowledge, there are no reported cases associated with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC).²

Though multiple studies have supported the effectiveness and safety of DOACs for prevention of stroke and systemic embolism in patients with AF, the risk of hemorrhage still exists.³ Postmarketing surveillance studies of DOACs report an overall risk of bleeding comparable to warfarin. Gastrointestinal bleeding was found to be slightly higher in patients taking a DOAC compared to those on warfarin, but the risk of intracranial bleeding from DOACs was notably lower.³ With limited effective reversal agents, DOACs present a tremendous challenge in managing acute life-threatening hemorrhage.⁴

Signs and Symptoms

Patients with retropharyngeal hematomas can present with dyspnea, sore throat, dysphagia, or odynophagia. Neck tenderness and swelling can suggest a retropharyngeal hematoma.⁵ The diagnosis of a retropharyngeal hemorrhage is of clinical importance because of the possible threat of airway obstruction—which may not be initially detectable clinically, and depends on how quickly the blood fills the retropharyngeal space.^1,6

Diagnosis

Computed tomography with intravenous contrast is the imaging study of choice for diagnosing retropharyngeal hematomas in the emergent care setting, and can detect the presence of any associated vertebral facture.^5,7,8 Lateral neck X-ray imaging can detect prevertebral swelling, but is not as sensitive as CT and may underestimate the extent of spinal injury; moreover, lesions or early bleeding may be missed.⁹ In the absence of vertebral fracture on CT imaging, magnetic resonance imaging should be considered to evaluate for possible associated ligamentous injury.⁹

Treatment and Management

Airway Management. Given the risk of progression to complete airway obstruction, the first step in managing retropharyngeal hematomas is to secure the patient’s airway. Even though the published literature recommends either endotracheal intubation or tracheostomy, the latter should only be considered as a last resort for patients on DOACs because of the increased risk of bleeding.

The fiberoptic approach to endotracheal intubation minimizes the risk of further trauma and rupture of the hematoma.^1,10 Once the patient’s airway is secure, the hematoma can be managed conservatively with spinal immobilization and observation for resolution, which may take 2 to 3 weeks.^6,11

Surgical Intervention. Some clinicians believe early surgical intervention leads to early recovery and a shorter hospitalization.¹² Surgical intervention using a transoral or anterior cervical approach is recommended for large hematomas that fail to regress.⁶ Surgical intervention may be considered for patients taking warfarin after successful anticoagulation reversal is achieved using fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and vitamin K. However, due to the increased bleeding potential and limited reversal options, there is an increased risk of surgical complications in patients on DOACs.⁵

Direct Oral Anticoagulation Reversal

The anticoagulation effect of DOACs resolves after five half-lives from the last administered dose, which in the case of rivaroxaban, is between 1 to 2 days.¹³ Therefore, when emergent surgical intervention is required for a retropharyngeal hematoma, understanding the options and limitations of reversal agents is necessary.

Idarucizumab. Currently the only DOAC anticoagulation reversal agent approved by the US Food and Drug Administration, idarucizumab is only effective for reversing the anticoagulation effects of dabigatran.^4,14

Prothrombin Complex Concentrate. Also referred to as factor IX complex, prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) has been shown to correct prolonged prothrombin time in experimental models of bleeding. Although there is no clinical evidence for its use in DOAC-associated bleeding, PCC should be considered in life-threatening cases, including large or expanding prevertebral hematoma, or other cases in which the potential benefit outweighs the potential risk of thrombosis associated with PCC.⁴

Fresh Frozen Plasma. In the absence of PCC, FFP may be considered, though there are no data supporting its use as a reversal agent for rivaroxaban.¹⁵

Conclusion

Although a rare entity, retropharyngeal hematoma should be suspected in patients with cervical fractures or trauma, especially in the setting of anticoagulation. Early airway management should be considered in a patient with a retropharyngeal hematoma, as symptoms of airway obstruction may be insidious. In patients on DOACs, the potential benefit of earlier resolution with surgical intervention must be strongly weighed against the increased risk of bleeding.

Case

A 55-year-old previously healthy woman with an insignificant medical history presented to the ED for evaluation of right-sided numbness, tingling, and inability to sense temperature. The patient stated the numbness and tingling first began in her right leg and thigh 2 months earlier, and had progressively worsened to her entire right-side. She said she first experienced the thermoanesthesia while taking a shower the morning of presentation. While showering, the patient noted that she could not feel any hot or cold sensation on the right side of her body, including her right leg and arm. She also reported decreased sensation to her extremities on the right side.

She denied any new weakness, headache, chest pain, shortness of breath, fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, back pain, neck pain, or any other symptoms. In addition, she denied any difficulty swallowing, speaking, blurry vision, or double vision. Regarding her social history, the patient denied a history of sexually transmitted diseases, including syphilis; or any tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drug use. The patient confirmed that she had never experienced any of the presenting symptoms prior to 2 months ago. There was no history of trauma or falls. A review of systems was otherwise negative.

Vital signs at presentation were: blood pressure, 129/88 mm Hg; heart rate, 99 beats/min; respiratory rate, 18 breaths/min; and temperature, 98.5°F. Oxygen saturation was 98% on room air. Physical examination revealed a middle-aged woman who was awake, alert, and oriented. Her head was normocephalic and atraumatic, and her pupils were 5 mm, equal, round, and reactive to light bilaterally. Her cranial nerves II through XII were intact. She had normal 5/5 strength in both her upper and lower extremities bilaterally, and had 2+ and equal bilateral patella and Achilles deep tendon reflexes. The patient had no truncal ataxia, and she had a normal gait on ambulation. She was unable to sense temperature (assessed by touching a cold metal tray with her right hand). There was no neck or back midline tenderness to palpation of her spine.

Initial laboratory studies included a complete blood count (CBC); basic metabolic panel (BMP), including blood urea nitrogen; and urine drug screen (UDS). The CBC and BMP were within normal limits, except for an elevated creatine kinase of 249 U/L. The UDS was positive for cocaine. A head computed tomography (CT) scan without contrast was unremarkable.

