Use of asthma medication by pregnant women was not associated with an increased risk of autism, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, or Tourette syndrome for their children, a new study shows.

The drugs included in the study were leukotriene-receptor antagonists (LTRAs), which are often used to treat allergic airway diseases, including asthma and allergic rhinitis.

“Over the years, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration has monitored post-marketing data about the potential harm of neuropsychiatric events (NEs) associated with montelukast, the first type of LTRAs, and issued boxed warnings about serious mental health side effects for montelukast in 2020,” said corresponding author Tsung-Chieh Yao, MD, of Chang Gung Memorial Hospital, Taiwan, in an interview.

However, evidence of a link between NEs and LTRA use has been inconsistent, according to Dr. Yao and colleagues.

“To date, it remains totally unknown whether the exposure to LTRAs during pregnancy is associated with the risk of neuropsychiatric events in offspring,” said Dr. Yao.

To address this question, the researchers used data from National Health Insurance Research Database in Taiwan to identify pregnant women and their offspring from 2009 to 2019. The initial study population included 576,157 mother-offspring pairs, including 1,995 LTRA-exposed and 574,162 nonexposed children.

The women had a diagnosis of asthma or allergic rhinitis; multiple births and children with congenital malformations were excluded. LTRA exposure was defined as any dispensed prescription for LTRAs during pregnancy. Approximately two-thirds of the mothers were aged 30-40 years at the time of delivery.

The findings were published in a research letter in JAMA Network Open.

In the study population at large, the incidence of the three neurodevelopmental disorders ADHD, autism spectrum disorder (ASD), and Tourette syndrome was not significantly different between those children exposed to LTRAs and those not exposed to LTRAs in utero (1.25% vs. 1.32%; 3.31% vs. 4.36%; and 0.45% vs. 0.83%, respectively).

After propensity score matching, the study population included 1,988 LTRA-exposed children and 19,863 nonexposed children. In this group, no significant associations appeared between prenatal LTRA exposure and the risk of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (adjusted hazard ratio, 1.03), autism spectrum disorder (AHR, 1.01), and Tourette syndrome (AHR, 0.63).

Neither duration nor cumulative dose of LTRA use during pregnancy showed an association with ADHD, ASD, or Tourette syndrome in offspring. Duration of LTRA use was categorized as shorter or longer periods of 1-4 weeks vs. more than 4 weeks; cumulative dose was categorized as 1-170 mg vs. 170 mg or higher.

The findings were limited by the lack of randomization, inability to detect long-term risk, and potential lack of generalizability to non-Asian populations, and more research is needed to replicate the results, the researchers noted. However, the current findings were strengthened by the large study population, and suggest that LTRA use in pregnancy does not present a significant risk for NEs in children, which should be reassuring to clinicians and patients, they concluded.

The current study is the first to use the whole of Taiwan population data and extends previous studies by examining the association between LTRA use during pregnancy and risk of neuropsychiatric events in offspring, Dr. Yao said in an interview. “The possibly surprising, but reassuring, finding is that prenatal LTRA exposure did not increase risk of ADHD, ASD, and Tourette syndrome in offspring,” he said.

“Clinicians prescribing LTRAs such as montelukast (Singulair and generics) to pregnant women with asthma or allergic rhinitis may be reassured by our findings,” Dr. Yao added. The results offer real-world evidence to help inform decision-making about the use of LTRAs during pregnancy, although additional research is needed to replicate the study findings in other populations, he said.

The study was supported by the National Health Research Institutes, Taiwan, the Ministry of Science and Technology of Taiwan, the National Science and Technology Council of Taiwan, and the Chang Gung Medical Foundation. The researchers had no financial conflicts to disclose.

Use of asthma medication by pregnant women was not associated with an increased risk of autism, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, or Tourette syndrome for their children, a new study shows.

The drugs included in the study were leukotriene-receptor antagonists (LTRAs), which are often used to treat allergic airway diseases, including asthma and allergic rhinitis.

“Over the years, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration has monitored post-marketing data about the potential harm of neuropsychiatric events (NEs) associated with montelukast, the first type of LTRAs, and issued boxed warnings about serious mental health side effects for montelukast in 2020,” said corresponding author Tsung-Chieh Yao, MD, of Chang Gung Memorial Hospital, Taiwan, in an interview.

However, evidence of a link between NEs and LTRA use has been inconsistent, according to Dr. Yao and colleagues.

“To date, it remains totally unknown whether the exposure to LTRAs during pregnancy is associated with the risk of neuropsychiatric events in offspring,” said Dr. Yao.

To address this question, the researchers used data from National Health Insurance Research Database in Taiwan to identify pregnant women and their offspring from 2009 to 2019. The initial study population included 576,157 mother-offspring pairs, including 1,995 LTRA-exposed and 574,162 nonexposed children.

The women had a diagnosis of asthma or allergic rhinitis; multiple births and children with congenital malformations were excluded. LTRA exposure was defined as any dispensed prescription for LTRAs during pregnancy. Approximately two-thirds of the mothers were aged 30-40 years at the time of delivery.

The findings were published in a research letter in JAMA Network Open.

In the study population at large, the incidence of the three neurodevelopmental disorders ADHD, autism spectrum disorder (ASD), and Tourette syndrome was not significantly different between those children exposed to LTRAs and those not exposed to LTRAs in utero (1.25% vs. 1.32%; 3.31% vs. 4.36%; and 0.45% vs. 0.83%, respectively).

After propensity score matching, the study population included 1,988 LTRA-exposed children and 19,863 nonexposed children. In this group, no significant associations appeared between prenatal LTRA exposure and the risk of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (adjusted hazard ratio, 1.03), autism spectrum disorder (AHR, 1.01), and Tourette syndrome (AHR, 0.63).

Neither duration nor cumulative dose of LTRA use during pregnancy showed an association with ADHD, ASD, or Tourette syndrome in offspring. Duration of LTRA use was categorized as shorter or longer periods of 1-4 weeks vs. more than 4 weeks; cumulative dose was categorized as 1-170 mg vs. 170 mg or higher.

The findings were limited by the lack of randomization, inability to detect long-term risk, and potential lack of generalizability to non-Asian populations, and more research is needed to replicate the results, the researchers noted. However, the current findings were strengthened by the large study population, and suggest that LTRA use in pregnancy does not present a significant risk for NEs in children, which should be reassuring to clinicians and patients, they concluded.

The current study is the first to use the whole of Taiwan population data and extends previous studies by examining the association between LTRA use during pregnancy and risk of neuropsychiatric events in offspring, Dr. Yao said in an interview. “The possibly surprising, but reassuring, finding is that prenatal LTRA exposure did not increase risk of ADHD, ASD, and Tourette syndrome in offspring,” he said.

“Clinicians prescribing LTRAs such as montelukast (Singulair and generics) to pregnant women with asthma or allergic rhinitis may be reassured by our findings,” Dr. Yao added. The results offer real-world evidence to help inform decision-making about the use of LTRAs during pregnancy, although additional research is needed to replicate the study findings in other populations, he said.

The study was supported by the National Health Research Institutes, Taiwan, the Ministry of Science and Technology of Taiwan, the National Science and Technology Council of Taiwan, and the Chang Gung Medical Foundation. The researchers had no financial conflicts to disclose.

Use of asthma medication by pregnant women was not associated with an increased risk of autism, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, or Tourette syndrome for their children, a new study shows.

The drugs included in the study were leukotriene-receptor antagonists (LTRAs), which are often used to treat allergic airway diseases, including asthma and allergic rhinitis.

“Over the years, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration has monitored post-marketing data about the potential harm of neuropsychiatric events (NEs) associated with montelukast, the first type of LTRAs, and issued boxed warnings about serious mental health side effects for montelukast in 2020,” said corresponding author Tsung-Chieh Yao, MD, of Chang Gung Memorial Hospital, Taiwan, in an interview.

However, evidence of a link between NEs and LTRA use has been inconsistent, according to Dr. Yao and colleagues.

“To date, it remains totally unknown whether the exposure to LTRAs during pregnancy is associated with the risk of neuropsychiatric events in offspring,” said Dr. Yao.

To address this question, the researchers used data from National Health Insurance Research Database in Taiwan to identify pregnant women and their offspring from 2009 to 2019. The initial study population included 576,157 mother-offspring pairs, including 1,995 LTRA-exposed and 574,162 nonexposed children.

The women had a diagnosis of asthma or allergic rhinitis; multiple births and children with congenital malformations were excluded. LTRA exposure was defined as any dispensed prescription for LTRAs during pregnancy. Approximately two-thirds of the mothers were aged 30-40 years at the time of delivery.

The findings were published in a research letter in JAMA Network Open.

In the study population at large, the incidence of the three neurodevelopmental disorders ADHD, autism spectrum disorder (ASD), and Tourette syndrome was not significantly different between those children exposed to LTRAs and those not exposed to LTRAs in utero (1.25% vs. 1.32%; 3.31% vs. 4.36%; and 0.45% vs. 0.83%, respectively).

After propensity score matching, the study population included 1,988 LTRA-exposed children and 19,863 nonexposed children. In this group, no significant associations appeared between prenatal LTRA exposure and the risk of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (adjusted hazard ratio, 1.03), autism spectrum disorder (AHR, 1.01), and Tourette syndrome (AHR, 0.63).

Neither duration nor cumulative dose of LTRA use during pregnancy showed an association with ADHD, ASD, or Tourette syndrome in offspring. Duration of LTRA use was categorized as shorter or longer periods of 1-4 weeks vs. more than 4 weeks; cumulative dose was categorized as 1-170 mg vs. 170 mg or higher.

The findings were limited by the lack of randomization, inability to detect long-term risk, and potential lack of generalizability to non-Asian populations, and more research is needed to replicate the results, the researchers noted. However, the current findings were strengthened by the large study population, and suggest that LTRA use in pregnancy does not present a significant risk for NEs in children, which should be reassuring to clinicians and patients, they concluded.

The current study is the first to use the whole of Taiwan population data and extends previous studies by examining the association between LTRA use during pregnancy and risk of neuropsychiatric events in offspring, Dr. Yao said in an interview. “The possibly surprising, but reassuring, finding is that prenatal LTRA exposure did not increase risk of ADHD, ASD, and Tourette syndrome in offspring,” he said.

“Clinicians prescribing LTRAs such as montelukast (Singulair and generics) to pregnant women with asthma or allergic rhinitis may be reassured by our findings,” Dr. Yao added. The results offer real-world evidence to help inform decision-making about the use of LTRAs during pregnancy, although additional research is needed to replicate the study findings in other populations, he said.

The study was supported by the National Health Research Institutes, Taiwan, the Ministry of Science and Technology of Taiwan, the National Science and Technology Council of Taiwan, and the Chang Gung Medical Foundation. The researchers had no financial conflicts to disclose.

Ponatinib, a potent third-generation tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI), showed superior efficacy and comparable safety versus the first-generation TKI imatinib in patients with newly diagnosed Philadelphia chromosome–positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia (PH+ALL).

The agents were evaluated in the randomized, open-label, phase 3 PhALLCON study, the first head-to-head comparison of ponatinib and imatinib in combination with reduced-intensity chemotherapy in the Ph+ALL population.

Overall, patients in the ponatinib arm experienced a significantly higher minimal residual disease (MRD)–negative complete response rate as well as deeper and more durable responses compared with those in the imatinib arm, the investigators reported.

The findings were presented during an American Society of Clinical Oncology virtual plenary session.

In adults with ALL, Ph+ disease is the most frequent genetic subtype, accounting for about one third of cases. The current standard of care for newly diagnosed Ph+ALL, also known as BCR-ABL-1–positive ALL, is BCR-ABL1 TKIs in combination with chemotherapy or steroids. However, when treated with first- or second-generation TKIs, patients eventually progress due to the emergence of treatment resistance.

Before the advent of TKI therapies, Ph+ALL had a very poor prognosis, but the development of imatinib in 2001 was transformative, said Marlise R. Luskin, MD, a senior physician at Dana-Farber Cancer Institute, Boston, in the ASCO plenary session, exploring the state of the science.

Added to “backbone” chemotherapy regimens, imatinib improved complete response rates, increased eligibility for stem cell transplantation, and improved overall survival. Second-generation TKIs, including dasatinib and nilotinib further improved outcomes, said Dr. Luskin, also assistant professor at Harvard Medical School, Boston.

More recently, ponatinib has emerged as a promising treatment given its unique action against the ABLA1 T315I KD mutation present in about 75% of cases that relapse as well as the findings of improved MRD-negative complete response rates and event-free survival in retrospective studies, Dr. Luskin said.

The PhALLCON study was designed to further investigate promising results seen in retrospective studies of ponatinib.

To assess ponatinib versus imatinib, patients were enrolled and randomized two to one to receive either a 30-mg once-daily starting dose of ponatinib or a once-daily 600 mg dose of imatinib plus reduced-intensity chemotherapy. After cycle 20, patients received single agent ponatinib or imatinib until disease progression or unacceptable toxicity.

Of the 245 enrolled, 78 remained on treatment at the August 2022 data cutoff, including 42% of those in the ponatinib arm and 12% in the imatinib arm. The most common reasons for discontinuation included hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (31% for ponatinib and 37% for imatinib), adverse events (12% in both arms), and lack of efficacy (7% and 26%, respectively).

At median follow-up of 20 months among 164 patients in the ponatinib arm and 18 months among 81 patients in the imatinib arm, the MRD-negative complete response rates were 34.4% and 16.7%, respectively, said first author Elias J. Jabbour, MD, a professor of medicine at the University of Texas MD Anderson Cancer Center, Houston.

A trend toward improved event-free survival was also observed in the ponatinib arm, but the data were not mature at the time of the analysis, Dr. Jabbour noted.

The two treatments showed comparable safety. Treatment-emergent adverse event rates of any grade and of grade 3 or higher were similar in the two study arms. Arterial occlusive events were infrequent and were also similar between the arms.

“Taken together, for this patient population, the efficacy and safety results demonstrate a favorable risk-benefit assessment for ponatinib, which should be considered a standard of care for frontline therapy in patents with newly diagnosed Ph+ALL,” Dr. Jabbour said.

Although the PhALLCON findings are encouraging, invited discussant Anjali S. Advani, MD, of the Cleveland Clinic, noted some study “pitfalls and caveats,” including the generally younger age and low incidence of cardiovascular risk factors in the study population, which raises questions about the ability to extrapolate the findings to “the larger population, which may be older and have more comorbidities.”

Dr. Advani also said that the ponatinib versus imatinib comparison is a reasonable one, but that most clinicians are now using dasatinib, so “it would have been nice to have this comparison.”

Additionally, “the landscape is now changing with the use of blinatumomab plus TKIs – either dasatinib or ponatinib – in the up-front setting.”

“There is data now from various groups ... showing excellent results, although longer follow-up is needed on all of these,” she said.

One such study is the GIMEMA ALL2820 trial looking at ponatinib plus blinatumomab versus imatinib plus chemotherapy, said Nicolas Boissel, MD, PhD, of Hôpital Saint-Louis in Paris, an invited discussant who addressed the European perspective on the PhALLCON results.

“It is expected that access to ponatinib will be delayed in Europe, compared with the U.S., so meanwhile, clinical trials remain a good option to give access to ponatinib frontline,” he said.

Going forward, Dr. Boissel said it will be important to determine the role of second-generation TKIs in patients who are ineligible to receive ponatinib, the treatment duration needed to reduce long-term risk of relapse, and the potential for eliminating the need for postremission chemotherapy and stem cell transplantation in certain patients.

Dr. Advani added that when evaluating and comparing treatments, it will be important to look at genomic alterations and BCR-ABL mutation status, age and comorbidities, and patterns of disease relapse, including relapse sites and genomics. Longer follow-up results for event-free survival and overall survival are also needed.

“I think, particularly in younger patients with relatively few or no cardiovascular comorbidities, [ponatinib plus reduced-intensity chemotherapy] represents a really exciting option,” Dr. Advani said. “What’s difficult is that the landscape is changing quickly in this field, and so is the standard of care. I think what we struggle with is whether we should be using antibody-based therapies plus TKIs or look at an approach such as this, and further studies are going to be needed to answer that question.”

Dr. Jabbour disclosed ties with Pfizer, Takeda, Amgen, AbbVie, Bristol-Myers Squibb, Incyte, Adaptive Biotechnologies, Astellas Pharma, Genentech, and Ascentage Pharma. Dr. Luskin reported relationships with Pfizer, Novartis, and Abbvie. Dr. Advani disclosed ties with Novartis, Glycomimetics, Kite Pharma, Seattle Genetics, Amgen, Beam Therapeutics, Mkarta, Taiho Oncology, Jazz Pharmaceuticals, Pfizer, and Kura Oncology. Dr. Boissel reported relationships with Amgen, ARIAD/Incyte, Novartis, SERVIER, and Astellas Pharma.

A version of this article originally appeared on Medscape.com.

Ponatinib, a potent third-generation tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI), showed superior efficacy and comparable safety versus the first-generation TKI imatinib in patients with newly diagnosed Philadelphia chromosome–positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia (PH+ALL).

The agents were evaluated in the randomized, open-label, phase 3 PhALLCON study, the first head-to-head comparison of ponatinib and imatinib in combination with reduced-intensity chemotherapy in the Ph+ALL population.

Overall, patients in the ponatinib arm experienced a significantly higher minimal residual disease (MRD)–negative complete response rate as well as deeper and more durable responses compared with those in the imatinib arm, the investigators reported.

The findings were presented during an American Society of Clinical Oncology virtual plenary session.

In adults with ALL, Ph+ disease is the most frequent genetic subtype, accounting for about one third of cases. The current standard of care for newly diagnosed Ph+ALL, also known as BCR-ABL-1–positive ALL, is BCR-ABL1 TKIs in combination with chemotherapy or steroids. However, when treated with first- or second-generation TKIs, patients eventually progress due to the emergence of treatment resistance.