The patient was admitted to the hospital for further evaluation. Additional laboratory workup during the inpatient stay included nonreactive treponemal immunoglobulin G/immunoglobulin M; nonreactive HIV antigen antibody assay; normal thyroid stimulating hormone; normal free thyroxine, folate, and vitamin B₁₂ levels; normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein levels. The patient’s hemoglobin A_1C was also within normal range.

Other imaging studies, which included MR angiography (MRA) of the head and neck, and MRI of the thoracic and lumbar spine, were unremarkable, with the exception of some chronic spondylitic changes.

Due to the significant C3-C4 stenosis, orthopedic surgery services were consulted for a spinal surgery workup. The orthopedic examination identified a few beats of clonus, intact proprioception, and no dysmetria. The patient had decreased sensation to fine touch in the distribution of C7 at the level of the triceps, midphalangeal joints to distal fingertips on the right, fourth, and fifth fingers on the left and right lateral lower extremity. A Hoffmann sign was positive bilaterally. A CT scan of the cervical spine showed severe canal stenosis at the C3-C4 level secondary to a large C3-C4 left paracentral disc protrusion with AP dimensions of the canal measured at 4 to 5 mm. There was no evidence of acute cervical spine fracture or subluxation.

The patient was offered operative and nonoperative management options, including anterior cervical discectomy and fusion vs conservative management with corticosteroid therapy. She agreed to conservative management and received intravenous (IV) dexamethasone with subjective improvement in her symptoms. The patient was discharged home on hospital day 3, with instructions to follow-up with a spine surgeon in 2 weeks. She was also counseled on abstaining from further cocaine or other illicit drug use.

The patient eventually returned for an elective anterior cervical discectomy and fusion 2 months later, after several outpatient visits and progression of symptoms. She was discharged home on postoperative day 1 with pain well-controlled and was able to ambulate without assistance. On follow-up, she reported 15% improvement in her symptoms.

Discussion

Cervical spondylotic myelopathy (CSM) is the most common myelopathy in patients aged 55 years and older. Immediate neuroimaging studies followed by spinal surgery consultation are recommended for patients presenting with acute symptoms suggestive of cord compression.^1,2

Diagnosis and Differential Diagnosis

Diagnosis of CSM can be made with a thorough patient history, neurological examination, and MRI/MRA. However, because cases of cervical disc herniation (CDH) are often atraumatic, the patient history may not always be contributory to the diagnosis and severity of the offending cause.

During our patient’s hospital course, there was initially a concern for Brown-Séquard syndrome (BSS) due to the lateralizing symptoms and radiographic findings. This is a rare condition that can occur in the setting of spinal trauma, unilateral disc herniation, tumors, epidural hematomas, and spinal cord ischemia.^3,4 In one retrospective case review by Sayer et al,⁴ the incidence of CDH causing BSS was only 0.21% (5 per 2,350 patients), and 67% of the cases involved C5-C6 or C6-C7.

Although disc herniation usually presents with symptoms on the ipsilateral side in patients with BSS, there are rare case reports of patients with contralateral symptoms in the form of complete or incomplete BSS manifesting as ipsilateral motor deficit and/or loss of contralateral pain and temperature due to an incomplete spinal cord compression.^5-7 We were able to rule-out BSS in our patient due to the absence of motor symptoms.

Treatment

Corticosteroid Therapy. High-dose IV corticosteroids should be given to all patients with CSM prior to surgery to reduce cord edema caused by spinal cord injury. In one randomized control trial by Bracken et al,⁸ patients given methylprednisolone within 8 hours of spinal cord injury had improvement in motor function, sensation to pinprick, and touch at 6 months when compared to placebo. When the aforementioned steps are taken in the emergent care setting, they may significantly improve patient outcomes.

Surgical Intervention. All cases of CSM in the review literature were treated surgically with laminectomy or hemilaminectomy, anterior discectomy with or without fusion, or corpectomy followed by interbody fusion, with the goal of achieving cord decompression. A large majority of patients underwent anterior discectomy with interbody fusion, and all of the cases recommend early surgical intervention in severe CSM to prevent rapidly worsening symptoms, including permanent hemiparesis.

Early surgical intervention is positively correlated with better outcomes, most often resulting in significant improvement of symptoms to full recovery.^3,4,6,7,9-12 In one case report, surgical intervention did not result in a significant improvement, and the patient had been suffering from progressive symptoms for 7 years prior to diagnosis and treatment.¹¹

Conservative Management. Conservative management of CSM includes immobilization, activity modification, pain management, and/or corticosteroids therapy.¹³ However, for patients undergoing surgical decompression, 50% to 80% reported symptom improvement.^14,15 This evidence strongly supports management of CSM with early diagnosis and surgical intervention. Despite delays in diagnosis and treatment, surgical intervention can still offer significant relief of weakness and sensory deficits associated with severe CSM.¹¹

Conclusion

Cervical spondylotic myelopathy is the most common myelopathy in patients aged 55 years and older. Common symptoms involve upper extremity sensation, gait disturbances, and deterioration of hand use¹⁶; however, there is a large differential for patients presenting to the ED with these symptoms, including mass effect, infection, vascular conditions, metabolic disorders, inflammatory conditions, and trauma.

Our patient with CSM presented with signs of an incomplete cord syndrome with lateralizing features caused by asymmetric disc herniation. This case is unique in that though our patient had some symptom resolution with corticosteroids therapy alone, she ultimately returned for definitive surgical decompression after symptom progression.

Case

A 55-year-old previously healthy woman with an insignificant medical history presented to the ED for evaluation of right-sided numbness, tingling, and inability to sense temperature. The patient stated the numbness and tingling first began in her right leg and thigh 2 months earlier, and had progressively worsened to her entire right-side. She said she first experienced the thermoanesthesia while taking a shower the morning of presentation. While showering, the patient noted that she could not feel any hot or cold sensation on the right side of her body, including her right leg and arm. She also reported decreased sensation to her extremities on the right side.

She denied any new weakness, headache, chest pain, shortness of breath, fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, back pain, neck pain, or any other symptoms. In addition, she denied any difficulty swallowing, speaking, blurry vision, or double vision. Regarding her social history, the patient denied a history of sexually transmitted diseases, including syphilis; or any tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drug use. The patient confirmed that she had never experienced any of the presenting symptoms prior to 2 months ago. There was no history of trauma or falls. A review of systems was otherwise negative.

Vital signs at presentation were: blood pressure, 129/88 mm Hg; heart rate, 99 beats/min; respiratory rate, 18 breaths/min; and temperature, 98.5°F. Oxygen saturation was 98% on room air. Physical examination revealed a middle-aged woman who was awake, alert, and oriented. Her head was normocephalic and atraumatic, and her pupils were 5 mm, equal, round, and reactive to light bilaterally. Her cranial nerves II through XII were intact. She had normal 5/5 strength in both her upper and lower extremities bilaterally, and had 2+ and equal bilateral patella and Achilles deep tendon reflexes. The patient had no truncal ataxia, and she had a normal gait on ambulation. She was unable to sense temperature (assessed by touching a cold metal tray with her right hand). There was no neck or back midline tenderness to palpation of her spine.

Initial laboratory studies included a complete blood count (CBC); basic metabolic panel (BMP), including blood urea nitrogen; and urine drug screen (UDS). The CBC and BMP were within normal limits, except for an elevated creatine kinase of 249 U/L. The UDS was positive for cocaine. A head computed tomography (CT) scan without contrast was unremarkable.

The patient was admitted to the hospital for further evaluation. Additional laboratory workup during the inpatient stay included nonreactive treponemal immunoglobulin G/immunoglobulin M; nonreactive HIV antigen antibody assay; normal thyroid stimulating hormone; normal free thyroxine, folate, and vitamin B₁₂ levels; normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein levels. The patient’s hemoglobin A_1C was also within normal range.

Other imaging studies, which included MR angiography (MRA) of the head and neck, and MRI of the thoracic and lumbar spine, were unremarkable, with the exception of some chronic spondylitic changes.

Due to the significant C3-C4 stenosis, orthopedic surgery services were consulted for a spinal surgery workup. The orthopedic examination identified a few beats of clonus, intact proprioception, and no dysmetria. The patient had decreased sensation to fine touch in the distribution of C7 at the level of the triceps, midphalangeal joints to distal fingertips on the right, fourth, and fifth fingers on the left and right lateral lower extremity. A Hoffmann sign was positive bilaterally. A CT scan of the cervical spine showed severe canal stenosis at the C3-C4 level secondary to a large C3-C4 left paracentral disc protrusion with AP dimensions of the canal measured at 4 to 5 mm. There was no evidence of acute cervical spine fracture or subluxation.

The patient was offered operative and nonoperative management options, including anterior cervical discectomy and fusion vs conservative management with corticosteroid therapy. She agreed to conservative management and received intravenous (IV) dexamethasone with subjective improvement in her symptoms. The patient was discharged home on hospital day 3, with instructions to follow-up with a spine surgeon in 2 weeks. She was also counseled on abstaining from further cocaine or other illicit drug use.

The patient eventually returned for an elective anterior cervical discectomy and fusion 2 months later, after several outpatient visits and progression of symptoms. She was discharged home on postoperative day 1 with pain well-controlled and was able to ambulate without assistance. On follow-up, she reported 15% improvement in her symptoms.

Discussion

Cervical spondylotic myelopathy (CSM) is the most common myelopathy in patients aged 55 years and older. Immediate neuroimaging studies followed by spinal surgery consultation are recommended for patients presenting with acute symptoms suggestive of cord compression.^1,2

Diagnosis and Differential Diagnosis

Diagnosis of CSM can be made with a thorough patient history, neurological examination, and MRI/MRA. However, because cases of cervical disc herniation (CDH) are often atraumatic, the patient history may not always be contributory to the diagnosis and severity of the offending cause.

During our patient’s hospital course, there was initially a concern for Brown-Séquard syndrome (BSS) due to the lateralizing symptoms and radiographic findings. This is a rare condition that can occur in the setting of spinal trauma, unilateral disc herniation, tumors, epidural hematomas, and spinal cord ischemia.^3,4 In one retrospective case review by Sayer et al,⁴ the incidence of CDH causing BSS was only 0.21% (5 per 2,350 patients), and 67% of the cases involved C5-C6 or C6-C7.

Although disc herniation usually presents with symptoms on the ipsilateral side in patients with BSS, there are rare case reports of patients with contralateral symptoms in the form of complete or incomplete BSS manifesting as ipsilateral motor deficit and/or loss of contralateral pain and temperature due to an incomplete spinal cord compression.^5-7 We were able to rule-out BSS in our patient due to the absence of motor symptoms.

Treatment

Corticosteroid Therapy. High-dose IV corticosteroids should be given to all patients with CSM prior to surgery to reduce cord edema caused by spinal cord injury. In one randomized control trial by Bracken et al,⁸ patients given methylprednisolone within 8 hours of spinal cord injury had improvement in motor function, sensation to pinprick, and touch at 6 months when compared to placebo. When the aforementioned steps are taken in the emergent care setting, they may significantly improve patient outcomes.

Surgical Intervention. All cases of CSM in the review literature were treated surgically with laminectomy or hemilaminectomy, anterior discectomy with or without fusion, or corpectomy followed by interbody fusion, with the goal of achieving cord decompression. A large majority of patients underwent anterior discectomy with interbody fusion, and all of the cases recommend early surgical intervention in severe CSM to prevent rapidly worsening symptoms, including permanent hemiparesis.