Before the advent of TKI therapies, Ph+ALL had a very poor prognosis, but the development of imatinib in 2001 was transformative, said Marlise R. Luskin, MD, a senior physician at Dana-Farber Cancer Institute, Boston, in the ASCO plenary session, exploring the state of the science.

Added to “backbone” chemotherapy regimens, imatinib improved complete response rates, increased eligibility for stem cell transplantation, and improved overall survival. Second-generation TKIs, including dasatinib and nilotinib further improved outcomes, said Dr. Luskin, also assistant professor at Harvard Medical School, Boston.

More recently, ponatinib has emerged as a promising treatment given its unique action against the ABLA1 T315I KD mutation present in about 75% of cases that relapse as well as the findings of improved MRD-negative complete response rates and event-free survival in retrospective studies, Dr. Luskin said.

The PhALLCON study was designed to further investigate promising results seen in retrospective studies of ponatinib.

To assess ponatinib versus imatinib, patients were enrolled and randomized two to one to receive either a 30-mg once-daily starting dose of ponatinib or a once-daily 600 mg dose of imatinib plus reduced-intensity chemotherapy. After cycle 20, patients received single agent ponatinib or imatinib until disease progression or unacceptable toxicity.

Of the 245 enrolled, 78 remained on treatment at the August 2022 data cutoff, including 42% of those in the ponatinib arm and 12% in the imatinib arm. The most common reasons for discontinuation included hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (31% for ponatinib and 37% for imatinib), adverse events (12% in both arms), and lack of efficacy (7% and 26%, respectively).

At median follow-up of 20 months among 164 patients in the ponatinib arm and 18 months among 81 patients in the imatinib arm, the MRD-negative complete response rates were 34.4% and 16.7%, respectively, said first author Elias J. Jabbour, MD, a professor of medicine at the University of Texas MD Anderson Cancer Center, Houston.

A trend toward improved event-free survival was also observed in the ponatinib arm, but the data were not mature at the time of the analysis, Dr. Jabbour noted.

The two treatments showed comparable safety. Treatment-emergent adverse event rates of any grade and of grade 3 or higher were similar in the two study arms. Arterial occlusive events were infrequent and were also similar between the arms.

“Taken together, for this patient population, the efficacy and safety results demonstrate a favorable risk-benefit assessment for ponatinib, which should be considered a standard of care for frontline therapy in patents with newly diagnosed Ph+ALL,” Dr. Jabbour said.

Although the PhALLCON findings are encouraging, invited discussant Anjali S. Advani, MD, of the Cleveland Clinic, noted some study “pitfalls and caveats,” including the generally younger age and low incidence of cardiovascular risk factors in the study population, which raises questions about the ability to extrapolate the findings to “the larger population, which may be older and have more comorbidities.”

Dr. Advani also said that the ponatinib versus imatinib comparison is a reasonable one, but that most clinicians are now using dasatinib, so “it would have been nice to have this comparison.”

Additionally, “the landscape is now changing with the use of blinatumomab plus TKIs – either dasatinib or ponatinib – in the up-front setting.”

“There is data now from various groups ... showing excellent results, although longer follow-up is needed on all of these,” she said.

One such study is the GIMEMA ALL2820 trial looking at ponatinib plus blinatumomab versus imatinib plus chemotherapy, said Nicolas Boissel, MD, PhD, of Hôpital Saint-Louis in Paris, an invited discussant who addressed the European perspective on the PhALLCON results.

“It is expected that access to ponatinib will be delayed in Europe, compared with the U.S., so meanwhile, clinical trials remain a good option to give access to ponatinib frontline,” he said.

Going forward, Dr. Boissel said it will be important to determine the role of second-generation TKIs in patients who are ineligible to receive ponatinib, the treatment duration needed to reduce long-term risk of relapse, and the potential for eliminating the need for postremission chemotherapy and stem cell transplantation in certain patients.

Dr. Advani added that when evaluating and comparing treatments, it will be important to look at genomic alterations and BCR-ABL mutation status, age and comorbidities, and patterns of disease relapse, including relapse sites and genomics. Longer follow-up results for event-free survival and overall survival are also needed.

“I think, particularly in younger patients with relatively few or no cardiovascular comorbidities, [ponatinib plus reduced-intensity chemotherapy] represents a really exciting option,” Dr. Advani said. “What’s difficult is that the landscape is changing quickly in this field, and so is the standard of care. I think what we struggle with is whether we should be using antibody-based therapies plus TKIs or look at an approach such as this, and further studies are going to be needed to answer that question.”

Dr. Jabbour disclosed ties with Pfizer, Takeda, Amgen, AbbVie, Bristol-Myers Squibb, Incyte, Adaptive Biotechnologies, Astellas Pharma, Genentech, and Ascentage Pharma. Dr. Luskin reported relationships with Pfizer, Novartis, and Abbvie. Dr. Advani disclosed ties with Novartis, Glycomimetics, Kite Pharma, Seattle Genetics, Amgen, Beam Therapeutics, Mkarta, Taiho Oncology, Jazz Pharmaceuticals, Pfizer, and Kura Oncology. Dr. Boissel reported relationships with Amgen, ARIAD/Incyte, Novartis, SERVIER, and Astellas Pharma.

A version of this article originally appeared on Medscape.com.

Ponatinib, a potent third-generation tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI), showed superior efficacy and comparable safety versus the first-generation TKI imatinib in patients with newly diagnosed Philadelphia chromosome–positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia (PH+ALL).

The agents were evaluated in the randomized, open-label, phase 3 PhALLCON study, the first head-to-head comparison of ponatinib and imatinib in combination with reduced-intensity chemotherapy in the Ph+ALL population.

Overall, patients in the ponatinib arm experienced a significantly higher minimal residual disease (MRD)–negative complete response rate as well as deeper and more durable responses compared with those in the imatinib arm, the investigators reported.

The findings were presented during an American Society of Clinical Oncology virtual plenary session.

In adults with ALL, Ph+ disease is the most frequent genetic subtype, accounting for about one third of cases. The current standard of care for newly diagnosed Ph+ALL, also known as BCR-ABL-1–positive ALL, is BCR-ABL1 TKIs in combination with chemotherapy or steroids. However, when treated with first- or second-generation TKIs, patients eventually progress due to the emergence of treatment resistance.

Before the advent of TKI therapies, Ph+ALL had a very poor prognosis, but the development of imatinib in 2001 was transformative, said Marlise R. Luskin, MD, a senior physician at Dana-Farber Cancer Institute, Boston, in the ASCO plenary session, exploring the state of the science.

Added to “backbone” chemotherapy regimens, imatinib improved complete response rates, increased eligibility for stem cell transplantation, and improved overall survival. Second-generation TKIs, including dasatinib and nilotinib further improved outcomes, said Dr. Luskin, also assistant professor at Harvard Medical School, Boston.

More recently, ponatinib has emerged as a promising treatment given its unique action against the ABLA1 T315I KD mutation present in about 75% of cases that relapse as well as the findings of improved MRD-negative complete response rates and event-free survival in retrospective studies, Dr. Luskin said.

The PhALLCON study was designed to further investigate promising results seen in retrospective studies of ponatinib.

To assess ponatinib versus imatinib, patients were enrolled and randomized two to one to receive either a 30-mg once-daily starting dose of ponatinib or a once-daily 600 mg dose of imatinib plus reduced-intensity chemotherapy. After cycle 20, patients received single agent ponatinib or imatinib until disease progression or unacceptable toxicity.

Of the 245 enrolled, 78 remained on treatment at the August 2022 data cutoff, including 42% of those in the ponatinib arm and 12% in the imatinib arm. The most common reasons for discontinuation included hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (31% for ponatinib and 37% for imatinib), adverse events (12% in both arms), and lack of efficacy (7% and 26%, respectively).

At median follow-up of 20 months among 164 patients in the ponatinib arm and 18 months among 81 patients in the imatinib arm, the MRD-negative complete response rates were 34.4% and 16.7%, respectively, said first author Elias J. Jabbour, MD, a professor of medicine at the University of Texas MD Anderson Cancer Center, Houston.

A trend toward improved event-free survival was also observed in the ponatinib arm, but the data were not mature at the time of the analysis, Dr. Jabbour noted.

The two treatments showed comparable safety. Treatment-emergent adverse event rates of any grade and of grade 3 or higher were similar in the two study arms. Arterial occlusive events were infrequent and were also similar between the arms.

“Taken together, for this patient population, the efficacy and safety results demonstrate a favorable risk-benefit assessment for ponatinib, which should be considered a standard of care for frontline therapy in patents with newly diagnosed Ph+ALL,” Dr. Jabbour said.

Although the PhALLCON findings are encouraging, invited discussant Anjali S. Advani, MD, of the Cleveland Clinic, noted some study “pitfalls and caveats,” including the generally younger age and low incidence of cardiovascular risk factors in the study population, which raises questions about the ability to extrapolate the findings to “the larger population, which may be older and have more comorbidities.”

Dr. Advani also said that the ponatinib versus imatinib comparison is a reasonable one, but that most clinicians are now using dasatinib, so “it would have been nice to have this comparison.”

Additionally, “the landscape is now changing with the use of blinatumomab plus TKIs – either dasatinib or ponatinib – in the up-front setting.”

“There is data now from various groups ... showing excellent results, although longer follow-up is needed on all of these,” she said.

One such study is the GIMEMA ALL2820 trial looking at ponatinib plus blinatumomab versus imatinib plus chemotherapy, said Nicolas Boissel, MD, PhD, of Hôpital Saint-Louis in Paris, an invited discussant who addressed the European perspective on the PhALLCON results.

“It is expected that access to ponatinib will be delayed in Europe, compared with the U.S., so meanwhile, clinical trials remain a good option to give access to ponatinib frontline,” he said.

Going forward, Dr. Boissel said it will be important to determine the role of second-generation TKIs in patients who are ineligible to receive ponatinib, the treatment duration needed to reduce long-term risk of relapse, and the potential for eliminating the need for postremission chemotherapy and stem cell transplantation in certain patients.

Dr. Advani added that when evaluating and comparing treatments, it will be important to look at genomic alterations and BCR-ABL mutation status, age and comorbidities, and patterns of disease relapse, including relapse sites and genomics. Longer follow-up results for event-free survival and overall survival are also needed.

“I think, particularly in younger patients with relatively few or no cardiovascular comorbidities, [ponatinib plus reduced-intensity chemotherapy] represents a really exciting option,” Dr. Advani said. “What’s difficult is that the landscape is changing quickly in this field, and so is the standard of care. I think what we struggle with is whether we should be using antibody-based therapies plus TKIs or look at an approach such as this, and further studies are going to be needed to answer that question.”

Dr. Jabbour disclosed ties with Pfizer, Takeda, Amgen, AbbVie, Bristol-Myers Squibb, Incyte, Adaptive Biotechnologies, Astellas Pharma, Genentech, and Ascentage Pharma. Dr. Luskin reported relationships with Pfizer, Novartis, and Abbvie. Dr. Advani disclosed ties with Novartis, Glycomimetics, Kite Pharma, Seattle Genetics, Amgen, Beam Therapeutics, Mkarta, Taiho Oncology, Jazz Pharmaceuticals, Pfizer, and Kura Oncology. Dr. Boissel reported relationships with Amgen, ARIAD/Incyte, Novartis, SERVIER, and Astellas Pharma.

A version of this article originally appeared on Medscape.com.

Cognitive remediation training, with or without social cognitive training, was associated with reduced aggressive behavior in schizophrenia, based on data from 130 individuals.

Aggressive behavior, including verbal or physical threats or violent acts, is at least four times more likely among individuals with schizophrenia, compared with the general population, wrote Anzalee Khan, PhD, of the Nathan S. Kline Institute for Psychiatric Research, Orangeburg, N.Y., and colleagues. Recent studies suggest that psychosocial treatments such as cognitive remediation training (CRT) or social cognition training (SCT) may be helpful, but the potential benefit of combining these strategies has not been explored, they said.

In a study published in Schizophrenia Research , the authors randomized 62 adults with a diagnosis of schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder to 36 sessions of a combination treatment with cognitive remediation and social cognition; 68 were randomized to cognitive remediation and computer-based control treatment. Participants also had at least one confirmed assault in the past year, or scores of 5 or higher on the Life History of Aggression scale. Complete data were analyzed for 45 patients in the CRT/SRT group and 34 in the CRT control group.

The primary outcome was the measure of aggression using the Modified Overt Aggression Scale (OAS-M) in which higher scores indicate higher levels of aggression. Incidents of aggression were coded based on hospital staff reports and summarized weekly. The mean age of the participants was 34.9 years (ranging from 18 to 60 years), 85% were male, and the mean years of education was 11.5.

At the study’s end (14 weeks), participants in both groups showed significant reductions in measures of aggression from baseline, with the largest effect size for the total global OAS-M score (effect size 1.11 for CRT plus SCT and 0.73 for the CRT plus control group).

The results failed to confirm the hypothesis that the combination of CRT and SCT would significantly increase improvements in aggression compared with CRT alone, the researchers wrote in their discussion. Potential reasons include underdosed SCT intervention (only 12 sessions) and the nature of the SCT used in the study, which had few aggressive social interaction models and more models related to social engagement.

Although adding SCT did not have a significant impact on aggression, patients in the CRT plus SCT group showed greater improvement in cognitive function, emotion recognition, and mentalizing, compared with the controls without SCT, the researchers noted.

“While these findings are not surprising given that participants in the CRT plus SCT group received active social cognition training, they do support the idea that social cognition training may have contributed to further strengthen our effect on cognition,” they wrote.

The findings were limited by several factors including the study population of individuals with chronic schizophrenia and low levels of function in long-term tertiary care, which may limit generalizability, and the inability to control for the effects of pharmacotherapy, the researchers said.

However, the results were strengthened by the multidimensional assessments at both time points and the use of two cognitive and social cognition interventions, and suggest that adding social cognitive training enhanced the effect of CRT on cognitive function, emotion regulation, and mentalizing capacity, they said.

“Future studies are needed to examine the antiaggressive effects of a more intensive and more targeted social cognition intervention combined with CRT,” they concluded.

The study was supported by the Brain and Behavior Research Foundation and the Weill Cornell Clinical and Translational Science Award Program, National Institutes of Health/National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences. The researchers had no financial conflicts to disclose.

Cognitive remediation training, with or without social cognitive training, was associated with reduced aggressive behavior in schizophrenia, based on data from 130 individuals.

Aggressive behavior, including verbal or physical threats or violent acts, is at least four times more likely among individuals with schizophrenia, compared with the general population, wrote Anzalee Khan, PhD, of the Nathan S. Kline Institute for Psychiatric Research, Orangeburg, N.Y., and colleagues. Recent studies suggest that psychosocial treatments such as cognitive remediation training (CRT) or social cognition training (SCT) may be helpful, but the potential benefit of combining these strategies has not been explored, they said.

In a study published in Schizophrenia Research , the authors randomized 62 adults with a diagnosis of schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder to 36 sessions of a combination treatment with cognitive remediation and social cognition; 68 were randomized to cognitive remediation and computer-based control treatment. Participants also had at least one confirmed assault in the past year, or scores of 5 or higher on the Life History of Aggression scale. Complete data were analyzed for 45 patients in the CRT/SRT group and 34 in the CRT control group.

The primary outcome was the measure of aggression using the Modified Overt Aggression Scale (OAS-M) in which higher scores indicate higher levels of aggression. Incidents of aggression were coded based on hospital staff reports and summarized weekly. The mean age of the participants was 34.9 years (ranging from 18 to 60 years), 85% were male, and the mean years of education was 11.5.

At the study’s end (14 weeks), participants in both groups showed significant reductions in measures of aggression from baseline, with the largest effect size for the total global OAS-M score (effect size 1.11 for CRT plus SCT and 0.73 for the CRT plus control group).

The results failed to confirm the hypothesis that the combination of CRT and SCT would significantly increase improvements in aggression compared with CRT alone, the researchers wrote in their discussion. Potential reasons include underdosed SCT intervention (only 12 sessions) and the nature of the SCT used in the study, which had few aggressive social interaction models and more models related to social engagement.

Although adding SCT did not have a significant impact on aggression, patients in the CRT plus SCT group showed greater improvement in cognitive function, emotion recognition, and mentalizing, compared with the controls without SCT, the researchers noted.

“While these findings are not surprising given that participants in the CRT plus SCT group received active social cognition training, they do support the idea that social cognition training may have contributed to further strengthen our effect on cognition,” they wrote.

The findings were limited by several factors including the study population of individuals with chronic schizophrenia and low levels of function in long-term tertiary care, which may limit generalizability, and the inability to control for the effects of pharmacotherapy, the researchers said.

However, the results were strengthened by the multidimensional assessments at both time points and the use of two cognitive and social cognition interventions, and suggest that adding social cognitive training enhanced the effect of CRT on cognitive function, emotion regulation, and mentalizing capacity, they said.

“Future studies are needed to examine the antiaggressive effects of a more intensive and more targeted social cognition intervention combined with CRT,” they concluded.

The study was supported by the Brain and Behavior Research Foundation and the Weill Cornell Clinical and Translational Science Award Program, National Institutes of Health/National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences. The researchers had no financial conflicts to disclose.

Cognitive remediation training, with or without social cognitive training, was associated with reduced aggressive behavior in schizophrenia, based on data from 130 individuals.

Aggressive behavior, including verbal or physical threats or violent acts, is at least four times more likely among individuals with schizophrenia, compared with the general population, wrote Anzalee Khan, PhD, of the Nathan S. Kline Institute for Psychiatric Research, Orangeburg, N.Y., and colleagues. Recent studies suggest that psychosocial treatments such as cognitive remediation training (CRT) or social cognition training (SCT) may be helpful, but the potential benefit of combining these strategies has not been explored, they said.

In a study published in Schizophrenia Research , the authors randomized 62 adults with a diagnosis of schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder to 36 sessions of a combination treatment with cognitive remediation and social cognition; 68 were randomized to cognitive remediation and computer-based control treatment. Participants also had at least one confirmed assault in the past year, or scores of 5 or higher on the Life History of Aggression scale. Complete data were analyzed for 45 patients in the CRT/SRT group and 34 in the CRT control group.

The primary outcome was the measure of aggression using the Modified Overt Aggression Scale (OAS-M) in which higher scores indicate higher levels of aggression. Incidents of aggression were coded based on hospital staff reports and summarized weekly. The mean age of the participants was 34.9 years (ranging from 18 to 60 years), 85% were male, and the mean years of education was 11.5.

At the study’s end (14 weeks), participants in both groups showed significant reductions in measures of aggression from baseline, with the largest effect size for the total global OAS-M score (effect size 1.11 for CRT plus SCT and 0.73 for the CRT plus control group).

The results failed to confirm the hypothesis that the combination of CRT and SCT would significantly increase improvements in aggression compared with CRT alone, the researchers wrote in their discussion. Potential reasons include underdosed SCT intervention (only 12 sessions) and the nature of the SCT used in the study, which had few aggressive social interaction models and more models related to social engagement.

Although adding SCT did not have a significant impact on aggression, patients in the CRT plus SCT group showed greater improvement in cognitive function, emotion recognition, and mentalizing, compared with the controls without SCT, the researchers noted.

“While these findings are not surprising given that participants in the CRT plus SCT group received active social cognition training, they do support the idea that social cognition training may have contributed to further strengthen our effect on cognition,” they wrote.

The findings were limited by several factors including the study population of individuals with chronic schizophrenia and low levels of function in long-term tertiary care, which may limit generalizability, and the inability to control for the effects of pharmacotherapy, the researchers said.

However, the results were strengthened by the multidimensional assessments at both time points and the use of two cognitive and social cognition interventions, and suggest that adding social cognitive training enhanced the effect of CRT on cognitive function, emotion regulation, and mentalizing capacity, they said.

“Future studies are needed to examine the antiaggressive effects of a more intensive and more targeted social cognition intervention combined with CRT,” they concluded.

The study was supported by the Brain and Behavior Research Foundation and the Weill Cornell Clinical and Translational Science Award Program, National Institutes of Health/National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences. The researchers had no financial conflicts to disclose.

Already commonly used in combination for the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), macitentan and tadalafil are safe and effective in a fixed-dose combination even as first-line therapy, according to a randomized multicenter comparative trial.

The fixed-dose combination “led to a highly significant and marked improvement in pulmonary vascular resistance when compared to macitentan and tadalafil as monotherapies,” Kelly Chin, MD, reported at the joint scientific sessions of the American College of Cardiology and the World Heart Federation.

Ted Bosworth/MDedge News

Guidelines encourage rapid PVR reductions

In practice, it is common to start treatment with either the endothelial receptor antagonist (ERA) macitentan, the phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitor tadalafil, or other frequently used medications for PAH, and to then add additional treatments, according to Dr. Chin. She pointed out, however, that guidelines, including those issued jointly by the European Society of Cardiology and the European Respiratory Society, encourage rapid escalation of therapy to quickly lower pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR).

In general, both macitentan and tadalafil are well tolerated, but the advantage and the safety of rapidly reducing PVR when these are initiated together in a single pill had not been evaluated previously in a major trial. In this double-blind phase III trial, called A DUE, 187 patients in functional class II or III PAH were randomized. The three-arm study included both treatment naive patients and patients who had been on stable doses (> 3 months) of an ERA or a PDE5 inhibitor, explained Dr. Chin, director of pulmonary hypertension at the UT Southwestern, Dallas.

Treatment naive patients, representing about 53% of the study population, were randomized to 10 mg macitentan monotherapy, 40 mg tadalafil monotherapy, or a fixed-dose, single-pill combination containing both. If on a stable dose of an ERA at trial entry, patients were randomized to 10 macitentan as a monotherapy or to the fixed dose combination. Patients entering the trial already on a stable dose of a PDE5 inhibitor were randomized to 40 mg tadalafil or the combination.
 

PVR reduced twofold on combination therapy

Relative to macitentan monotherapy, the percentage change from baseline in PVR by ratio of geometric mean, which was the primary outcome, was about twice as high on the combination (45% vs. 23%) at the end of the 16-week trial. This translates into a 29% PVR reduction (hazard ratio, 0.71; P < .0001).

For combination therapy relative to tadalafil monotherapy, the advantage for the fixed dose combination (44% vs. 22%) was about the same, also providing a nearly 30% relative reduction (HR, 0.72; P < .0001).

The increases in 6-minute walk distance (6MWD) at 16 weeks, a secondary endpoint, numerically favored the combination pill over both macitentan monotherapy (52.9 vs. 39.5 meters; P = .38) and tadalafil (43.4 vs. 15.9 meters; P = .059), but only the improvement relative to tadalafil monotherapy was considered a trend.

The proportion of patients who experienced at least one serious adverse event was higher in the combination arm (14.0%) relative to single agent macitentan (8.6%) or single agent tadalafil (9.1%). The adverse events and serious adverse events more common on the combination included hypotension, fluid retention, and anemia. This latter side effect occurred in 18.7%, 2.9%, and 2.3% in the combination, macitentan monotherapy, and tadalafil arms, respectively.

Several of those invited by the ACC to discuss the paper, including Lee R. Goldberg, MD, section chief of advanced heart failure and cardiac transplant, University of Pennsylvania, Philadelphia, raised concern about the increased rate of anemia among those in the combination pill. Two of the patients (2%) treated with the combination developed a hemoglobin < 8 g/dL.

Overall, nine (8.4%) of those on the fixed-dose combination, two (4.5%) of those randomized to tadalafil monotherapy, and none of the patients randomized to macitentan discontinued therapy due to side effects.
 

Anemia risk unexpected

Based on “the unexpected signal of an anemia risk,” Biykem Bozkurt, MD, PhD, chair of cardiology at Baylor College of Medicine, Houston, said that a larger scale trial with a longer follow-up is needed. While the concept of front-loading two drugs is attractive “for the very challenging PAH population,” she called for further evaluation of this safety signal before clinicians switch from the current practice of starting with one PAH therapy before adding others.

Mitchel L. Zoler/MDedge News

In addition, Dr. Bozkurt said a more definitive study would be helpful in determining whether starting with a fixed-pill combination is better than sequential treatment to improve quality of life. Dr. Bozkurt said it is likely that the lack of significant benefit on 6MWD in this study was due to the relatively small sample size, but an improvement in this measure would be another reason to consider a front-line fixed-dose combination.

Dr. Chin, in an interview, did not agree. She agreed that a larger sample size might have yielded a significant improvement in 6MWD, but she noted this outcome was moving in the right direction and was not the primary endpoint. In her opinion, this phase 3 trial does confirm that fixed-dose combination is well tolerated, has acceptable safety, and markedly improves PVR, fulfilling the guideline goal of controlling PAH more quickly.

Dr. Chin reports financial relationships with Altavant, Arena, Gossamer Bio, Janssen, Merck, ShouTi, and United Therapeutics. Dr. Goldberg reports financial relationships with Abbott, Respicardia/Zoll, and Viscardia. Dr. Bozkurt reports financial relationships with Abbott, Amgen, AstraZeneca, Boehringer Ingelheim, Cardurion, LivaNova, Relypsa, Renovacor, Sanofi-Aventis, and Vifor.

Already commonly used in combination for the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), macitentan and tadalafil are safe and effective in a fixed-dose combination even as first-line therapy, according to a randomized multicenter comparative trial.

The fixed-dose combination “led to a highly significant and marked improvement in pulmonary vascular resistance when compared to macitentan and tadalafil as monotherapies,” Kelly Chin, MD, reported at the joint scientific sessions of the American College of Cardiology and the World Heart Federation.

Ted Bosworth/MDedge News

Guidelines encourage rapid PVR reductions

In practice, it is common to start treatment with either the endothelial receptor antagonist (ERA) macitentan, the phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitor tadalafil, or other frequently used medications for PAH, and to then add additional treatments, according to Dr. Chin. She pointed out, however, that guidelines, including those issued jointly by the European Society of Cardiology and the European Respiratory Society, encourage rapid escalation of therapy to quickly lower pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR).

In general, both macitentan and tadalafil are well tolerated, but the advantage and the safety of rapidly reducing PVR when these are initiated together in a single pill had not been evaluated previously in a major trial. In this double-blind phase III trial, called A DUE, 187 patients in functional class II or III PAH were randomized. The three-arm study included both treatment naive patients and patients who had been on stable doses (> 3 months) of an ERA or a PDE5 inhibitor, explained Dr. Chin, director of pulmonary hypertension at the UT Southwestern, Dallas.

Treatment naive patients, representing about 53% of the study population, were randomized to 10 mg macitentan monotherapy, 40 mg tadalafil monotherapy, or a fixed-dose, single-pill combination containing both. If on a stable dose of an ERA at trial entry, patients were randomized to 10 macitentan as a monotherapy or to the fixed dose combination. Patients entering the trial already on a stable dose of a PDE5 inhibitor were randomized to 40 mg tadalafil or the combination.
 

PVR reduced twofold on combination therapy

Relative to macitentan monotherapy, the percentage change from baseline in PVR by ratio of geometric mean, which was the primary outcome, was about twice as high on the combination (45% vs. 23%) at the end of the 16-week trial. This translates into a 29% PVR reduction (hazard ratio, 0.71; P < .0001).

For combination therapy relative to tadalafil monotherapy, the advantage for the fixed dose combination (44% vs. 22%) was about the same, also providing a nearly 30% relative reduction (HR, 0.72; P < .0001).

The increases in 6-minute walk distance (6MWD) at 16 weeks, a secondary endpoint, numerically favored the combination pill over both macitentan monotherapy (52.9 vs. 39.5 meters; P = .38) and tadalafil (43.4 vs. 15.9 meters; P = .059), but only the improvement relative to tadalafil monotherapy was considered a trend.

The proportion of patients who experienced at least one serious adverse event was higher in the combination arm (14.0%) relative to single agent macitentan (8.6%) or single agent tadalafil (9.1%). The adverse events and serious adverse events more common on the combination included hypotension, fluid retention, and anemia. This latter side effect occurred in 18.7%, 2.9%, and 2.3% in the combination, macitentan monotherapy, and tadalafil arms, respectively.

Several of those invited by the ACC to discuss the paper, including Lee R. Goldberg, MD, section chief of advanced heart failure and cardiac transplant, University of Pennsylvania, Philadelphia, raised concern about the increased rate of anemia among those in the combination pill. Two of the patients (2%) treated with the combination developed a hemoglobin < 8 g/dL.

Overall, nine (8.4%) of those on the fixed-dose combination, two (4.5%) of those randomized to tadalafil monotherapy, and none of the patients randomized to macitentan discontinued therapy due to side effects.
 

Anemia risk unexpected

Based on “the unexpected signal of an anemia risk,” Biykem Bozkurt, MD, PhD, chair of cardiology at Baylor College of Medicine, Houston, said that a larger scale trial with a longer follow-up is needed. While the concept of front-loading two drugs is attractive “for the very challenging PAH population,” she called for further evaluation of this safety signal before clinicians switch from the current practice of starting with one PAH therapy before adding others.

Mitchel L. Zoler/MDedge News

In addition, Dr. Bozkurt said a more definitive study would be helpful in determining whether starting with a fixed-pill combination is better than sequential treatment to improve quality of life. Dr. Bozkurt said it is likely that the lack of significant benefit on 6MWD in this study was due to the relatively small sample size, but an improvement in this measure would be another reason to consider a front-line fixed-dose combination.

Dr. Chin, in an interview, did not agree. She agreed that a larger sample size might have yielded a significant improvement in 6MWD, but she noted this outcome was moving in the right direction and was not the primary endpoint. In her opinion, this phase 3 trial does confirm that fixed-dose combination is well tolerated, has acceptable safety, and markedly improves PVR, fulfilling the guideline goal of controlling PAH more quickly.

Dr. Chin reports financial relationships with Altavant, Arena, Gossamer Bio, Janssen, Merck, ShouTi, and United Therapeutics. Dr. Goldberg reports financial relationships with Abbott, Respicardia/Zoll, and Viscardia. Dr. Bozkurt reports financial relationships with Abbott, Amgen, AstraZeneca, Boehringer Ingelheim, Cardurion, LivaNova, Relypsa, Renovacor, Sanofi-Aventis, and Vifor.

Already commonly used in combination for the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), macitentan and tadalafil are safe and effective in a fixed-dose combination even as first-line therapy, according to a randomized multicenter comparative trial.

The fixed-dose combination “led to a highly significant and marked improvement in pulmonary vascular resistance when compared to macitentan and tadalafil as monotherapies,” Kelly Chin, MD, reported at the joint scientific sessions of the American College of Cardiology and the World Heart Federation.

Ted Bosworth/MDedge News

Guidelines encourage rapid PVR reductions

In practice, it is common to start treatment with either the endothelial receptor antagonist (ERA) macitentan, the phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitor tadalafil, or other frequently used medications for PAH, and to then add additional treatments, according to Dr. Chin. She pointed out, however, that guidelines, including those issued jointly by the European Society of Cardiology and the European Respiratory Society, encourage rapid escalation of therapy to quickly lower pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR).

In general, both macitentan and tadalafil are well tolerated, but the advantage and the safety of rapidly reducing PVR when these are initiated together in a single pill had not been evaluated previously in a major trial. In this double-blind phase III trial, called A DUE, 187 patients in functional class II or III PAH were randomized. The three-arm study included both treatment naive patients and patients who had been on stable doses (> 3 months) of an ERA or a PDE5 inhibitor, explained Dr. Chin, director of pulmonary hypertension at the UT Southwestern, Dallas.

Treatment naive patients, representing about 53% of the study population, were randomized to 10 mg macitentan monotherapy, 40 mg tadalafil monotherapy, or a fixed-dose, single-pill combination containing both. If on a stable dose of an ERA at trial entry, patients were randomized to 10 macitentan as a monotherapy or to the fixed dose combination. Patients entering the trial already on a stable dose of a PDE5 inhibitor were randomized to 40 mg tadalafil or the combination.
 

PVR reduced twofold on combination therapy

Relative to macitentan monotherapy, the percentage change from baseline in PVR by ratio of geometric mean, which was the primary outcome, was about twice as high on the combination (45% vs. 23%) at the end of the 16-week trial. This translates into a 29% PVR reduction (hazard ratio, 0.71; P < .0001).

For combination therapy relative to tadalafil monotherapy, the advantage for the fixed dose combination (44% vs. 22%) was about the same, also providing a nearly 30% relative reduction (HR, 0.72; P < .0001).

The increases in 6-minute walk distance (6MWD) at 16 weeks, a secondary endpoint, numerically favored the combination pill over both macitentan monotherapy (52.9 vs. 39.5 meters; P = .38) and tadalafil (43.4 vs. 15.9 meters; P = .059), but only the improvement relative to tadalafil monotherapy was considered a trend.

The proportion of patients who experienced at least one serious adverse event was higher in the combination arm (14.0%) relative to single agent macitentan (8.6%) or single agent tadalafil (9.1%). The adverse events and serious adverse events more common on the combination included hypotension, fluid retention, and anemia. This latter side effect occurred in 18.7%, 2.9%, and 2.3% in the combination, macitentan monotherapy, and tadalafil arms, respectively.

Several of those invited by the ACC to discuss the paper, including Lee R. Goldberg, MD, section chief of advanced heart failure and cardiac transplant, University of Pennsylvania, Philadelphia, raised concern about the increased rate of anemia among those in the combination pill. Two of the patients (2%) treated with the combination developed a hemoglobin < 8 g/dL.

Overall, nine (8.4%) of those on the fixed-dose combination, two (4.5%) of those randomized to tadalafil monotherapy, and none of the patients randomized to macitentan discontinued therapy due to side effects.
 

Anemia risk unexpected

Based on “the unexpected signal of an anemia risk,” Biykem Bozkurt, MD, PhD, chair of cardiology at Baylor College of Medicine, Houston, said that a larger scale trial with a longer follow-up is needed. While the concept of front-loading two drugs is attractive “for the very challenging PAH population,” she called for further evaluation of this safety signal before clinicians switch from the current practice of starting with one PAH therapy before adding others.

Mitchel L. Zoler/MDedge News

In addition, Dr. Bozkurt said a more definitive study would be helpful in determining whether starting with a fixed-pill combination is better than sequential treatment to improve quality of life. Dr. Bozkurt said it is likely that the lack of significant benefit on 6MWD in this study was due to the relatively small sample size, but an improvement in this measure would be another reason to consider a front-line fixed-dose combination.

Dr. Chin, in an interview, did not agree. She agreed that a larger sample size might have yielded a significant improvement in 6MWD, but she noted this outcome was moving in the right direction and was not the primary endpoint. In her opinion, this phase 3 trial does confirm that fixed-dose combination is well tolerated, has acceptable safety, and markedly improves PVR, fulfilling the guideline goal of controlling PAH more quickly.

Dr. Chin reports financial relationships with Altavant, Arena, Gossamer Bio, Janssen, Merck, ShouTi, and United Therapeutics. Dr. Goldberg reports financial relationships with Abbott, Respicardia/Zoll, and Viscardia. Dr. Bozkurt reports financial relationships with Abbott, Amgen, AstraZeneca, Boehringer Ingelheim, Cardurion, LivaNova, Relypsa, Renovacor, Sanofi-Aventis, and Vifor.

Two feet–one hand syndrome

Two feet–one hand syndrome is a common term used to describe tinea manuum on one hand with bilateral tinea pedis. This condition, also known as ringworm, is a fungal infection caused by a dermatophyte, and presents as a superficial annular or circular rash with a raised, scaly border.