Early surgical intervention is positively correlated with better outcomes, most often resulting in significant improvement of symptoms to full recovery.^3,4,6,7,9-12 In one case report, surgical intervention did not result in a significant improvement, and the patient had been suffering from progressive symptoms for 7 years prior to diagnosis and treatment.¹¹

Conservative Management. Conservative management of CSM includes immobilization, activity modification, pain management, and/or corticosteroids therapy.¹³ However, for patients undergoing surgical decompression, 50% to 80% reported symptom improvement.^14,15 This evidence strongly supports management of CSM with early diagnosis and surgical intervention. Despite delays in diagnosis and treatment, surgical intervention can still offer significant relief of weakness and sensory deficits associated with severe CSM.¹¹

Conclusion

Cervical spondylotic myelopathy is the most common myelopathy in patients aged 55 years and older. Common symptoms involve upper extremity sensation, gait disturbances, and deterioration of hand use¹⁶; however, there is a large differential for patients presenting to the ED with these symptoms, including mass effect, infection, vascular conditions, metabolic disorders, inflammatory conditions, and trauma.

Our patient with CSM presented with signs of an incomplete cord syndrome with lateralizing features caused by asymmetric disc herniation. This case is unique in that though our patient had some symptom resolution with corticosteroids therapy alone, she ultimately returned for definitive surgical decompression after symptom progression.

Case

A 55-year-old previously healthy woman with an insignificant medical history presented to the ED for evaluation of right-sided numbness, tingling, and inability to sense temperature. The patient stated the numbness and tingling first began in her right leg and thigh 2 months earlier, and had progressively worsened to her entire right-side. She said she first experienced the thermoanesthesia while taking a shower the morning of presentation. While showering, the patient noted that she could not feel any hot or cold sensation on the right side of her body, including her right leg and arm. She also reported decreased sensation to her extremities on the right side.

She denied any new weakness, headache, chest pain, shortness of breath, fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, back pain, neck pain, or any other symptoms. In addition, she denied any difficulty swallowing, speaking, blurry vision, or double vision. Regarding her social history, the patient denied a history of sexually transmitted diseases, including syphilis; or any tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drug use. The patient confirmed that she had never experienced any of the presenting symptoms prior to 2 months ago. There was no history of trauma or falls. A review of systems was otherwise negative.

Vital signs at presentation were: blood pressure, 129/88 mm Hg; heart rate, 99 beats/min; respiratory rate, 18 breaths/min; and temperature, 98.5°F. Oxygen saturation was 98% on room air. Physical examination revealed a middle-aged woman who was awake, alert, and oriented. Her head was normocephalic and atraumatic, and her pupils were 5 mm, equal, round, and reactive to light bilaterally. Her cranial nerves II through XII were intact. She had normal 5/5 strength in both her upper and lower extremities bilaterally, and had 2+ and equal bilateral patella and Achilles deep tendon reflexes. The patient had no truncal ataxia, and she had a normal gait on ambulation. She was unable to sense temperature (assessed by touching a cold metal tray with her right hand). There was no neck or back midline tenderness to palpation of her spine.

Initial laboratory studies included a complete blood count (CBC); basic metabolic panel (BMP), including blood urea nitrogen; and urine drug screen (UDS). The CBC and BMP were within normal limits, except for an elevated creatine kinase of 249 U/L. The UDS was positive for cocaine. A head computed tomography (CT) scan without contrast was unremarkable.

The patient was admitted to the hospital for further evaluation. Additional laboratory workup during the inpatient stay included nonreactive treponemal immunoglobulin G/immunoglobulin M; nonreactive HIV antigen antibody assay; normal thyroid stimulating hormone; normal free thyroxine, folate, and vitamin B₁₂ levels; normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein levels. The patient’s hemoglobin A_1C was also within normal range.

Other imaging studies, which included MR angiography (MRA) of the head and neck, and MRI of the thoracic and lumbar spine, were unremarkable, with the exception of some chronic spondylitic changes.

Due to the significant C3-C4 stenosis, orthopedic surgery services were consulted for a spinal surgery workup. The orthopedic examination identified a few beats of clonus, intact proprioception, and no dysmetria. The patient had decreased sensation to fine touch in the distribution of C7 at the level of the triceps, midphalangeal joints to distal fingertips on the right, fourth, and fifth fingers on the left and right lateral lower extremity. A Hoffmann sign was positive bilaterally. A CT scan of the cervical spine showed severe canal stenosis at the C3-C4 level secondary to a large C3-C4 left paracentral disc protrusion with AP dimensions of the canal measured at 4 to 5 mm. There was no evidence of acute cervical spine fracture or subluxation.

The patient was offered operative and nonoperative management options, including anterior cervical discectomy and fusion vs conservative management with corticosteroid therapy. She agreed to conservative management and received intravenous (IV) dexamethasone with subjective improvement in her symptoms. The patient was discharged home on hospital day 3, with instructions to follow-up with a spine surgeon in 2 weeks. She was also counseled on abstaining from further cocaine or other illicit drug use.

The patient eventually returned for an elective anterior cervical discectomy and fusion 2 months later, after several outpatient visits and progression of symptoms. She was discharged home on postoperative day 1 with pain well-controlled and was able to ambulate without assistance. On follow-up, she reported 15% improvement in her symptoms.

Discussion

Cervical spondylotic myelopathy (CSM) is the most common myelopathy in patients aged 55 years and older. Immediate neuroimaging studies followed by spinal surgery consultation are recommended for patients presenting with acute symptoms suggestive of cord compression.^1,2

Diagnosis and Differential Diagnosis

Diagnosis of CSM can be made with a thorough patient history, neurological examination, and MRI/MRA. However, because cases of cervical disc herniation (CDH) are often atraumatic, the patient history may not always be contributory to the diagnosis and severity of the offending cause.