Symptoms include dryness and itchiness, and the lesions may appear red-pink on lighter skin and gray-brown on darker skin types. Although these infections can arise in a variety of combinations, two feet–one hand syndrome occurs in about 60% of cases. Trichophyton rubrum is the most common agent.

Diagnosis is made by patient history, dermoscopic visualization, and staining of skin scraping with KOH or fungal culture. Dermatophytes prefer moist, warm environments, so this disease is prevalent in tropical conditions and associated with moist public areas such as locker rooms and showers. As a result, tinea pedis is also nicknamed “athlete’s foot” for its common presentation in athletes. The fungus spreads easily through contact and can survive on infected surfaces, so patients often self-inoculate by touching/scratching the affected area then touching another body part. Cautions that should be taken to avoid transmission include not sharing personal care products, washing the area and keeping it dry, and avoiding close, humid environments.

Dr. Donna Bilu Martin

The syndrome is highly associated with onychomycosis, which can be more difficult to treat and often requires oral antifungals. Tinea manuum is commonly misdiagnosed as hand dermatitis or eczema and treated with topical steroids, which will exacerbate or flare the tinea.

Two feet–one hand syndrome can typically be treated with over-the-counter topical antifungal medications such as miconazole or clotrimazole. Topical ketoconazole may be prescribed, and oral terbinafine or itraconazole are used in more severe cases when a larger body surface area is affected or in immunocompromised patients.

Dr. Donna Bilu Martin

This case and photo were submitted by Lucas Shapiro, BS, Nova Southeastern University, Davie, Fla.; Kiran C. Patel, Tampa Bay Regional Campus; and Dr. Bilu Martin.
 

Dr. Bilu Martin is a board-certified dermatologist in private practice at Premier Dermatology, MD, in Aventura, Fla. More diagnostic cases are available at mdedge.com/dermatology. To submit a case for possible publication, send an email to [email protected].

References

Cleveland Clinic. Tinea manuum: Symptoms, causes & treatment. 2022. https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diseases/24063-tinea-manuum.

Ugalde-Trejo NX et al. Curr Fungal Infect Rep. 2022 Nov 17. doi: 10.1007/s12281-022-00447-9.

Mizumoto J. Cureus. 2021 Dec 27;13(12):e20758.

Two feet–one hand syndrome

Two feet–one hand syndrome is a common term used to describe tinea manuum on one hand with bilateral tinea pedis. This condition, also known as ringworm, is a fungal infection caused by a dermatophyte, and presents as a superficial annular or circular rash with a raised, scaly border.

Symptoms include dryness and itchiness, and the lesions may appear red-pink on lighter skin and gray-brown on darker skin types. Although these infections can arise in a variety of combinations, two feet–one hand syndrome occurs in about 60% of cases. Trichophyton rubrum is the most common agent.

Diagnosis is made by patient history, dermoscopic visualization, and staining of skin scraping with KOH or fungal culture. Dermatophytes prefer moist, warm environments, so this disease is prevalent in tropical conditions and associated with moist public areas such as locker rooms and showers. As a result, tinea pedis is also nicknamed “athlete’s foot” for its common presentation in athletes. The fungus spreads easily through contact and can survive on infected surfaces, so patients often self-inoculate by touching/scratching the affected area then touching another body part. Cautions that should be taken to avoid transmission include not sharing personal care products, washing the area and keeping it dry, and avoiding close, humid environments.

Dr. Donna Bilu Martin

The syndrome is highly associated with onychomycosis, which can be more difficult to treat and often requires oral antifungals. Tinea manuum is commonly misdiagnosed as hand dermatitis or eczema and treated with topical steroids, which will exacerbate or flare the tinea.

Two feet–one hand syndrome can typically be treated with over-the-counter topical antifungal medications such as miconazole or clotrimazole. Topical ketoconazole may be prescribed, and oral terbinafine or itraconazole are used in more severe cases when a larger body surface area is affected or in immunocompromised patients.

Dr. Donna Bilu Martin

This case and photo were submitted by Lucas Shapiro, BS, Nova Southeastern University, Davie, Fla.; Kiran C. Patel, Tampa Bay Regional Campus; and Dr. Bilu Martin.
 

Dr. Bilu Martin is a board-certified dermatologist in private practice at Premier Dermatology, MD, in Aventura, Fla. More diagnostic cases are available at mdedge.com/dermatology. To submit a case for possible publication, send an email to [email protected].

References

Cleveland Clinic. Tinea manuum: Symptoms, causes & treatment. 2022. https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diseases/24063-tinea-manuum.

Ugalde-Trejo NX et al. Curr Fungal Infect Rep. 2022 Nov 17. doi: 10.1007/s12281-022-00447-9.

Mizumoto J. Cureus. 2021 Dec 27;13(12):e20758.

Two feet–one hand syndrome

Two feet–one hand syndrome is a common term used to describe tinea manuum on one hand with bilateral tinea pedis. This condition, also known as ringworm, is a fungal infection caused by a dermatophyte, and presents as a superficial annular or circular rash with a raised, scaly border.

Symptoms include dryness and itchiness, and the lesions may appear red-pink on lighter skin and gray-brown on darker skin types. Although these infections can arise in a variety of combinations, two feet–one hand syndrome occurs in about 60% of cases. Trichophyton rubrum is the most common agent.

Diagnosis is made by patient history, dermoscopic visualization, and staining of skin scraping with KOH or fungal culture. Dermatophytes prefer moist, warm environments, so this disease is prevalent in tropical conditions and associated with moist public areas such as locker rooms and showers. As a result, tinea pedis is also nicknamed “athlete’s foot” for its common presentation in athletes. The fungus spreads easily through contact and can survive on infected surfaces, so patients often self-inoculate by touching/scratching the affected area then touching another body part. Cautions that should be taken to avoid transmission include not sharing personal care products, washing the area and keeping it dry, and avoiding close, humid environments.

Dr. Donna Bilu Martin

The syndrome is highly associated with onychomycosis, which can be more difficult to treat and often requires oral antifungals. Tinea manuum is commonly misdiagnosed as hand dermatitis or eczema and treated with topical steroids, which will exacerbate or flare the tinea.

Two feet–one hand syndrome can typically be treated with over-the-counter topical antifungal medications such as miconazole or clotrimazole. Topical ketoconazole may be prescribed, and oral terbinafine or itraconazole are used in more severe cases when a larger body surface area is affected or in immunocompromised patients.

Dr. Donna Bilu Martin

This case and photo were submitted by Lucas Shapiro, BS, Nova Southeastern University, Davie, Fla.; Kiran C. Patel, Tampa Bay Regional Campus; and Dr. Bilu Martin.
 

Dr. Bilu Martin is a board-certified dermatologist in private practice at Premier Dermatology, MD, in Aventura, Fla. More diagnostic cases are available at mdedge.com/dermatology. To submit a case for possible publication, send an email to [email protected].

References

Cleveland Clinic. Tinea manuum: Symptoms, causes & treatment. 2022. https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diseases/24063-tinea-manuum.

Ugalde-Trejo NX et al. Curr Fungal Infect Rep. 2022 Nov 17. doi: 10.1007/s12281-022-00447-9.

Mizumoto J. Cureus. 2021 Dec 27;13(12):e20758.

It was déjà vu last month when a university in Belgium stripped Egyptian physician Hatem Abu Hashim of his doctorate after he was found to have fabricated data in his thesis. 

Just weeks earlier, another Egyptian doctor, Ahmed Badawy, lost the PhD degree he had earned at a Dutch university in 2008. Abu Hashim and Badawy are both professors in the department of obstetrics and gynecology at Mansoura University in Egypt.

According to an investigation by the Vrije Universeit Brussel (VUB), which awarded Abu Hashim his PhD in 2013, the researcher was in “serious violation of scientific integrity” based on “overwhelming evidence of fabrication of statistical outcomes” and “clear lack of statistical proficiency.” 

Ben Mol of Monash University in Australia, a researcher turned data sleuth who alerted VUB and Utrecht University to problems with Abu Hashim and Badawy ‘s research in 2021 and 2020, respectively, told Retraction Watch by email, “The good news is obviously that there is a firm conclusion from both universities after a robust process independent of the complaint.” 

Mol also laid out his concerns in a study published with then-PhD student Esmée Bordewijk and others in 2020, as Retraction Watch reported that year. 

“Yes, it could have been a bit faster, but on the other hand we have this conversation because they took the right decision,” he added.

Abu Hashim’s PhD thesis is based on 11 randomized controlled trials, all of which have been published. Ostensibly, the studies were done at Mansoura University before Abu Hashim enrolled as an external PhD candidate at VUB. 

A report from the Flemish Commission for Scientific Integrity, which gave a second opinion on the VUB findings following a request from Abu Hashim, offers a “credible” scenario for how the 11 papers came about, suggesting “that Abu Hashim had learned to write medical papers by reading others, that he made up all reported values and that he wrote more papers by adapting previous papers, copying results between articles and applying small alterations (+1 or -1 in some digits).”

The commission agreed with VUB that “complete (or virtually complete) fabrication is the only reasonable explanation for the findings.” It also noted that “strikingly,” the researcher did not address any of the allegations against him:

“To the contrary, his defence consists mainly of accusing those bringing forward the complaint of misconduct and questioning their work and methods.”

Neither Abu Hashim nor Mansoura University responded to requests for comment.

The school, however, has known about Abu Hashim’s fraudulent research for a decade. In an internal investigation from 2014, then-head of department Nasser El Lakany and five other professors found that one of the researcher’s trials had never been done; six trials included an impossibly large number of women with polycystic ovary syndrome; and two reported 366 ovarian-drilling procedures while records were found to exist only for 94. The latter two groups of studies formed part of Abu Hashim’s PhD thesis.

“There is no excuse for the researcher’ [sic] misconduct (fabricating imaginary data and studies not done at all, or studies with doubtful cases not in records),” the Mansoura professors wrote, according to an English translation of the original Arabic report.   

In 2021, sleuth Nick Brown also began poring over the Egyptian researchers’ work after a Dutch journalist requested his opinion. 

“People don’t read papers. They read the abstract. They say, congratulations, great paper. And then they go back to what they were doing the rest of their day because reading a paper is quite hard,” Brown told Retraction Watch. “I’m not very good at statistics, but I can read a table and things jump out at me.”

Brown quickly realized that Badawy and Abu Hashim’s publications were littered with “fatal flaws.” Virtually all of the P-values were wrong. In some cases, they exceeded 1 – a mathematical impossibility. In others, vastly different values were given for identical statistical tests that by definition should have yielded the same results. 

“I assume the authors were just making up ‘likely-looking’ numbers in a hurry and didn’t realise that these needed to be identical,” Brown said in an email. “We often find that people who cheat are not very good at knowing what genuine numbers should look like.” 

Brown, who himself has an external PhD from a Dutch university, noted that institutions receive the same amount of money from the government whether a PhD candidate is external or internal:

“So someone comes along with some papers already done. They need to write a top and tail of a thesis. They’re probably not going to need a whole lot of supervision.  Exactly how many questions do you ask?” 

A spokesperson for Utrecht University told Retraction Watch by email:

“We have asked ourselves the question how this could have happened. Why did the supervisor and the Doctoral Examination Committee not notice this? The articles that were the basis for the thesis, were published in peer reviewed journals. Only much later it came to light that the data underlying these articles had been compromised.”

She added that the rules for external PhD candidates have been tightened since 2008, when Badawy obtained his degree (the changes are described here). 

Sam Jaspers, a VUB press officer, told us, “the Vrije Universiteit Brussel is updating its PhD regulations. External PhD students working with existing datasets created at a university other than the VUB and publications reviewed by scientific journals will soon (this spring) be fully audited by the VUB.”

Meanwhile, Mol, whose work on various cases recently featured in The Economist, worries about all the fake studies that have not yet been retracted, and the impact they might have on patient care. 

“I cannot understand that ... three years after our publication of the Bordewijk study, still half of the Badawy and Abu Hashim studies are out there even without an expression of concern,” he said. “What ideally should happen is that there should be a mechanism that all the journals and publishers bundle their investigation.”

A version of this article first appeared on retractionwatch.com.

It was déjà vu last month when a university in Belgium stripped Egyptian physician Hatem Abu Hashim of his doctorate after he was found to have fabricated data in his thesis. 

Just weeks earlier, another Egyptian doctor, Ahmed Badawy, lost the PhD degree he had earned at a Dutch university in 2008. Abu Hashim and Badawy are both professors in the department of obstetrics and gynecology at Mansoura University in Egypt.

According to an investigation by the Vrije Universeit Brussel (VUB), which awarded Abu Hashim his PhD in 2013, the researcher was in “serious violation of scientific integrity” based on “overwhelming evidence of fabrication of statistical outcomes” and “clear lack of statistical proficiency.” 

Ben Mol of Monash University in Australia, a researcher turned data sleuth who alerted VUB and Utrecht University to problems with Abu Hashim and Badawy ‘s research in 2021 and 2020, respectively, told Retraction Watch by email, “The good news is obviously that there is a firm conclusion from both universities after a robust process independent of the complaint.” 

Mol also laid out his concerns in a study published with then-PhD student Esmée Bordewijk and others in 2020, as Retraction Watch reported that year. 

“Yes, it could have been a bit faster, but on the other hand we have this conversation because they took the right decision,” he added.

Abu Hashim’s PhD thesis is based on 11 randomized controlled trials, all of which have been published. Ostensibly, the studies were done at Mansoura University before Abu Hashim enrolled as an external PhD candidate at VUB. 

A report from the Flemish Commission for Scientific Integrity, which gave a second opinion on the VUB findings following a request from Abu Hashim, offers a “credible” scenario for how the 11 papers came about, suggesting “that Abu Hashim had learned to write medical papers by reading others, that he made up all reported values and that he wrote more papers by adapting previous papers, copying results between articles and applying small alterations (+1 or -1 in some digits).”

The commission agreed with VUB that “complete (or virtually complete) fabrication is the only reasonable explanation for the findings.” It also noted that “strikingly,” the researcher did not address any of the allegations against him:

“To the contrary, his defence consists mainly of accusing those bringing forward the complaint of misconduct and questioning their work and methods.”

Neither Abu Hashim nor Mansoura University responded to requests for comment.

The school, however, has known about Abu Hashim’s fraudulent research for a decade. In an internal investigation from 2014, then-head of department Nasser El Lakany and five other professors found that one of the researcher’s trials had never been done; six trials included an impossibly large number of women with polycystic ovary syndrome; and two reported 366 ovarian-drilling procedures while records were found to exist only for 94. The latter two groups of studies formed part of Abu Hashim’s PhD thesis.

“There is no excuse for the researcher’ [sic] misconduct (fabricating imaginary data and studies not done at all, or studies with doubtful cases not in records),” the Mansoura professors wrote, according to an English translation of the original Arabic report.   

In 2021, sleuth Nick Brown also began poring over the Egyptian researchers’ work after a Dutch journalist requested his opinion. 

“People don’t read papers. They read the abstract. They say, congratulations, great paper. And then they go back to what they were doing the rest of their day because reading a paper is quite hard,” Brown told Retraction Watch. “I’m not very good at statistics, but I can read a table and things jump out at me.”

Brown quickly realized that Badawy and Abu Hashim’s publications were littered with “fatal flaws.” Virtually all of the P-values were wrong. In some cases, they exceeded 1 – a mathematical impossibility. In others, vastly different values were given for identical statistical tests that by definition should have yielded the same results. 

“I assume the authors were just making up ‘likely-looking’ numbers in a hurry and didn’t realise that these needed to be identical,” Brown said in an email. “We often find that people who cheat are not very good at knowing what genuine numbers should look like.” 

Brown, who himself has an external PhD from a Dutch university, noted that institutions receive the same amount of money from the government whether a PhD candidate is external or internal:

“So someone comes along with some papers already done. They need to write a top and tail of a thesis. They’re probably not going to need a whole lot of supervision.  Exactly how many questions do you ask?” 

A spokesperson for Utrecht University told Retraction Watch by email:

“We have asked ourselves the question how this could have happened. Why did the supervisor and the Doctoral Examination Committee not notice this? The articles that were the basis for the thesis, were published in peer reviewed journals. Only much later it came to light that the data underlying these articles had been compromised.”

She added that the rules for external PhD candidates have been tightened since 2008, when Badawy obtained his degree (the changes are described here). 

Sam Jaspers, a VUB press officer, told us, “the Vrije Universiteit Brussel is updating its PhD regulations. External PhD students working with existing datasets created at a university other than the VUB and publications reviewed by scientific journals will soon (this spring) be fully audited by the VUB.”

Meanwhile, Mol, whose work on various cases recently featured in The Economist, worries about all the fake studies that have not yet been retracted, and the impact they might have on patient care. 

“I cannot understand that ... three years after our publication of the Bordewijk study, still half of the Badawy and Abu Hashim studies are out there even without an expression of concern,” he said. “What ideally should happen is that there should be a mechanism that all the journals and publishers bundle their investigation.”

A version of this article first appeared on retractionwatch.com.

It was déjà vu last month when a university in Belgium stripped Egyptian physician Hatem Abu Hashim of his doctorate after he was found to have fabricated data in his thesis. 

Just weeks earlier, another Egyptian doctor, Ahmed Badawy, lost the PhD degree he had earned at a Dutch university in 2008. Abu Hashim and Badawy are both professors in the department of obstetrics and gynecology at Mansoura University in Egypt.

According to an investigation by the Vrije Universeit Brussel (VUB), which awarded Abu Hashim his PhD in 2013, the researcher was in “serious violation of scientific integrity” based on “overwhelming evidence of fabrication of statistical outcomes” and “clear lack of statistical proficiency.” 

Ben Mol of Monash University in Australia, a researcher turned data sleuth who alerted VUB and Utrecht University to problems with Abu Hashim and Badawy ‘s research in 2021 and 2020, respectively, told Retraction Watch by email, “The good news is obviously that there is a firm conclusion from both universities after a robust process independent of the complaint.” 

Mol also laid out his concerns in a study published with then-PhD student Esmée Bordewijk and others in 2020, as Retraction Watch reported that year. 

“Yes, it could have been a bit faster, but on the other hand we have this conversation because they took the right decision,” he added.

Abu Hashim’s PhD thesis is based on 11 randomized controlled trials, all of which have been published. Ostensibly, the studies were done at Mansoura University before Abu Hashim enrolled as an external PhD candidate at VUB. 

A report from the Flemish Commission for Scientific Integrity, which gave a second opinion on the VUB findings following a request from Abu Hashim, offers a “credible” scenario for how the 11 papers came about, suggesting “that Abu Hashim had learned to write medical papers by reading others, that he made up all reported values and that he wrote more papers by adapting previous papers, copying results between articles and applying small alterations (+1 or -1 in some digits).”

The commission agreed with VUB that “complete (or virtually complete) fabrication is the only reasonable explanation for the findings.” It also noted that “strikingly,” the researcher did not address any of the allegations against him:

“To the contrary, his defence consists mainly of accusing those bringing forward the complaint of misconduct and questioning their work and methods.”

Neither Abu Hashim nor Mansoura University responded to requests for comment.

The school, however, has known about Abu Hashim’s fraudulent research for a decade. In an internal investigation from 2014, then-head of department Nasser El Lakany and five other professors found that one of the researcher’s trials had never been done; six trials included an impossibly large number of women with polycystic ovary syndrome; and two reported 366 ovarian-drilling procedures while records were found to exist only for 94. The latter two groups of studies formed part of Abu Hashim’s PhD thesis.

“There is no excuse for the researcher’ [sic] misconduct (fabricating imaginary data and studies not done at all, or studies with doubtful cases not in records),” the Mansoura professors wrote, according to an English translation of the original Arabic report.   

In 2021, sleuth Nick Brown also began poring over the Egyptian researchers’ work after a Dutch journalist requested his opinion. 

“People don’t read papers. They read the abstract. They say, congratulations, great paper. And then they go back to what they were doing the rest of their day because reading a paper is quite hard,” Brown told Retraction Watch. “I’m not very good at statistics, but I can read a table and things jump out at me.”

Brown quickly realized that Badawy and Abu Hashim’s publications were littered with “fatal flaws.” Virtually all of the P-values were wrong. In some cases, they exceeded 1 – a mathematical impossibility. In others, vastly different values were given for identical statistical tests that by definition should have yielded the same results. 

“I assume the authors were just making up ‘likely-looking’ numbers in a hurry and didn’t realise that these needed to be identical,” Brown said in an email. “We often find that people who cheat are not very good at knowing what genuine numbers should look like.” 

Brown, who himself has an external PhD from a Dutch university, noted that institutions receive the same amount of money from the government whether a PhD candidate is external or internal:

“So someone comes along with some papers already done. They need to write a top and tail of a thesis. They’re probably not going to need a whole lot of supervision.  Exactly how many questions do you ask?” 

A spokesperson for Utrecht University told Retraction Watch by email:

“We have asked ourselves the question how this could have happened. Why did the supervisor and the Doctoral Examination Committee not notice this? The articles that were the basis for the thesis, were published in peer reviewed journals. Only much later it came to light that the data underlying these articles had been compromised.”

She added that the rules for external PhD candidates have been tightened since 2008, when Badawy obtained his degree (the changes are described here). 

Sam Jaspers, a VUB press officer, told us, “the Vrije Universiteit Brussel is updating its PhD regulations. External PhD students working with existing datasets created at a university other than the VUB and publications reviewed by scientific journals will soon (this spring) be fully audited by the VUB.”

Meanwhile, Mol, whose work on various cases recently featured in The Economist, worries about all the fake studies that have not yet been retracted, and the impact they might have on patient care. 

“I cannot understand that ... three years after our publication of the Bordewijk study, still half of the Badawy and Abu Hashim studies are out there even without an expression of concern,” he said. “What ideally should happen is that there should be a mechanism that all the journals and publishers bundle their investigation.”

A version of this article first appeared on retractionwatch.com.

A 48-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presented to the emergency department from the rheumatology clinic for digital ischemia. The clinical manifestations of her SLE consisted predominantly of arthralgias, which had been previously well controlled on hydroxychloroquine 300 mg/d PO. On presentation, she denied oral ulcers, alopecia, shortness of breath, chest pain/pressure, and history of blood clots or miscarriages. 

On exam, the patient was afebrile and had a heart rate of 74 bpm; blood pressure, 140/77 mm Hg; and respiratory rate, 18 breaths/min. The fingertips on her left hand were tender and cool to the touch, and the fingertips of her second through fifth digits were blue (FIGURE).

Laboratory workup was notable for the following: hemoglobin, 9.3 g/dL (normal range, 11.6-15.2 g/dL) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate, 44 mm/h (normal range, ≤ 25 mm/h). Double-stranded DNA and complement levels were normal.

Transthoracic echocardiogram did not show any valvular vegetations, and blood cultures from admission were negative. Computed tomography angiography (CTA) with contrast of her left upper extremity showed a filling defect in the origin of the left subclavian artery. Digital plethysmography showed dampened flow signals in the second through fifth digits of the left hand.

Tests for antiphospholipid antibodies were positive for lupus anticoagulant; there were also high titers of anti-β-2-glycoprotein immunoglobulin (Ig) G (58 SGU; normal, ≤ 20 SGU) and anticardiolipin IgG (242.4 CU; normal, ≤ 20 CU).

WHAT IS YOUR DIAGNOSIS?
HOW WOULD YOU TREAT THIS PATIENT?

Given our patient’s SLE, left subclavian artery thrombosis, digital ischemia, and high-titer antiphospholipid antibodies, we had significant concern for antiphospholipid syndrome (APS). The diagnosis of APS is most often based on the fulfillment of the revised ­Sapporo classification criteria. These criteria include both clinical criteria (vascular thrombosis or pregnancy morbidity) and laboratory criteria (the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies on at least 2 separate occasions separated by 12 weeks).¹ Our patient met clinical criteria given the evidence of subclavian artery thrombosis on CTA as well as digital plethysmography findings consistent with digital emboli. To meet laboratory criteria, she would have needed to have persistent high-titer antiphospholipid antibodies 12 weeks apart.

Previous studies have estimated that 30% to 50% of patients with SLE who test positive for antiphospholipid antibodies will develop thrombosis.

APS is an autoimmune disease in which the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies is associated with thrombosis; it can be divided into primary and secondary APS. The estimated prevalence of APS is 50 per 100,000 people in the United States.² Primary APS occurs in the absence of an underlying autoimmune disease, while secondary APS occurs in the presence of an underlying autoimmune disease.

The autoimmune disease most often associated with APS is SLE.³ Among patients with SLE, 15% to 34% have positive lupus anticoagulant and 12% to 30% have anticardio­lipin antibodies.^4-6 This is compared with young healthy subjects among whom only 1% to 4% have positive lupus anticoagulant and 1% to 5% have anticardiolipin antibodies.⁷ Previous studies have estimated that 30% to 50% of patients with SLE who test positive for antiphospholipid antibodies will develop thrombosis.^5,7

Differential includes Raynaud phenomenon, vasculitis

The differential diagnosis for digital ischemia in a patient with SLE includes APS, Raynaud phenomenon, vasculitis, and septic emboli.

Raynaud phenomenon can manifest in patients with SLE, but the presence of thrombosis on CTA and high-titer positive antiphospholipid antibodies make the diagnosis of APS more likely. Additionally, Raynaud phenomenon is typically temperature dependent with vasospasm in the digital arteries, occurring in cold temperatures and resolving with warming.

Systemic vasculitis may develop in patients with SLE, but in our case was less likely given the patient did not have any evidence of vasculitis on CTA, such as blood vessel wall thickening and/or enhancement.⁸

Septic emboli from endocarditis can cause digital ischemia but is typically associated with positive blood cultures, fever, and other systemic signs of infection, and/or vegetations on an echocardiogram.

Continue to: Thrombosis determines intensity of lifelong antiocagulation Tx

The mainstay of therapy for patients with APS is lifelong anticoagulation with a vitamin K antagonist. The intensity of anticoagulation is determined based on the presence of venous or arterial thrombosis. In patients who present with arterial thrombosis, a higher intensity vitamin K antagonist (ie, international normalized ratio [INR] goal > 3) or the addition of low-dose aspirin should be considered.^9,10

Factor Xa inhibitors are generally not recommended at this time due to the lack of evidence to support their use.¹⁰ Additionally, a randomized clinical trial comparing rivaroxaban and warfarin in patients with triple antiphospholipid antibody positivity was terminated prematurely due to increased thromboembolic events in the rivaroxaban arm.¹¹

For patients with secondary APS in the setting of SLE, hydroxychloroquine in combination with a vitamin K antagonist has been shown to decrease the risk for recurrent thrombosis compared with treatment with a vitamin K antagonist alone.¹²

Our patient was started on a heparin drip and transitioned to an oral vitamin K antagonist with an INR goal of 2 to 3. Lifelong anticoagulation was planned. The pain and discoloration in her hands improved on anticoagulation and had nearly resolved by the time of discharge. Given her history of arterial thrombosis, the addition of aspirin was also considered, but this decision was ultimately deferred to her outpatient rheumatologist and hematologist.

A 48-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presented to the emergency department from the rheumatology clinic for digital ischemia. The clinical manifestations of her SLE consisted predominantly of arthralgias, which had been previously well controlled on hydroxychloroquine 300 mg/d PO. On presentation, she denied oral ulcers, alopecia, shortness of breath, chest pain/pressure, and history of blood clots or miscarriages. 

On exam, the patient was afebrile and had a heart rate of 74 bpm; blood pressure, 140/77 mm Hg; and respiratory rate, 18 breaths/min. The fingertips on her left hand were tender and cool to the touch, and the fingertips of her second through fifth digits were blue (FIGURE).

Laboratory workup was notable for the following: hemoglobin, 9.3 g/dL (normal range, 11.6-15.2 g/dL) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate, 44 mm/h (normal range, ≤ 25 mm/h). Double-stranded DNA and complement levels were normal.

Transthoracic echocardiogram did not show any valvular vegetations, and blood cultures from admission were negative. Computed tomography angiography (CTA) with contrast of her left upper extremity showed a filling defect in the origin of the left subclavian artery. Digital plethysmography showed dampened flow signals in the second through fifth digits of the left hand.

Tests for antiphospholipid antibodies were positive for lupus anticoagulant; there were also high titers of anti-β-2-glycoprotein immunoglobulin (Ig) G (58 SGU; normal, ≤ 20 SGU) and anticardiolipin IgG (242.4 CU; normal, ≤ 20 CU).

WHAT IS YOUR DIAGNOSIS?
HOW WOULD YOU TREAT THIS PATIENT?

Given our patient’s SLE, left subclavian artery thrombosis, digital ischemia, and high-titer antiphospholipid antibodies, we had significant concern for antiphospholipid syndrome (APS). The diagnosis of APS is most often based on the fulfillment of the revised ­Sapporo classification criteria. These criteria include both clinical criteria (vascular thrombosis or pregnancy morbidity) and laboratory criteria (the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies on at least 2 separate occasions separated by 12 weeks).¹ Our patient met clinical criteria given the evidence of subclavian artery thrombosis on CTA as well as digital plethysmography findings consistent with digital emboli. To meet laboratory criteria, she would have needed to have persistent high-titer antiphospholipid antibodies 12 weeks apart.

Previous studies have estimated that 30% to 50% of patients with SLE who test positive for antiphospholipid antibodies will develop thrombosis.

APS is an autoimmune disease in which the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies is associated with thrombosis; it can be divided into primary and secondary APS. The estimated prevalence of APS is 50 per 100,000 people in the United States.² Primary APS occurs in the absence of an underlying autoimmune disease, while secondary APS occurs in the presence of an underlying autoimmune disease.

The autoimmune disease most often associated with APS is SLE.³ Among patients with SLE, 15% to 34% have positive lupus anticoagulant and 12% to 30% have anticardio­lipin antibodies.^4-6 This is compared with young healthy subjects among whom only 1% to 4% have positive lupus anticoagulant and 1% to 5% have anticardiolipin antibodies.⁷ Previous studies have estimated that 30% to 50% of patients with SLE who test positive for antiphospholipid antibodies will develop thrombosis.^5,7

Differential includes Raynaud phenomenon, vasculitis

The differential diagnosis for digital ischemia in a patient with SLE includes APS, Raynaud phenomenon, vasculitis, and septic emboli.

Raynaud phenomenon can manifest in patients with SLE, but the presence of thrombosis on CTA and high-titer positive antiphospholipid antibodies make the diagnosis of APS more likely. Additionally, Raynaud phenomenon is typically temperature dependent with vasospasm in the digital arteries, occurring in cold temperatures and resolving with warming.

Systemic vasculitis may develop in patients with SLE, but in our case was less likely given the patient did not have any evidence of vasculitis on CTA, such as blood vessel wall thickening and/or enhancement.⁸

Septic emboli from endocarditis can cause digital ischemia but is typically associated with positive blood cultures, fever, and other systemic signs of infection, and/or vegetations on an echocardiogram.

Continue to: Thrombosis determines intensity of lifelong antiocagulation Tx

The mainstay of therapy for patients with APS is lifelong anticoagulation with a vitamin K antagonist. The intensity of anticoagulation is determined based on the presence of venous or arterial thrombosis. In patients who present with arterial thrombosis, a higher intensity vitamin K antagonist (ie, international normalized ratio [INR] goal > 3) or the addition of low-dose aspirin should be considered.^9,10

Factor Xa inhibitors are generally not recommended at this time due to the lack of evidence to support their use.¹⁰ Additionally, a randomized clinical trial comparing rivaroxaban and warfarin in patients with triple antiphospholipid antibody positivity was terminated prematurely due to increased thromboembolic events in the rivaroxaban arm.¹¹

For patients with secondary APS in the setting of SLE, hydroxychloroquine in combination with a vitamin K antagonist has been shown to decrease the risk for recurrent thrombosis compared with treatment with a vitamin K antagonist alone.¹²

Our patient was started on a heparin drip and transitioned to an oral vitamin K antagonist with an INR goal of 2 to 3. Lifelong anticoagulation was planned. The pain and discoloration in her hands improved on anticoagulation and had nearly resolved by the time of discharge. Given her history of arterial thrombosis, the addition of aspirin was also considered, but this decision was ultimately deferred to her outpatient rheumatologist and hematologist.

A 48-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presented to the emergency department from the rheumatology clinic for digital ischemia. The clinical manifestations of her SLE consisted predominantly of arthralgias, which had been previously well controlled on hydroxychloroquine 300 mg/d PO. On presentation, she denied oral ulcers, alopecia, shortness of breath, chest pain/pressure, and history of blood clots or miscarriages. 

On exam, the patient was afebrile and had a heart rate of 74 bpm; blood pressure, 140/77 mm Hg; and respiratory rate, 18 breaths/min. The fingertips on her left hand were tender and cool to the touch, and the fingertips of her second through fifth digits were blue (FIGURE).

Laboratory workup was notable for the following: hemoglobin, 9.3 g/dL (normal range, 11.6-15.2 g/dL) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate, 44 mm/h (normal range, ≤ 25 mm/h). Double-stranded DNA and complement levels were normal.

Transthoracic echocardiogram did not show any valvular vegetations, and blood cultures from admission were negative. Computed tomography angiography (CTA) with contrast of her left upper extremity showed a filling defect in the origin of the left subclavian artery. Digital plethysmography showed dampened flow signals in the second through fifth digits of the left hand.

Tests for antiphospholipid antibodies were positive for lupus anticoagulant; there were also high titers of anti-β-2-glycoprotein immunoglobulin (Ig) G (58 SGU; normal, ≤ 20 SGU) and anticardiolipin IgG (242.4 CU; normal, ≤ 20 CU).

WHAT IS YOUR DIAGNOSIS?
HOW WOULD YOU TREAT THIS PATIENT?

Given our patient’s SLE, left subclavian artery thrombosis, digital ischemia, and high-titer antiphospholipid antibodies, we had significant concern for antiphospholipid syndrome (APS). The diagnosis of APS is most often based on the fulfillment of the revised ­Sapporo classification criteria. These criteria include both clinical criteria (vascular thrombosis or pregnancy morbidity) and laboratory criteria (the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies on at least 2 separate occasions separated by 12 weeks).¹ Our patient met clinical criteria given the evidence of subclavian artery thrombosis on CTA as well as digital plethysmography findings consistent with digital emboli. To meet laboratory criteria, she would have needed to have persistent high-titer antiphospholipid antibodies 12 weeks apart.

Previous studies have estimated that 30% to 50% of patients with SLE who test positive for antiphospholipid antibodies will develop thrombosis.

APS is an autoimmune disease in which the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies is associated with thrombosis; it can be divided into primary and secondary APS. The estimated prevalence of APS is 50 per 100,000 people in the United States.² Primary APS occurs in the absence of an underlying autoimmune disease, while secondary APS occurs in the presence of an underlying autoimmune disease.

The autoimmune disease most often associated with APS is SLE.³ Among patients with SLE, 15% to 34% have positive lupus anticoagulant and 12% to 30% have anticardio­lipin antibodies.^4-6 This is compared with young healthy subjects among whom only 1% to 4% have positive lupus anticoagulant and 1% to 5% have anticardiolipin antibodies.⁷ Previous studies have estimated that 30% to 50% of patients with SLE who test positive for antiphospholipid antibodies will develop thrombosis.^5,7

Differential includes Raynaud phenomenon, vasculitis

The differential diagnosis for digital ischemia in a patient with SLE includes APS, Raynaud phenomenon, vasculitis, and septic emboli.