During our patient’s hospital course, there was initially a concern for Brown-Séquard syndrome (BSS) due to the lateralizing symptoms and radiographic findings. This is a rare condition that can occur in the setting of spinal trauma, unilateral disc herniation, tumors, epidural hematomas, and spinal cord ischemia.^3,4 In one retrospective case review by Sayer et al,⁴ the incidence of CDH causing BSS was only 0.21% (5 per 2,350 patients), and 67% of the cases involved C5-C6 or C6-C7.

Although disc herniation usually presents with symptoms on the ipsilateral side in patients with BSS, there are rare case reports of patients with contralateral symptoms in the form of complete or incomplete BSS manifesting as ipsilateral motor deficit and/or loss of contralateral pain and temperature due to an incomplete spinal cord compression.^5-7 We were able to rule-out BSS in our patient due to the absence of motor symptoms.

Treatment

Corticosteroid Therapy. High-dose IV corticosteroids should be given to all patients with CSM prior to surgery to reduce cord edema caused by spinal cord injury. In one randomized control trial by Bracken et al,⁸ patients given methylprednisolone within 8 hours of spinal cord injury had improvement in motor function, sensation to pinprick, and touch at 6 months when compared to placebo. When the aforementioned steps are taken in the emergent care setting, they may significantly improve patient outcomes.

Surgical Intervention. All cases of CSM in the review literature were treated surgically with laminectomy or hemilaminectomy, anterior discectomy with or without fusion, or corpectomy followed by interbody fusion, with the goal of achieving cord decompression. A large majority of patients underwent anterior discectomy with interbody fusion, and all of the cases recommend early surgical intervention in severe CSM to prevent rapidly worsening symptoms, including permanent hemiparesis.

Early surgical intervention is positively correlated with better outcomes, most often resulting in significant improvement of symptoms to full recovery.^3,4,6,7,9-12 In one case report, surgical intervention did not result in a significant improvement, and the patient had been suffering from progressive symptoms for 7 years prior to diagnosis and treatment.¹¹

Conservative Management. Conservative management of CSM includes immobilization, activity modification, pain management, and/or corticosteroids therapy.¹³ However, for patients undergoing surgical decompression, 50% to 80% reported symptom improvement.^14,15 This evidence strongly supports management of CSM with early diagnosis and surgical intervention. Despite delays in diagnosis and treatment, surgical intervention can still offer significant relief of weakness and sensory deficits associated with severe CSM.¹¹

Conclusion

Cervical spondylotic myelopathy is the most common myelopathy in patients aged 55 years and older. Common symptoms involve upper extremity sensation, gait disturbances, and deterioration of hand use¹⁶; however, there is a large differential for patients presenting to the ED with these symptoms, including mass effect, infection, vascular conditions, metabolic disorders, inflammatory conditions, and trauma.

Our patient with CSM presented with signs of an incomplete cord syndrome with lateralizing features caused by asymmetric disc herniation. This case is unique in that though our patient had some symptom resolution with corticosteroids therapy alone, she ultimately returned for definitive surgical decompression after symptom progression.

Case

An otherwise healthy 20-month-old boy presented to the ED for evaluation after his father witnessed the child ingest a model race car fuel additive. According to the patient’s father, the boy was playing with several closed bottles that were stored in the garage, when he witnessed the boy open up and take a sip of a pink-colored fuel additive, which the father believed to contain 100% methanol. The patient’s father further noted that immediately after drinking the fluid, the patient spat and drooled, and had one episode of nonbloody emesis prior to arrival at the ED.

Initial vital signs at presentation were: blood pressure, 84/54 mm Hg; heart rate, 97 beats/min; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/min; and temperature 98°F. Oxygen saturation was 99% on room air. Physical examination was notable for mild erythema in the posterior oropharynx. Otherwise, the patient was acting appropriately for his age and in no acute distress. Laboratory studies were within normal limits, except for the following: serum anion gap, 18 mEq/L (reference range for children < 3 years old, 10-14 mEq/L); serum bicarbonate, 19 mmol/L (reference range for children 12-24 months, 17-25 mmol/L); and serum creatinine, 2.8 mg/dL (reference range for children 12 to 24 months, 0.2-0.5 mg/dL). A repeat creatinine test taken after bolus of fluid administration was 2.4 mg/dL. A renal ultrasound, performed to investigate the cause of the renal failure, was unremarkable.

What toxic exposures are of concern based on the clinical history?

The history of exposure to a liquid stored in a garage raises the likelihood of exposure to an automobile-related item such as diethylene glycol, ethylene glycol (EG), and methanol.

Diethylene Glycol. Diethylene glycol is an ingredient in brake and power steering fluids, and has toxic properties qualitatively similar to EG.

Ethylene Glycol. A clear, colorless, odorless fluid with a sweet taste, EG is an ingredient in radiator antifreeze, refrigerant fluid, coolants, and pesticides. Like methylene, EG reaches peak plasma concentration within 1 to 4 hours, but toxic clinical findings do not occur for 3 to 6 hours.¹

Methanol. Methanol is a clear, colorless, alcohol found in antifreeze, windshield washer fluid, and race car fuel.² Although methanol reaches peak plasma concentration in about 30 to 60 minutes, signs of systemic toxicity (ie, metabolic acidosis) typically take 6 to 12 hours to manifest.¹

In both EG and methanol, there is a delay in toxic clinical findings because the parent compounds are not toxic in their initial form; rather, major toxicity is derived from their metabolites: formic acid and oxalic acid, respectively.

Other Toxins. Many other potentially toxic liquids are associated with a homeowner’s occupation or avocational interests. These include painting supplies (eg, industrial paints containing lead), gardening materials (eg, pesticides containing organophosphates), fuels (eg, gasoline, polychlorinated biphenyls in coolant, and lubricants), and cleaning supplies (eg, caustics, detergents, and air freshener).