Raynaud phenomenon can manifest in patients with SLE, but the presence of thrombosis on CTA and high-titer positive antiphospholipid antibodies make the diagnosis of APS more likely. Additionally, Raynaud phenomenon is typically temperature dependent with vasospasm in the digital arteries, occurring in cold temperatures and resolving with warming.

Systemic vasculitis may develop in patients with SLE, but in our case was less likely given the patient did not have any evidence of vasculitis on CTA, such as blood vessel wall thickening and/or enhancement.⁸

Septic emboli from endocarditis can cause digital ischemia but is typically associated with positive blood cultures, fever, and other systemic signs of infection, and/or vegetations on an echocardiogram.

Continue to: Thrombosis determines intensity of lifelong antiocagulation Tx

The mainstay of therapy for patients with APS is lifelong anticoagulation with a vitamin K antagonist. The intensity of anticoagulation is determined based on the presence of venous or arterial thrombosis. In patients who present with arterial thrombosis, a higher intensity vitamin K antagonist (ie, international normalized ratio [INR] goal > 3) or the addition of low-dose aspirin should be considered.^9,10

Factor Xa inhibitors are generally not recommended at this time due to the lack of evidence to support their use.¹⁰ Additionally, a randomized clinical trial comparing rivaroxaban and warfarin in patients with triple antiphospholipid antibody positivity was terminated prematurely due to increased thromboembolic events in the rivaroxaban arm.¹¹

For patients with secondary APS in the setting of SLE, hydroxychloroquine in combination with a vitamin K antagonist has been shown to decrease the risk for recurrent thrombosis compared with treatment with a vitamin K antagonist alone.¹²

Our patient was started on a heparin drip and transitioned to an oral vitamin K antagonist with an INR goal of 2 to 3. Lifelong anticoagulation was planned. The pain and discoloration in her hands improved on anticoagulation and had nearly resolved by the time of discharge. Given her history of arterial thrombosis, the addition of aspirin was also considered, but this decision was ultimately deferred to her outpatient rheumatologist and hematologist.

Evidence summary

Association between higher maternal BMI and increased risk for stillbirth

The purpose of antenatal testing is to decrease the risk for stillbirth between visits. Because of the resources involved and the risk for false-positives when testing low-risk patients, antenatal testing is reserved for pregnant people with higher risk for stillbirth.

In a retrospective cohort study of more than 2.8 million singleton births including 9030 stillbirths, pregnant people with an ­elevated BMI had an increased risk for stillbirth compared to those with a normal BMI. The adjusted hazard ratio was 1.71 (95% CI, 1.62-1.83) for those with a BMI of 30.0 to 34.9; 2.04 (95% CI, 1.8-2.21) for those with a BMI of 35.0 to 39.9; and 2.50 (95% CI, 2.28-2.74) for those with a BMI ≥ 40.¹

A meta-analysis of 38 studies, which included data on 16,274 stillbirths, found that a 5-unit increase in BMI was associated with an increased risk for stillbirth (relative risk, 1.24; 95% CI, 1.18-1.30).²

Another meta-analysis included 6 cohort studies involving more than 1 million pregnancies and 3 case-control studies involving 2530 stillbirths and 2837 controls from 1980-2005. There was an association between increasing BMI and stillbirth: the odds ratio (OR) was 1.47 (95% CI, 1.08-1.94) for those with a BMI of 25.0 to 29.9 and 2.07 (95% CI, 1.59-2.74) for those with a BMI ≥ 30.0, compared to those with a normal BMI.³

However, a retrospective cohort study of 182,362 singleton births including 442 stillbirths found no association between stillbirth and increasing BMI. The OR was 1.10 (95% CI, 0.90-1.36) for those with a BMI of 25.0 to 29.9 and 1.09 (95% CI, 0.87-1.37) for those with a BMI ≥ 30.0, compared to those with a normal BMI.⁴ However, this cohort study may have been underpowered to detect an association between stillbirth and BMI.

Recommendations from others

In 2021, ACOG suggested that weekly antenatal testing may be considered from 34w0d for pregnant people with a BMI ≥ 40.0 and from 37w0d for pregnant people with a BMI between 35.0 and 39.9.⁵ The 2021 ACOG Practice Bulletin on Obesity in Pregnancy rates this recommendation as Level C—based primarily on consensus and expert opinion.⁶

A 2018 Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists Green-top Guideline recognizes “definitive recommendations for fetal surveillance are hampered by the lack of randomized controlled trials demonstrating that antepartum fetal surveillance decreases perinatal morbidity or mortality in late-term and post-term gestations…. There are no definitive studies determining the optimal type or frequency of such testing and no evidence specific for women with obesity.”⁷

A 2019 Society of Obstetricians and Gynecologists of Canada practice guideline states “stillbirth is more common with maternal obesity” and recommends “increased fetal surveillance … in the third trimester if reduced fetal movements are reported.” The guideline notes “the role for non-stress tests … in surveillance of well-being in this population is uncertain.” Also, for pregnant people with a BMI > 30, “assessment of fetal well-being is … recommended weekly from 37 weeks until delivery.” Finally, increased fetal surveillance is recommended in the setting of increased BMI and an abnormal pulsatility index of the umbilical artery and/or maternal uterine artery.⁸

Editor’s takeaway

Evidence demonstrates that increased maternal BMI is associated with increased stillbirths. However, evidence has not shown that third-trimester antenatal testing decreases this morbidity and mortality. Expert opinion varies, with ACOG recommending weekly antenatal testing from 34 and 37 weeks for pregnant people with a BMI ≥ 40 and of 35 to 39.9, respectively.

Evidence summary

Association between higher maternal BMI and increased risk for stillbirth

The purpose of antenatal testing is to decrease the risk for stillbirth between visits. Because of the resources involved and the risk for false-positives when testing low-risk patients, antenatal testing is reserved for pregnant people with higher risk for stillbirth.

In a retrospective cohort study of more than 2.8 million singleton births including 9030 stillbirths, pregnant people with an ­elevated BMI had an increased risk for stillbirth compared to those with a normal BMI. The adjusted hazard ratio was 1.71 (95% CI, 1.62-1.83) for those with a BMI of 30.0 to 34.9; 2.04 (95% CI, 1.8-2.21) for those with a BMI of 35.0 to 39.9; and 2.50 (95% CI, 2.28-2.74) for those with a BMI ≥ 40.¹

A meta-analysis of 38 studies, which included data on 16,274 stillbirths, found that a 5-unit increase in BMI was associated with an increased risk for stillbirth (relative risk, 1.24; 95% CI, 1.18-1.30).²

Another meta-analysis included 6 cohort studies involving more than 1 million pregnancies and 3 case-control studies involving 2530 stillbirths and 2837 controls from 1980-2005. There was an association between increasing BMI and stillbirth: the odds ratio (OR) was 1.47 (95% CI, 1.08-1.94) for those with a BMI of 25.0 to 29.9 and 2.07 (95% CI, 1.59-2.74) for those with a BMI ≥ 30.0, compared to those with a normal BMI.³

However, a retrospective cohort study of 182,362 singleton births including 442 stillbirths found no association between stillbirth and increasing BMI. The OR was 1.10 (95% CI, 0.90-1.36) for those with a BMI of 25.0 to 29.9 and 1.09 (95% CI, 0.87-1.37) for those with a BMI ≥ 30.0, compared to those with a normal BMI.⁴ However, this cohort study may have been underpowered to detect an association between stillbirth and BMI.

Recommendations from others

In 2021, ACOG suggested that weekly antenatal testing may be considered from 34w0d for pregnant people with a BMI ≥ 40.0 and from 37w0d for pregnant people with a BMI between 35.0 and 39.9.⁵ The 2021 ACOG Practice Bulletin on Obesity in Pregnancy rates this recommendation as Level C—based primarily on consensus and expert opinion.⁶

A 2018 Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists Green-top Guideline recognizes “definitive recommendations for fetal surveillance are hampered by the lack of randomized controlled trials demonstrating that antepartum fetal surveillance decreases perinatal morbidity or mortality in late-term and post-term gestations…. There are no definitive studies determining the optimal type or frequency of such testing and no evidence specific for women with obesity.”⁷

A 2019 Society of Obstetricians and Gynecologists of Canada practice guideline states “stillbirth is more common with maternal obesity” and recommends “increased fetal surveillance … in the third trimester if reduced fetal movements are reported.” The guideline notes “the role for non-stress tests … in surveillance of well-being in this population is uncertain.” Also, for pregnant people with a BMI > 30, “assessment of fetal well-being is … recommended weekly from 37 weeks until delivery.” Finally, increased fetal surveillance is recommended in the setting of increased BMI and an abnormal pulsatility index of the umbilical artery and/or maternal uterine artery.⁸

Editor’s takeaway

Evidence demonstrates that increased maternal BMI is associated with increased stillbirths. However, evidence has not shown that third-trimester antenatal testing decreases this morbidity and mortality. Expert opinion varies, with ACOG recommending weekly antenatal testing from 34 and 37 weeks for pregnant people with a BMI ≥ 40 and of 35 to 39.9, respectively.

Evidence summary

Association between higher maternal BMI and increased risk for stillbirth

The purpose of antenatal testing is to decrease the risk for stillbirth between visits. Because of the resources involved and the risk for false-positives when testing low-risk patients, antenatal testing is reserved for pregnant people with higher risk for stillbirth.

In a retrospective cohort study of more than 2.8 million singleton births including 9030 stillbirths, pregnant people with an ­elevated BMI had an increased risk for stillbirth compared to those with a normal BMI. The adjusted hazard ratio was 1.71 (95% CI, 1.62-1.83) for those with a BMI of 30.0 to 34.9; 2.04 (95% CI, 1.8-2.21) for those with a BMI of 35.0 to 39.9; and 2.50 (95% CI, 2.28-2.74) for those with a BMI ≥ 40.¹

A meta-analysis of 38 studies, which included data on 16,274 stillbirths, found that a 5-unit increase in BMI was associated with an increased risk for stillbirth (relative risk, 1.24; 95% CI, 1.18-1.30).²

Another meta-analysis included 6 cohort studies involving more than 1 million pregnancies and 3 case-control studies involving 2530 stillbirths and 2837 controls from 1980-2005. There was an association between increasing BMI and stillbirth: the odds ratio (OR) was 1.47 (95% CI, 1.08-1.94) for those with a BMI of 25.0 to 29.9 and 2.07 (95% CI, 1.59-2.74) for those with a BMI ≥ 30.0, compared to those with a normal BMI.³

However, a retrospective cohort study of 182,362 singleton births including 442 stillbirths found no association between stillbirth and increasing BMI. The OR was 1.10 (95% CI, 0.90-1.36) for those with a BMI of 25.0 to 29.9 and 1.09 (95% CI, 0.87-1.37) for those with a BMI ≥ 30.0, compared to those with a normal BMI.⁴ However, this cohort study may have been underpowered to detect an association between stillbirth and BMI.

Recommendations from others

In 2021, ACOG suggested that weekly antenatal testing may be considered from 34w0d for pregnant people with a BMI ≥ 40.0 and from 37w0d for pregnant people with a BMI between 35.0 and 39.9.⁵ The 2021 ACOG Practice Bulletin on Obesity in Pregnancy rates this recommendation as Level C—based primarily on consensus and expert opinion.⁶

A 2018 Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists Green-top Guideline recognizes “definitive recommendations for fetal surveillance are hampered by the lack of randomized controlled trials demonstrating that antepartum fetal surveillance decreases perinatal morbidity or mortality in late-term and post-term gestations…. There are no definitive studies determining the optimal type or frequency of such testing and no evidence specific for women with obesity.”⁷

A 2019 Society of Obstetricians and Gynecologists of Canada practice guideline states “stillbirth is more common with maternal obesity” and recommends “increased fetal surveillance … in the third trimester if reduced fetal movements are reported.” The guideline notes “the role for non-stress tests … in surveillance of well-being in this population is uncertain.” Also, for pregnant people with a BMI > 30, “assessment of fetal well-being is … recommended weekly from 37 weeks until delivery.” Finally, increased fetal surveillance is recommended in the setting of increased BMI and an abnormal pulsatility index of the umbilical artery and/or maternal uterine artery.⁸

Editor’s takeaway

Evidence demonstrates that increased maternal BMI is associated with increased stillbirths. However, evidence has not shown that third-trimester antenatal testing decreases this morbidity and mortality. Expert opinion varies, with ACOG recommending weekly antenatal testing from 34 and 37 weeks for pregnant people with a BMI ≥ 40 and of 35 to 39.9, respectively.

Of all the cranial nerve (CN) palsies that affect the eye, the third (oculomotor) nerve palsy (TNP) requires the most urgent evaluation.¹ Third nerve dysfunction may signal an underlying neurologic emergency, such as ruptured cerebral aneurysm or giant cell arteritis. Early recognition and prompt treatment choices are key to reversing clinical and visual defects. The classic presentation of isolated TNP is a “down and out eye” deviation and ptosis with or without pupillary involvement.¹

Recognize varying clinical presentations. TNPs, ­isolated or not, may be partial or complete, congenital or acquired, pupil involving or pupil sparing. In many cases, patients may have additional constitutional, ocular, or neurologic symptoms or signs, such as ataxia or hemiplegia.² Recognition of these clinical findings, which at times can be subtle, is crucial. Appropriate clinical diagnosis and management rely on distinguishing isolated TNP from TNP that involves other CNs.²

Further clues to underlying pathology. Disruption of the third nerve can occur anywhere along its course from the oculomotor nucleus in the brain to its terminus at the extraocular muscles in the orbit.² TNP’s effect on the pupil can often aid in diagnosis.³ Pupil-sparing TNP is usually due to microvascular ischemia, as may occur with diabetes or hypertension. Pupil involvement, though, may be the first sign of a compressive lesion.

Influence of age. Among individuals older than 60 years, the annual incidence of isolated TNP has been shown to be 12.5 per 100,000, compared with 1.7 per 100,000 in those younger than 60 years.⁴ In those older than 50 years, microvascular ischemia tends to be the dominant cause.⁴ Other possible causes include aneurysm, trauma, and neoplasm, particularly pituitary adenoma and metastatic tumor. In childhood and young adulthood, the most common cause of TNP is trauma.⁵

Use of vascular imaging is influenced by an individual’s age and clinical risk for an aneurysm. Isolated partial TNP or TNP with pupil involvement suggest compression of the third nerve and the need for immediate imaging. Given the dire implications of intracranial aneurysm, most physicians will focus their initial evaluation on vascular imaging, if available.² If clinical findings instead suggest underlying microvascular ischemia, a delay of imaging may be possible.

In the text that follows, we present 4 patient cases describing the clinical investigative process and treatment determinations based on an individual’s history, clinical presentation, and neurologic findings.

CASE 1

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

An 84-year-old man with no known medical illness presented to the emergency department (ED) with vesicular skin lesions that had appeared 4 days earlier over his scalp, right forehead, and periorbital region. The vesicles followed the distribution of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve ­(FIGURE 1). The patient was given a diagnosis of shingles. The only notable ocular features were the swollen right upper eyelid, injected conjunctiva, and reduced corneal sensation with otherwise normal right eye vision at 6/6. For right eye herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO), he was prescribed oral acyclovir 800 mg 5 times per day for 2 weeks.

Continue to: Two days later...

Two days later, he returned after experiencing a sudden onset of binocular diplopia and ptosis of the right eye. Partial ptosis was noted, with restricted adduction and elevation. Pupils were reactive and equal bilaterally. Hutchinson sign, which would indicate an impaired nasociliary nerve and increased risk for corneal and ocular sequelae,⁶ was absent. Relative afferent pupillary defect also was absent. All other CN functions were intact, with no systemic neurologic deficit. Contrast CT of the brain and orbit showed no radiologic evidence of meningitis, space-­occupying lesion, or cerebral aneurysm.

Given the unremarkable imaging findings and lack of symptoms of meningism (eg, headache, vomiting, neck stiffness, or fever), we diagnosed right eye pupil-­sparing partial TNP secondary to HZO. The patient continued taking oral acyclovir, which was tapered over 6 weeks. After 4 weeks of antiviral treatment, he recovered full extraocular movement and the ptosis subsided.

CASE 2

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

A 71-year-old woman with hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, and ischemic heart disease presented to the ED with a 4-day history of headache, vomiting, and neck pain and a 2-day history of a drooping left eyelid. When asked if she had double vision, she said “No.” She had no other neurologic symptoms. Her blood pressure (BP) was 199/88 mm Hg. An initial plain CT of the brain ruled out ischemia, intracranial hemorrhage, and space-occupying lesion.

Once her BP was stabilized, she was referred to us for detailed eye assessment. Her best corrected visual acuity was 6/12 bilaterally. In contrast to her right eye pupil, which was 4 mm in diameter and reactive, her left eye pupil was 7 mm and poorly reactive to light. Optic nerve functions were preserved. There was complete ptosis of the left eye, with exotropia and total limitation of elevation, depression, and abduction (FIGURE 2). There was no proptosis; intraocular pressure was normal. Fundus examination of the left eye was unremarkable. All other CN and neurologic examinations were normal. We diagnosed left eye pupil-involving TNP.

Further assessment of the brain with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed a left posterior communicating artery aneurysm. We performed cerebral angiography (FIGURE 3) with coiling. Postoperatively, her ptosis resolved at 2 months but with residual left eye exotropia.

CASE 3

Viral infection

A 20-year-old male student presented to the ED for evaluation of acute-onset diplopia that was present upon awakening from sleep 4 days earlier. There was no ptosis or other neurologic symptoms. He had no history of trauma or viral illness. Examination revealed limited adduction, depression, levo-­elevation, levo-depression, and dextro-depression in the right eye (FIGURE 4). Both pupils were reactive. There was no sign of aberrant third nerve regeneration. The optic nerve and other CN functions were intact. A systemic neurologic examination was unremarkable, and the fundus was normal, with no optic disc swelling. All blood work was negative for diabetes, hypercoagulability, and hyperlipidemia.

CT angiography (CTA) and MR angiography (MRA) did not reveal any vascular abnormalities such as intracranial aneurysms, arteriovenous malformations, or berry aneurysm. We treated the patient for right eye partial TNP secondary to presumed prior ­viral infection that led to an immune-­mediated palsy of the third nerve. He was given a short course of low-dose oral prednisolone (30 mg/d for 5 days). He achieved full recovery of his ocular motility after 2 weeks.

Continue to: CASE 4

CASE 4

Trauma

A 33-year-old woman was brought to the ED after she was knocked off her motorbike by a car. A passerby found her unconscious and still wearing her helmet. En route to the hospital, the patient regained consciousness but had retrograde amnesia.

She was referred to us for evaluation of complete ptosis of her left eye. She was fully conscious during the examination. Her left eye vision was 6/9. Complete ptosis with exotropia was noted. Pupillary examination revealed a sluggish dilated left eye pupil of 7 mm with no reverse relative afferent pupillary defect. Extraocular movement was restricted at elevation, depression, and adduction with diplopia (FIGURE 5). All other CN functions were preserved.

CT of the brain and orbit revealed acute right frontotemporal subarachnoid hemorrhage (FIGURE 6). There was no radiologic evidence of orbital wall fractures or extraocular muscle entrapment. She remained stable during the first 24 hours of monitoring and was given a diagnosis of left eye pupil-­sparing complete TNP with traumatic mydriasis.

Repeat CT of the brain 5 days later revealed complete resolution of the subarachnoid hemorrhage. The patient's clinical condition improved 2 weeks later and included resolution of ptosis and recovery of ocular motility.

Key takeaways from the cases

Case 1: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

Clinical diagnosis of HZO is straightforward, with painful vesicular lesions occurring along the trigeminal nerve (V1) dermatome, as was seen in this case. The oculomotor nerve is the CN most commonly involved; the trochlear nerve is the least-often affected.⁶ In a report from the Mayo Clinic, 3 of 86 patients with HZO had oculomotor nerve palsies (3.4%).⁷ A separate review from an eye hospital study stated that 9.8% (n = 133) of 1356 patients with HZO had extraocular muscle palsy, with TNP in 4 of the patients.⁸

Ocular complications such as blepharitis, keratoconjunctivits, or iritis occur in 20% to 70% of HZO cases.⁹ Ophthalmoplegia, which most often involves the oculomotor nerve, is seen in 7% to 31% of HZO cases (mostly in the elderly) and usually occurs within 1 to 3 weeks of the onset of rash.⁶ Our patient immediately underwent contrast CT of the brain to rule out meningitis and nerve compression.

Treatment with a systemic antiviral agent is crucial. Acyclovir, valaciclovir, and famciclovir are available treatment options, used for treating the skin lesions, reducing the viral load, and reducing the risk for ocular involvement or its progression. Our patient started a 2-week course of oral acyclovir 800 mg 5 times per day. Ophthalmoplegia is usually self-limiting and has a good prognosis. Time to resolution varies from 2 to 18 months. Diplopia, if present, resolves within 1 year.⁶ Our patient achieved full recovery of his extraocular movement after completing 4 weeks of antiviral treatment.

Continue to: Case 2

Case 2: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

Given the patient’s high BP, ruling out a hypertensive emergency with CT was the first priority. TNP caused by microvascular ischemia is not uncommon in the elderly. However, her pupil involvement and persistent headache called for an MRI to better evaluate the soft tissues and to rule out possible vascular pathologies. Left posterior communicating artery aneurysm was discovered with MRI, and urgent cerebral angiography and coiling was performed successfully.

Incidence. One report of 1400 patients with TNP confirmed that aneurysm was the cause in 10% of cases, with posterior communicating artery aneurysm accounting for the greatest number, 119 (25.7%).¹⁰ Of these cases of posterior communicating artery aneurysm, pupillary involvement was detected in 108 (90.8%). The oculomotor nerve lies adjacent to the posterior communicating artery as it passes through the subarachnoid space of the basal cisterns, where it is susceptible to compression.³

A high index of suspicion for posterior communicating artery aneurysm is crucial for early detection and lifesaving treatment. The patient in this case did well after the coiling. Her ptosis resolved at 2 months, although she had residual left eye exotropia.

Case 3: Viral infection

We chose CTA of the brain instead of contrast CT to rule out the possibility of intracranial aneurysm. CTA has been shown to be an adequate first-line study to detect aneurysms, particularly those greater than 4 mm in diameter.^2,11 One study demonstrated an 81.8% sensitivity for aneurysms smaller than 3 mm when performed on a 320-slice CT.¹²

Additional imaging selection. We also selected MRA to rule out berry aneurysm, which is often asymptomatic. We decided against MRI because of its higher cost and longer acquisition time. It is usually reserved for patients with a negative initial work-up with CT or cerebral angiography if suspicion of a possible aneurysm remains.¹¹ The MRA finding in this case was negative, and we made a presumptive diagnosis of TNP secondary to viral infection.

Isolated TNP following viral infection is a clinical diagnosis of exclusion. In 1 reported case, a 39-year-old man developed a superior division palsy after a common cold without fever, underwent no serologic study, and recovered spontaneously 6 weeks later.¹³ A 5-year-old boy who experienced a superior division palsy immediately after a common cold with fever was found on serologic examination to have an increased titre of influenza A virus. His palsy resolved in 4 months.¹⁴

The exact mechanism of viral-induced palsy is unknown. The possibility of postinfectious cranial neuropathy has been postulated, as most reported cases following a flu-like illness resolved within a few months.¹⁵ Although the pathogenesis remains speculative, an autoimmune process might have been involved.¹⁶ Our patient recovered fully in 1 month following a short course of oral prednisolone 30 mg/d for 5 days.

Case 4: Trauma

Trauma accounts for approximately 12% of all TNP cases.¹⁷ Traumatic TNPs are usually sustained in severe, high-speed, closed-head injuries, and are often associated with other CN injuries and neurologic deficits. The damage may be caused indirectly by compression, hemorrhage, or ischemia, or directly at certain vulnerable points including the nerve’s exit from the brainstem and the point at which it crosses the petroclinoid ligament.¹⁷ In our case, despite the patient having complete TNP, there was no sign of localized orbital trauma on the CT other than the presence of subarachnoid hemorrhage at the right frontotemporal region.

In individuals older than 50 years, microvascular ischemia tends to be the dominant cause of third nerve palsy.

In a similar reported case, the patient had a right traumatic isolated TNP and was found to have left frontal subarachnoid hemorrhage with no sign of orbital trauma.¹⁸ However, the mechanisms of isolated TNP caused by traumatic brain injury are not clear. Possible causes include rootlet avulsion, distal fascicular damage, stretching of the nerve (including the parasellar segment), and decreased blood supply.¹⁸

It has been suggested that TNP is more frequently observed in cases of frontal region injury. As orbitofrontal regions are predominantly affected by cortical contusions, the risk for ocular involvement increases.¹⁹

Keep these fundamentals in mind

The diagnosis and management of isolated TNP are guided by the patient’s age, by the degree to which each of the oculomotor nerve’s 2 major functions—pupillomotor and oculomotor—are affected, and by the circumstances preceding the onset of TNP.² Cases 1 and 3 in our series presented with partial TNP, while Cases 2 and 4 exhibited complete TNP. Pupillary involvement was detected only in Case 2. Nevertheless, radiologic imaging was ordered for all 4 cases after the diagnosis of TNP was made, to exclude the most worrying neurologic emergencies. The choice of imaging modality depends on not only the availability of the services but also the clinical signs and symptoms and presumptive clinical diagnosis. A tailored and thoughtful approach with consideration of the anatomy and varied pathologies help clinicians to skillfully discern emergencies from nonurgent cases.

CORRESPONDENCE
Lott Pooi Wah, MSOphth, FRCOphth, Department of Ophthalmology, Faculty of Medicine, Universiti Malaya, 50603 Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia; [email protected] Orcid no: 0000-0001-8746-1528

Of all the cranial nerve (CN) palsies that affect the eye, the third (oculomotor) nerve palsy (TNP) requires the most urgent evaluation.¹ Third nerve dysfunction may signal an underlying neurologic emergency, such as ruptured cerebral aneurysm or giant cell arteritis. Early recognition and prompt treatment choices are key to reversing clinical and visual defects. The classic presentation of isolated TNP is a “down and out eye” deviation and ptosis with or without pupillary involvement.¹

Recognize varying clinical presentations. TNPs, ­isolated or not, may be partial or complete, congenital or acquired, pupil involving or pupil sparing. In many cases, patients may have additional constitutional, ocular, or neurologic symptoms or signs, such as ataxia or hemiplegia.² Recognition of these clinical findings, which at times can be subtle, is crucial. Appropriate clinical diagnosis and management rely on distinguishing isolated TNP from TNP that involves other CNs.²

Further clues to underlying pathology. Disruption of the third nerve can occur anywhere along its course from the oculomotor nucleus in the brain to its terminus at the extraocular muscles in the orbit.² TNP’s effect on the pupil can often aid in diagnosis.³ Pupil-sparing TNP is usually due to microvascular ischemia, as may occur with diabetes or hypertension. Pupil involvement, though, may be the first sign of a compressive lesion.

Influence of age. Among individuals older than 60 years, the annual incidence of isolated TNP has been shown to be 12.5 per 100,000, compared with 1.7 per 100,000 in those younger than 60 years.⁴ In those older than 50 years, microvascular ischemia tends to be the dominant cause.⁴ Other possible causes include aneurysm, trauma, and neoplasm, particularly pituitary adenoma and metastatic tumor. In childhood and young adulthood, the most common cause of TNP is trauma.⁵

Use of vascular imaging is influenced by an individual’s age and clinical risk for an aneurysm. Isolated partial TNP or TNP with pupil involvement suggest compression of the third nerve and the need for immediate imaging. Given the dire implications of intracranial aneurysm, most physicians will focus their initial evaluation on vascular imaging, if available.² If clinical findings instead suggest underlying microvascular ischemia, a delay of imaging may be possible.

In the text that follows, we present 4 patient cases describing the clinical investigative process and treatment determinations based on an individual’s history, clinical presentation, and neurologic findings.

CASE 1

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

An 84-year-old man with no known medical illness presented to the emergency department (ED) with vesicular skin lesions that had appeared 4 days earlier over his scalp, right forehead, and periorbital region. The vesicles followed the distribution of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve ­(FIGURE 1). The patient was given a diagnosis of shingles. The only notable ocular features were the swollen right upper eyelid, injected conjunctiva, and reduced corneal sensation with otherwise normal right eye vision at 6/6. For right eye herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO), he was prescribed oral acyclovir 800 mg 5 times per day for 2 weeks.

Continue to: Two days later...

Two days later, he returned after experiencing a sudden onset of binocular diplopia and ptosis of the right eye. Partial ptosis was noted, with restricted adduction and elevation. Pupils were reactive and equal bilaterally. Hutchinson sign, which would indicate an impaired nasociliary nerve and increased risk for corneal and ocular sequelae,⁶ was absent. Relative afferent pupillary defect also was absent. All other CN functions were intact, with no systemic neurologic deficit. Contrast CT of the brain and orbit showed no radiologic evidence of meningitis, space-­occupying lesion, or cerebral aneurysm.

Given the unremarkable imaging findings and lack of symptoms of meningism (eg, headache, vomiting, neck stiffness, or fever), we diagnosed right eye pupil-­sparing partial TNP secondary to HZO. The patient continued taking oral acyclovir, which was tapered over 6 weeks. After 4 weeks of antiviral treatment, he recovered full extraocular movement and the ptosis subsided.

CASE 2

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

A 71-year-old woman with hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, and ischemic heart disease presented to the ED with a 4-day history of headache, vomiting, and neck pain and a 2-day history of a drooping left eyelid. When asked if she had double vision, she said “No.” She had no other neurologic symptoms. Her blood pressure (BP) was 199/88 mm Hg. An initial plain CT of the brain ruled out ischemia, intracranial hemorrhage, and space-occupying lesion.

Once her BP was stabilized, she was referred to us for detailed eye assessment. Her best corrected visual acuity was 6/12 bilaterally. In contrast to her right eye pupil, which was 4 mm in diameter and reactive, her left eye pupil was 7 mm and poorly reactive to light. Optic nerve functions were preserved. There was complete ptosis of the left eye, with exotropia and total limitation of elevation, depression, and abduction (FIGURE 2). There was no proptosis; intraocular pressure was normal. Fundus examination of the left eye was unremarkable. All other CN and neurologic examinations were normal. We diagnosed left eye pupil-involving TNP.

Further assessment of the brain with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed a left posterior communicating artery aneurysm. We performed cerebral angiography (FIGURE 3) with coiling. Postoperatively, her ptosis resolved at 2 months but with residual left eye exotropia.

CASE 3

Viral infection

A 20-year-old male student presented to the ED for evaluation of acute-onset diplopia that was present upon awakening from sleep 4 days earlier. There was no ptosis or other neurologic symptoms. He had no history of trauma or viral illness. Examination revealed limited adduction, depression, levo-­elevation, levo-depression, and dextro-depression in the right eye (FIGURE 4). Both pupils were reactive. There was no sign of aberrant third nerve regeneration. The optic nerve and other CN functions were intact. A systemic neurologic examination was unremarkable, and the fundus was normal, with no optic disc swelling. All blood work was negative for diabetes, hypercoagulability, and hyperlipidemia.

CT angiography (CTA) and MR angiography (MRA) did not reveal any vascular abnormalities such as intracranial aneurysms, arteriovenous malformations, or berry aneurysm. We treated the patient for right eye partial TNP secondary to presumed prior ­viral infection that led to an immune-­mediated palsy of the third nerve. He was given a short course of low-dose oral prednisolone (30 mg/d for 5 days). He achieved full recovery of his ocular motility after 2 weeks.

Continue to: CASE 4

CASE 4

Trauma

A 33-year-old woman was brought to the ED after she was knocked off her motorbike by a car. A passerby found her unconscious and still wearing her helmet. En route to the hospital, the patient regained consciousness but had retrograde amnesia.

She was referred to us for evaluation of complete ptosis of her left eye. She was fully conscious during the examination. Her left eye vision was 6/9. Complete ptosis with exotropia was noted. Pupillary examination revealed a sluggish dilated left eye pupil of 7 mm with no reverse relative afferent pupillary defect. Extraocular movement was restricted at elevation, depression, and adduction with diplopia (FIGURE 5). All other CN functions were preserved.

CT of the brain and orbit revealed acute right frontotemporal subarachnoid hemorrhage (FIGURE 6). There was no radiologic evidence of orbital wall fractures or extraocular muscle entrapment. She remained stable during the first 24 hours of monitoring and was given a diagnosis of left eye pupil-­sparing complete TNP with traumatic mydriasis.

Repeat CT of the brain 5 days later revealed complete resolution of the subarachnoid hemorrhage. The patient's clinical condition improved 2 weeks later and included resolution of ptosis and recovery of ocular motility.

Key takeaways from the cases

Case 1: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

Clinical diagnosis of HZO is straightforward, with painful vesicular lesions occurring along the trigeminal nerve (V1) dermatome, as was seen in this case. The oculomotor nerve is the CN most commonly involved; the trochlear nerve is the least-often affected.⁶ In a report from the Mayo Clinic, 3 of 86 patients with HZO had oculomotor nerve palsies (3.4%).⁷ A separate review from an eye hospital study stated that 9.8% (n = 133) of 1356 patients with HZO had extraocular muscle palsy, with TNP in 4 of the patients.⁸

Ocular complications such as blepharitis, keratoconjunctivits, or iritis occur in 20% to 70% of HZO cases.⁹ Ophthalmoplegia, which most often involves the oculomotor nerve, is seen in 7% to 31% of HZO cases (mostly in the elderly) and usually occurs within 1 to 3 weeks of the onset of rash.⁶ Our patient immediately underwent contrast CT of the brain to rule out meningitis and nerve compression.

Treatment with a systemic antiviral agent is crucial. Acyclovir, valaciclovir, and famciclovir are available treatment options, used for treating the skin lesions, reducing the viral load, and reducing the risk for ocular involvement or its progression. Our patient started a 2-week course of oral acyclovir 800 mg 5 times per day. Ophthalmoplegia is usually self-limiting and has a good prognosis. Time to resolution varies from 2 to 18 months. Diplopia, if present, resolves within 1 year.⁶ Our patient achieved full recovery of his extraocular movement after completing 4 weeks of antiviral treatment.

Continue to: Case 2

Case 2: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

Given the patient’s high BP, ruling out a hypertensive emergency with CT was the first priority. TNP caused by microvascular ischemia is not uncommon in the elderly. However, her pupil involvement and persistent headache called for an MRI to better evaluate the soft tissues and to rule out possible vascular pathologies. Left posterior communicating artery aneurysm was discovered with MRI, and urgent cerebral angiography and coiling was performed successfully.

Incidence. One report of 1400 patients with TNP confirmed that aneurysm was the cause in 10% of cases, with posterior communicating artery aneurysm accounting for the greatest number, 119 (25.7%).¹⁰ Of these cases of posterior communicating artery aneurysm, pupillary involvement was detected in 108 (90.8%). The oculomotor nerve lies adjacent to the posterior communicating artery as it passes through the subarachnoid space of the basal cisterns, where it is susceptible to compression.³

A high index of suspicion for posterior communicating artery aneurysm is crucial for early detection and lifesaving treatment. The patient in this case did well after the coiling. Her ptosis resolved at 2 months, although she had residual left eye exotropia.