Case Continuation

Since the patient’s elevated anion gap raised concerns for methanol or EG exposure, he was given fomepizole and transferred to a tertiary care children’s hospital for further management and possible hemodialysis. Upon arrival at the receiving hospital, the patient’s vital signs and physical examination remained unchanged. Repeat laboratory studies were notable for a creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL. The patient’s father was instructed to retrieve the implicated bottle from home. An inspection of the bottle’s ingredients was notable for nitromethane, castor oil, and methanol.

What is nitromethane and what are its uses?

Nitromethane, the simplest nitro compound, is a colorless, viscous, lipid-soluble fluid.³ The polarity of nitromethane permits its use as a stabilizer in a number of chemical solvents, such as dry cleaning fluid, degreasers, and "super glue."^4,5 Nitromethane is also commonly added to model-engine and drag-race fuels, which also contain methanol and castor oil.³ In this capacity, nitromethane functions as an oxygen carrier, allowing more efficient fuel use in combustion cylinders (compared to gasoline), thereby increasing the horsepower of the vehicle.⁶ It is therefore commonly added to fuel for drag racers, radio-controlled cars, and model aircrafts.⁴ In the small concentrations typically inadvertently ingested, the clinical effects of nitromethane itself are inconsequential.

What is the differential for creatinine elevation?

Creatinine itself is a normal breakdown product of muscle metabolism produced by spontaneous conversion from creatine and is found at a fairly constant serum level in proportion to muscle mass.⁷ Thus, as people age and muscle mass decreases, their baseline creatinine levels decrease proportionally.

Elimination. The majority of creatinine (85%-90%) is filtered and excreted by the kidneys, with the remaining 10% to 15% secreted by the tubules, allowing creatinine to be a surrogate measure of the glomerular filtration rate.⁷ Exogenous sources of creatine or creatinine include meat and creatine supplements, the latter of which are used as an "energy source" to enhance athletic performance.

Etiology. The etiology for an elevated serum creatinine concentration includes renal failure, both acute and chronic; volume depletion; hemorrhage (low blood volume); and medications, including diuretics, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and certain antibiotics. These etiologies can also be categorized as processes that increase creatinine production, decrease elimination (H₂ antagonist and trimethoprim both inhibit the cation secretory pump in the tubules), or interfere with the creatinine assay (ketones, keto acids, lipemia, hemolysis, cephalosporins).⁷

Because creatinine is filtered so efficiently by the kidney, neither exogenous nor endogenous creatinine sources are expected to increase serum creatinine in the absence of renal dysfunction. However, transient elevation may occur in body builders who use extreme doses of creatine. Patients with rhabdomyolysis often develop elevated creatinine concentrations, but nearly always in the setting of myoglobinuric renal failure.

Jaffe Reaction and Enzymatic Methods. Serum creatinine can be measured using either the Jaffe reaction or the enzymatic method. In the Jaffe reaction, creatinine reacts with alkaline sodium picrate to form a red-orange chromophore, which absorbs light in the range of 470 to 550 nanometers on spectroscopy.^6,8,9 The active methylene group on nitromethane also reacts with alkaline sodium picrate to form a chromophore which absorbs light in the same wavelength range.¹⁰ Thus, serum creatinine measurements via the Jaffe reaction are falsely elevated due to the cross-reactivity between nitromethane and alkaline sodium picrate. In some reported cases, there is a 20-fold increase in the measured serum creatinine in the presence of nitromethane; renal function, however, remains normal.⁵

This false reading seen in the Jaffe reaction can be avoided by utilizing the enzymatic method of creatinine measurement, a three-step process that ultimately produces hydrogen peroxide, which is measured and accurately correlates with serum creatinine—even in the presence of nitromethane.⁸ This distinction explains the dramatically different creatinine concentrations measured at the two institutions in this case.

Case Conclusion

The patient was monitored overnight at the children’s hospital. Repeat laboratory studies in the morning showed a normal creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL and a negative methanol level. The patient was discharged home in the care of his father, who was instructed to follow-up with his son’s pediatrician. The father also received counseling on safe storage practices for dangerous chemicals.

Case

An otherwise healthy 20-month-old boy presented to the ED for evaluation after his father witnessed the child ingest a model race car fuel additive. According to the patient’s father, the boy was playing with several closed bottles that were stored in the garage, when he witnessed the boy open up and take a sip of a pink-colored fuel additive, which the father believed to contain 100% methanol. The patient’s father further noted that immediately after drinking the fluid, the patient spat and drooled, and had one episode of nonbloody emesis prior to arrival at the ED.

Initial vital signs at presentation were: blood pressure, 84/54 mm Hg; heart rate, 97 beats/min; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/min; and temperature 98°F. Oxygen saturation was 99% on room air. Physical examination was notable for mild erythema in the posterior oropharynx. Otherwise, the patient was acting appropriately for his age and in no acute distress. Laboratory studies were within normal limits, except for the following: serum anion gap, 18 mEq/L (reference range for children < 3 years old, 10-14 mEq/L); serum bicarbonate, 19 mmol/L (reference range for children 12-24 months, 17-25 mmol/L); and serum creatinine, 2.8 mg/dL (reference range for children 12 to 24 months, 0.2-0.5 mg/dL). A repeat creatinine test taken after bolus of fluid administration was 2.4 mg/dL. A renal ultrasound, performed to investigate the cause of the renal failure, was unremarkable.

What toxic exposures are of concern based on the clinical history?

The history of exposure to a liquid stored in a garage raises the likelihood of exposure to an automobile-related item such as diethylene glycol, ethylene glycol (EG), and methanol.

Diethylene Glycol. Diethylene glycol is an ingredient in brake and power steering fluids, and has toxic properties qualitatively similar to EG.

Ethylene Glycol. A clear, colorless, odorless fluid with a sweet taste, EG is an ingredient in radiator antifreeze, refrigerant fluid, coolants, and pesticides. Like methylene, EG reaches peak plasma concentration within 1 to 4 hours, but toxic clinical findings do not occur for 3 to 6 hours.¹

Methanol. Methanol is a clear, colorless, alcohol found in antifreeze, windshield washer fluid, and race car fuel.² Although methanol reaches peak plasma concentration in about 30 to 60 minutes, signs of systemic toxicity (ie, metabolic acidosis) typically take 6 to 12 hours to manifest.¹

In both EG and methanol, there is a delay in toxic clinical findings because the parent compounds are not toxic in their initial form; rather, major toxicity is derived from their metabolites: formic acid and oxalic acid, respectively.

Other Toxins. Many other potentially toxic liquids are associated with a homeowner’s occupation or avocational interests. These include painting supplies (eg, industrial paints containing lead), gardening materials (eg, pesticides containing organophosphates), fuels (eg, gasoline, polychlorinated biphenyls in coolant, and lubricants), and cleaning supplies (eg, caustics, detergents, and air freshener).

Case Continuation

Since the patient’s elevated anion gap raised concerns for methanol or EG exposure, he was given fomepizole and transferred to a tertiary care children’s hospital for further management and possible hemodialysis. Upon arrival at the receiving hospital, the patient’s vital signs and physical examination remained unchanged. Repeat laboratory studies were notable for a creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL. The patient’s father was instructed to retrieve the implicated bottle from home. An inspection of the bottle’s ingredients was notable for nitromethane, castor oil, and methanol.

What is nitromethane and what are its uses?

Nitromethane, the simplest nitro compound, is a colorless, viscous, lipid-soluble fluid.³ The polarity of nitromethane permits its use as a stabilizer in a number of chemical solvents, such as dry cleaning fluid, degreasers, and "super glue."^4,5 Nitromethane is also commonly added to model-engine and drag-race fuels, which also contain methanol and castor oil.³ In this capacity, nitromethane functions as an oxygen carrier, allowing more efficient fuel use in combustion cylinders (compared to gasoline), thereby increasing the horsepower of the vehicle.⁶ It is therefore commonly added to fuel for drag racers, radio-controlled cars, and model aircrafts.⁴ In the small concentrations typically inadvertently ingested, the clinical effects of nitromethane itself are inconsequential.

What is the differential for creatinine elevation?

Creatinine itself is a normal breakdown product of muscle metabolism produced by spontaneous conversion from creatine and is found at a fairly constant serum level in proportion to muscle mass.⁷ Thus, as people age and muscle mass decreases, their baseline creatinine levels decrease proportionally.

Elimination. The majority of creatinine (85%-90%) is filtered and excreted by the kidneys, with the remaining 10% to 15% secreted by the tubules, allowing creatinine to be a surrogate measure of the glomerular filtration rate.⁷ Exogenous sources of creatine or creatinine include meat and creatine supplements, the latter of which are used as an "energy source" to enhance athletic performance.

Etiology. The etiology for an elevated serum creatinine concentration includes renal failure, both acute and chronic; volume depletion; hemorrhage (low blood volume); and medications, including diuretics, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and certain antibiotics. These etiologies can also be categorized as processes that increase creatinine production, decrease elimination (H₂ antagonist and trimethoprim both inhibit the cation secretory pump in the tubules), or interfere with the creatinine assay (ketones, keto acids, lipemia, hemolysis, cephalosporins).⁷

Because creatinine is filtered so efficiently by the kidney, neither exogenous nor endogenous creatinine sources are expected to increase serum creatinine in the absence of renal dysfunction. However, transient elevation may occur in body builders who use extreme doses of creatine. Patients with rhabdomyolysis often develop elevated creatinine concentrations, but nearly always in the setting of myoglobinuric renal failure.

Jaffe Reaction and Enzymatic Methods. Serum creatinine can be measured using either the Jaffe reaction or the enzymatic method. In the Jaffe reaction, creatinine reacts with alkaline sodium picrate to form a red-orange chromophore, which absorbs light in the range of 470 to 550 nanometers on spectroscopy.^6,8,9 The active methylene group on nitromethane also reacts with alkaline sodium picrate to form a chromophore which absorbs light in the same wavelength range.¹⁰ Thus, serum creatinine measurements via the Jaffe reaction are falsely elevated due to the cross-reactivity between nitromethane and alkaline sodium picrate. In some reported cases, there is a 20-fold increase in the measured serum creatinine in the presence of nitromethane; renal function, however, remains normal.⁵

This false reading seen in the Jaffe reaction can be avoided by utilizing the enzymatic method of creatinine measurement, a three-step process that ultimately produces hydrogen peroxide, which is measured and accurately correlates with serum creatinine—even in the presence of nitromethane.⁸ This distinction explains the dramatically different creatinine concentrations measured at the two institutions in this case.

Case Conclusion

The patient was monitored overnight at the children’s hospital. Repeat laboratory studies in the morning showed a normal creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL and a negative methanol level. The patient was discharged home in the care of his father, who was instructed to follow-up with his son’s pediatrician. The father also received counseling on safe storage practices for dangerous chemicals.

Case

An otherwise healthy 20-month-old boy presented to the ED for evaluation after his father witnessed the child ingest a model race car fuel additive. According to the patient’s father, the boy was playing with several closed bottles that were stored in the garage, when he witnessed the boy open up and take a sip of a pink-colored fuel additive, which the father believed to contain 100% methanol. The patient’s father further noted that immediately after drinking the fluid, the patient spat and drooled, and had one episode of nonbloody emesis prior to arrival at the ED.

Initial vital signs at presentation were: blood pressure, 84/54 mm Hg; heart rate, 97 beats/min; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/min; and temperature 98°F. Oxygen saturation was 99% on room air. Physical examination was notable for mild erythema in the posterior oropharynx. Otherwise, the patient was acting appropriately for his age and in no acute distress. Laboratory studies were within normal limits, except for the following: serum anion gap, 18 mEq/L (reference range for children < 3 years old, 10-14 mEq/L); serum bicarbonate, 19 mmol/L (reference range for children 12-24 months, 17-25 mmol/L); and serum creatinine, 2.8 mg/dL (reference range for children 12 to 24 months, 0.2-0.5 mg/dL). A repeat creatinine test taken after bolus of fluid administration was 2.4 mg/dL. A renal ultrasound, performed to investigate the cause of the renal failure, was unremarkable.

What toxic exposures are of concern based on the clinical history?

The history of exposure to a liquid stored in a garage raises the likelihood of exposure to an automobile-related item such as diethylene glycol, ethylene glycol (EG), and methanol.

Diethylene Glycol. Diethylene glycol is an ingredient in brake and power steering fluids, and has toxic properties qualitatively similar to EG.

Ethylene Glycol. A clear, colorless, odorless fluid with a sweet taste, EG is an ingredient in radiator antifreeze, refrigerant fluid, coolants, and pesticides. Like methylene, EG reaches peak plasma concentration within 1 to 4 hours, but toxic clinical findings do not occur for 3 to 6 hours.¹

Methanol. Methanol is a clear, colorless, alcohol found in antifreeze, windshield washer fluid, and race car fuel.² Although methanol reaches peak plasma concentration in about 30 to 60 minutes, signs of systemic toxicity (ie, metabolic acidosis) typically take 6 to 12 hours to manifest.¹

In both EG and methanol, there is a delay in toxic clinical findings because the parent compounds are not toxic in their initial form; rather, major toxicity is derived from their metabolites: formic acid and oxalic acid, respectively.

Other Toxins. Many other potentially toxic liquids are associated with a homeowner’s occupation or avocational interests. These include painting supplies (eg, industrial paints containing lead), gardening materials (eg, pesticides containing organophosphates), fuels (eg, gasoline, polychlorinated biphenyls in coolant, and lubricants), and cleaning supplies (eg, caustics, detergents, and air freshener).

Case Continuation

Since the patient’s elevated anion gap raised concerns for methanol or EG exposure, he was given fomepizole and transferred to a tertiary care children’s hospital for further management and possible hemodialysis. Upon arrival at the receiving hospital, the patient’s vital signs and physical examination remained unchanged. Repeat laboratory studies were notable for a creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL. The patient’s father was instructed to retrieve the implicated bottle from home. An inspection of the bottle’s ingredients was notable for nitromethane, castor oil, and methanol.

What is nitromethane and what are its uses?

Nitromethane, the simplest nitro compound, is a colorless, viscous, lipid-soluble fluid.³ The polarity of nitromethane permits its use as a stabilizer in a number of chemical solvents, such as dry cleaning fluid, degreasers, and "super glue."^4,5 Nitromethane is also commonly added to model-engine and drag-race fuels, which also contain methanol and castor oil.³ In this capacity, nitromethane functions as an oxygen carrier, allowing more efficient fuel use in combustion cylinders (compared to gasoline), thereby increasing the horsepower of the vehicle.⁶ It is therefore commonly added to fuel for drag racers, radio-controlled cars, and model aircrafts.⁴ In the small concentrations typically inadvertently ingested, the clinical effects of nitromethane itself are inconsequential.

What is the differential for creatinine elevation?

Creatinine itself is a normal breakdown product of muscle metabolism produced by spontaneous conversion from creatine and is found at a fairly constant serum level in proportion to muscle mass.⁷ Thus, as people age and muscle mass decreases, their baseline creatinine levels decrease proportionally.

Elimination. The majority of creatinine (85%-90%) is filtered and excreted by the kidneys, with the remaining 10% to 15% secreted by the tubules, allowing creatinine to be a surrogate measure of the glomerular filtration rate.⁷ Exogenous sources of creatine or creatinine include meat and creatine supplements, the latter of which are used as an "energy source" to enhance athletic performance.

Etiology. The etiology for an elevated serum creatinine concentration includes renal failure, both acute and chronic; volume depletion; hemorrhage (low blood volume); and medications, including diuretics, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and certain antibiotics. These etiologies can also be categorized as processes that increase creatinine production, decrease elimination (H₂ antagonist and trimethoprim both inhibit the cation secretory pump in the tubules), or interfere with the creatinine assay (ketones, keto acids, lipemia, hemolysis, cephalosporins).⁷

Because creatinine is filtered so efficiently by the kidney, neither exogenous nor endogenous creatinine sources are expected to increase serum creatinine in the absence of renal dysfunction. However, transient elevation may occur in body builders who use extreme doses of creatine. Patients with rhabdomyolysis often develop elevated creatinine concentrations, but nearly always in the setting of myoglobinuric renal failure.

Jaffe Reaction and Enzymatic Methods. Serum creatinine can be measured using either the Jaffe reaction or the enzymatic method. In the Jaffe reaction, creatinine reacts with alkaline sodium picrate to form a red-orange chromophore, which absorbs light in the range of 470 to 550 nanometers on spectroscopy.^6,8,9 The active methylene group on nitromethane also reacts with alkaline sodium picrate to form a chromophore which absorbs light in the same wavelength range.¹⁰ Thus, serum creatinine measurements via the Jaffe reaction are falsely elevated due to the cross-reactivity between nitromethane and alkaline sodium picrate. In some reported cases, there is a 20-fold increase in the measured serum creatinine in the presence of nitromethane; renal function, however, remains normal.⁵

This false reading seen in the Jaffe reaction can be avoided by utilizing the enzymatic method of creatinine measurement, a three-step process that ultimately produces hydrogen peroxide, which is measured and accurately correlates with serum creatinine—even in the presence of nitromethane.⁸ This distinction explains the dramatically different creatinine concentrations measured at the two institutions in this case.

Case Conclusion

The patient was monitored overnight at the children’s hospital. Repeat laboratory studies in the morning showed a normal creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL and a negative methanol level. The patient was discharged home in the care of his father, who was instructed to follow-up with his son’s pediatrician. The father also received counseling on safe storage practices for dangerous chemicals.