Case 3: Viral infection

We chose CTA of the brain instead of contrast CT to rule out the possibility of intracranial aneurysm. CTA has been shown to be an adequate first-line study to detect aneurysms, particularly those greater than 4 mm in diameter.^2,11 One study demonstrated an 81.8% sensitivity for aneurysms smaller than 3 mm when performed on a 320-slice CT.¹²

Additional imaging selection. We also selected MRA to rule out berry aneurysm, which is often asymptomatic. We decided against MRI because of its higher cost and longer acquisition time. It is usually reserved for patients with a negative initial work-up with CT or cerebral angiography if suspicion of a possible aneurysm remains.¹¹ The MRA finding in this case was negative, and we made a presumptive diagnosis of TNP secondary to viral infection.

Isolated TNP following viral infection is a clinical diagnosis of exclusion. In 1 reported case, a 39-year-old man developed a superior division palsy after a common cold without fever, underwent no serologic study, and recovered spontaneously 6 weeks later.¹³ A 5-year-old boy who experienced a superior division palsy immediately after a common cold with fever was found on serologic examination to have an increased titre of influenza A virus. His palsy resolved in 4 months.¹⁴

The exact mechanism of viral-induced palsy is unknown. The possibility of postinfectious cranial neuropathy has been postulated, as most reported cases following a flu-like illness resolved within a few months.¹⁵ Although the pathogenesis remains speculative, an autoimmune process might have been involved.¹⁶ Our patient recovered fully in 1 month following a short course of oral prednisolone 30 mg/d for 5 days.

Case 4: Trauma

Trauma accounts for approximately 12% of all TNP cases.¹⁷ Traumatic TNPs are usually sustained in severe, high-speed, closed-head injuries, and are often associated with other CN injuries and neurologic deficits. The damage may be caused indirectly by compression, hemorrhage, or ischemia, or directly at certain vulnerable points including the nerve’s exit from the brainstem and the point at which it crosses the petroclinoid ligament.¹⁷ In our case, despite the patient having complete TNP, there was no sign of localized orbital trauma on the CT other than the presence of subarachnoid hemorrhage at the right frontotemporal region.

In individuals older than 50 years, microvascular ischemia tends to be the dominant cause of third nerve palsy.

In a similar reported case, the patient had a right traumatic isolated TNP and was found to have left frontal subarachnoid hemorrhage with no sign of orbital trauma.¹⁸ However, the mechanisms of isolated TNP caused by traumatic brain injury are not clear. Possible causes include rootlet avulsion, distal fascicular damage, stretching of the nerve (including the parasellar segment), and decreased blood supply.¹⁸

It has been suggested that TNP is more frequently observed in cases of frontal region injury. As orbitofrontal regions are predominantly affected by cortical contusions, the risk for ocular involvement increases.¹⁹

Keep these fundamentals in mind

The diagnosis and management of isolated TNP are guided by the patient’s age, by the degree to which each of the oculomotor nerve’s 2 major functions—pupillomotor and oculomotor—are affected, and by the circumstances preceding the onset of TNP.² Cases 1 and 3 in our series presented with partial TNP, while Cases 2 and 4 exhibited complete TNP. Pupillary involvement was detected only in Case 2. Nevertheless, radiologic imaging was ordered for all 4 cases after the diagnosis of TNP was made, to exclude the most worrying neurologic emergencies. The choice of imaging modality depends on not only the availability of the services but also the clinical signs and symptoms and presumptive clinical diagnosis. A tailored and thoughtful approach with consideration of the anatomy and varied pathologies help clinicians to skillfully discern emergencies from nonurgent cases.

CORRESPONDENCE
Lott Pooi Wah, MSOphth, FRCOphth, Department of Ophthalmology, Faculty of Medicine, Universiti Malaya, 50603 Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia; [email protected] Orcid no: 0000-0001-8746-1528

Of all the cranial nerve (CN) palsies that affect the eye, the third (oculomotor) nerve palsy (TNP) requires the most urgent evaluation.¹ Third nerve dysfunction may signal an underlying neurologic emergency, such as ruptured cerebral aneurysm or giant cell arteritis. Early recognition and prompt treatment choices are key to reversing clinical and visual defects. The classic presentation of isolated TNP is a “down and out eye” deviation and ptosis with or without pupillary involvement.¹

Recognize varying clinical presentations. TNPs, ­isolated or not, may be partial or complete, congenital or acquired, pupil involving or pupil sparing. In many cases, patients may have additional constitutional, ocular, or neurologic symptoms or signs, such as ataxia or hemiplegia.² Recognition of these clinical findings, which at times can be subtle, is crucial. Appropriate clinical diagnosis and management rely on distinguishing isolated TNP from TNP that involves other CNs.²

Further clues to underlying pathology. Disruption of the third nerve can occur anywhere along its course from the oculomotor nucleus in the brain to its terminus at the extraocular muscles in the orbit.² TNP’s effect on the pupil can often aid in diagnosis.³ Pupil-sparing TNP is usually due to microvascular ischemia, as may occur with diabetes or hypertension. Pupil involvement, though, may be the first sign of a compressive lesion.

Influence of age. Among individuals older than 60 years, the annual incidence of isolated TNP has been shown to be 12.5 per 100,000, compared with 1.7 per 100,000 in those younger than 60 years.⁴ In those older than 50 years, microvascular ischemia tends to be the dominant cause.⁴ Other possible causes include aneurysm, trauma, and neoplasm, particularly pituitary adenoma and metastatic tumor. In childhood and young adulthood, the most common cause of TNP is trauma.⁵

Use of vascular imaging is influenced by an individual’s age and clinical risk for an aneurysm. Isolated partial TNP or TNP with pupil involvement suggest compression of the third nerve and the need for immediate imaging. Given the dire implications of intracranial aneurysm, most physicians will focus their initial evaluation on vascular imaging, if available.² If clinical findings instead suggest underlying microvascular ischemia, a delay of imaging may be possible.

In the text that follows, we present 4 patient cases describing the clinical investigative process and treatment determinations based on an individual’s history, clinical presentation, and neurologic findings.

CASE 1

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

An 84-year-old man with no known medical illness presented to the emergency department (ED) with vesicular skin lesions that had appeared 4 days earlier over his scalp, right forehead, and periorbital region. The vesicles followed the distribution of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve ­(FIGURE 1). The patient was given a diagnosis of shingles. The only notable ocular features were the swollen right upper eyelid, injected conjunctiva, and reduced corneal sensation with otherwise normal right eye vision at 6/6. For right eye herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO), he was prescribed oral acyclovir 800 mg 5 times per day for 2 weeks.

Continue to: Two days later...

Two days later, he returned after experiencing a sudden onset of binocular diplopia and ptosis of the right eye. Partial ptosis was noted, with restricted adduction and elevation. Pupils were reactive and equal bilaterally. Hutchinson sign, which would indicate an impaired nasociliary nerve and increased risk for corneal and ocular sequelae,⁶ was absent. Relative afferent pupillary defect also was absent. All other CN functions were intact, with no systemic neurologic deficit. Contrast CT of the brain and orbit showed no radiologic evidence of meningitis, space-­occupying lesion, or cerebral aneurysm.

Given the unremarkable imaging findings and lack of symptoms of meningism (eg, headache, vomiting, neck stiffness, or fever), we diagnosed right eye pupil-­sparing partial TNP secondary to HZO. The patient continued taking oral acyclovir, which was tapered over 6 weeks. After 4 weeks of antiviral treatment, he recovered full extraocular movement and the ptosis subsided.

CASE 2

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

A 71-year-old woman with hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, and ischemic heart disease presented to the ED with a 4-day history of headache, vomiting, and neck pain and a 2-day history of a drooping left eyelid. When asked if she had double vision, she said “No.” She had no other neurologic symptoms. Her blood pressure (BP) was 199/88 mm Hg. An initial plain CT of the brain ruled out ischemia, intracranial hemorrhage, and space-occupying lesion.

Once her BP was stabilized, she was referred to us for detailed eye assessment. Her best corrected visual acuity was 6/12 bilaterally. In contrast to her right eye pupil, which was 4 mm in diameter and reactive, her left eye pupil was 7 mm and poorly reactive to light. Optic nerve functions were preserved. There was complete ptosis of the left eye, with exotropia and total limitation of elevation, depression, and abduction (FIGURE 2). There was no proptosis; intraocular pressure was normal. Fundus examination of the left eye was unremarkable. All other CN and neurologic examinations were normal. We diagnosed left eye pupil-involving TNP.

Further assessment of the brain with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed a left posterior communicating artery aneurysm. We performed cerebral angiography (FIGURE 3) with coiling. Postoperatively, her ptosis resolved at 2 months but with residual left eye exotropia.

CASE 3

Viral infection

A 20-year-old male student presented to the ED for evaluation of acute-onset diplopia that was present upon awakening from sleep 4 days earlier. There was no ptosis or other neurologic symptoms. He had no history of trauma or viral illness. Examination revealed limited adduction, depression, levo-­elevation, levo-depression, and dextro-depression in the right eye (FIGURE 4). Both pupils were reactive. There was no sign of aberrant third nerve regeneration. The optic nerve and other CN functions were intact. A systemic neurologic examination was unremarkable, and the fundus was normal, with no optic disc swelling. All blood work was negative for diabetes, hypercoagulability, and hyperlipidemia.

CT angiography (CTA) and MR angiography (MRA) did not reveal any vascular abnormalities such as intracranial aneurysms, arteriovenous malformations, or berry aneurysm. We treated the patient for right eye partial TNP secondary to presumed prior ­viral infection that led to an immune-­mediated palsy of the third nerve. He was given a short course of low-dose oral prednisolone (30 mg/d for 5 days). He achieved full recovery of his ocular motility after 2 weeks.

Continue to: CASE 4

CASE 4

Trauma

A 33-year-old woman was brought to the ED after she was knocked off her motorbike by a car. A passerby found her unconscious and still wearing her helmet. En route to the hospital, the patient regained consciousness but had retrograde amnesia.

She was referred to us for evaluation of complete ptosis of her left eye. She was fully conscious during the examination. Her left eye vision was 6/9. Complete ptosis with exotropia was noted. Pupillary examination revealed a sluggish dilated left eye pupil of 7 mm with no reverse relative afferent pupillary defect. Extraocular movement was restricted at elevation, depression, and adduction with diplopia (FIGURE 5). All other CN functions were preserved.

CT of the brain and orbit revealed acute right frontotemporal subarachnoid hemorrhage (FIGURE 6). There was no radiologic evidence of orbital wall fractures or extraocular muscle entrapment. She remained stable during the first 24 hours of monitoring and was given a diagnosis of left eye pupil-­sparing complete TNP with traumatic mydriasis.

Repeat CT of the brain 5 days later revealed complete resolution of the subarachnoid hemorrhage. The patient's clinical condition improved 2 weeks later and included resolution of ptosis and recovery of ocular motility.

Key takeaways from the cases

Case 1: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

Clinical diagnosis of HZO is straightforward, with painful vesicular lesions occurring along the trigeminal nerve (V1) dermatome, as was seen in this case. The oculomotor nerve is the CN most commonly involved; the trochlear nerve is the least-often affected.⁶ In a report from the Mayo Clinic, 3 of 86 patients with HZO had oculomotor nerve palsies (3.4%).⁷ A separate review from an eye hospital study stated that 9.8% (n = 133) of 1356 patients with HZO had extraocular muscle palsy, with TNP in 4 of the patients.⁸

Ocular complications such as blepharitis, keratoconjunctivits, or iritis occur in 20% to 70% of HZO cases.⁹ Ophthalmoplegia, which most often involves the oculomotor nerve, is seen in 7% to 31% of HZO cases (mostly in the elderly) and usually occurs within 1 to 3 weeks of the onset of rash.⁶ Our patient immediately underwent contrast CT of the brain to rule out meningitis and nerve compression.

Treatment with a systemic antiviral agent is crucial. Acyclovir, valaciclovir, and famciclovir are available treatment options, used for treating the skin lesions, reducing the viral load, and reducing the risk for ocular involvement or its progression. Our patient started a 2-week course of oral acyclovir 800 mg 5 times per day. Ophthalmoplegia is usually self-limiting and has a good prognosis. Time to resolution varies from 2 to 18 months. Diplopia, if present, resolves within 1 year.⁶ Our patient achieved full recovery of his extraocular movement after completing 4 weeks of antiviral treatment.

Continue to: Case 2

Case 2: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

Given the patient’s high BP, ruling out a hypertensive emergency with CT was the first priority. TNP caused by microvascular ischemia is not uncommon in the elderly. However, her pupil involvement and persistent headache called for an MRI to better evaluate the soft tissues and to rule out possible vascular pathologies. Left posterior communicating artery aneurysm was discovered with MRI, and urgent cerebral angiography and coiling was performed successfully.

Incidence. One report of 1400 patients with TNP confirmed that aneurysm was the cause in 10% of cases, with posterior communicating artery aneurysm accounting for the greatest number, 119 (25.7%).¹⁰ Of these cases of posterior communicating artery aneurysm, pupillary involvement was detected in 108 (90.8%). The oculomotor nerve lies adjacent to the posterior communicating artery as it passes through the subarachnoid space of the basal cisterns, where it is susceptible to compression.³

A high index of suspicion for posterior communicating artery aneurysm is crucial for early detection and lifesaving treatment. The patient in this case did well after the coiling. Her ptosis resolved at 2 months, although she had residual left eye exotropia.

Case 3: Viral infection

We chose CTA of the brain instead of contrast CT to rule out the possibility of intracranial aneurysm. CTA has been shown to be an adequate first-line study to detect aneurysms, particularly those greater than 4 mm in diameter.^2,11 One study demonstrated an 81.8% sensitivity for aneurysms smaller than 3 mm when performed on a 320-slice CT.¹²

Additional imaging selection. We also selected MRA to rule out berry aneurysm, which is often asymptomatic. We decided against MRI because of its higher cost and longer acquisition time. It is usually reserved for patients with a negative initial work-up with CT or cerebral angiography if suspicion of a possible aneurysm remains.¹¹ The MRA finding in this case was negative, and we made a presumptive diagnosis of TNP secondary to viral infection.

Isolated TNP following viral infection is a clinical diagnosis of exclusion. In 1 reported case, a 39-year-old man developed a superior division palsy after a common cold without fever, underwent no serologic study, and recovered spontaneously 6 weeks later.¹³ A 5-year-old boy who experienced a superior division palsy immediately after a common cold with fever was found on serologic examination to have an increased titre of influenza A virus. His palsy resolved in 4 months.¹⁴

The exact mechanism of viral-induced palsy is unknown. The possibility of postinfectious cranial neuropathy has been postulated, as most reported cases following a flu-like illness resolved within a few months.¹⁵ Although the pathogenesis remains speculative, an autoimmune process might have been involved.¹⁶ Our patient recovered fully in 1 month following a short course of oral prednisolone 30 mg/d for 5 days.

Case 4: Trauma

Trauma accounts for approximately 12% of all TNP cases.¹⁷ Traumatic TNPs are usually sustained in severe, high-speed, closed-head injuries, and are often associated with other CN injuries and neurologic deficits. The damage may be caused indirectly by compression, hemorrhage, or ischemia, or directly at certain vulnerable points including the nerve’s exit from the brainstem and the point at which it crosses the petroclinoid ligament.¹⁷ In our case, despite the patient having complete TNP, there was no sign of localized orbital trauma on the CT other than the presence of subarachnoid hemorrhage at the right frontotemporal region.

In individuals older than 50 years, microvascular ischemia tends to be the dominant cause of third nerve palsy.

In a similar reported case, the patient had a right traumatic isolated TNP and was found to have left frontal subarachnoid hemorrhage with no sign of orbital trauma.¹⁸ However, the mechanisms of isolated TNP caused by traumatic brain injury are not clear. Possible causes include rootlet avulsion, distal fascicular damage, stretching of the nerve (including the parasellar segment), and decreased blood supply.¹⁸

It has been suggested that TNP is more frequently observed in cases of frontal region injury. As orbitofrontal regions are predominantly affected by cortical contusions, the risk for ocular involvement increases.¹⁹

Keep these fundamentals in mind

The diagnosis and management of isolated TNP are guided by the patient’s age, by the degree to which each of the oculomotor nerve’s 2 major functions—pupillomotor and oculomotor—are affected, and by the circumstances preceding the onset of TNP.² Cases 1 and 3 in our series presented with partial TNP, while Cases 2 and 4 exhibited complete TNP. Pupillary involvement was detected only in Case 2. Nevertheless, radiologic imaging was ordered for all 4 cases after the diagnosis of TNP was made, to exclude the most worrying neurologic emergencies. The choice of imaging modality depends on not only the availability of the services but also the clinical signs and symptoms and presumptive clinical diagnosis. A tailored and thoughtful approach with consideration of the anatomy and varied pathologies help clinicians to skillfully discern emergencies from nonurgent cases.

CORRESPONDENCE
Lott Pooi Wah, MSOphth, FRCOphth, Department of Ophthalmology, Faculty of Medicine, Universiti Malaya, 50603 Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia; [email protected] Orcid no: 0000-0001-8746-1528

ILLUSTRATIVE CASE

A 32-year-old woman with a history of migraine with aura presents to your office for contraception management. She works full-time, has 2 children, and has transportation barriers. She previously used injectable DMPA (administered every 3 months at a health care facility) and would like to restart it. However, because she had to reschedule her last appointment due to a lack of transportation, she missed her injection window and subsequently became pregnant with her second child. She would still prefer injectable DMPA over the other contraceptive options ­offered—etonogestrel implant, oral contraceptive, or intrauterine device (IUD)—given her migraine history. However, she’s concerned she may have difficulty coming to the office every 3 months for her injection. What alternative injectable option can you offer?

When not pregnant or seeking to become pregnant, women may spend a significant amount of their lives trying to avoid pregnancy, and almost all women use contraception at some point.² During the childbearing years of 15 to 49, 65% of women report using contraception.² Although DMPA is a safe and effective option, only 2% of women report using it for contraception.²

For patients who have migraine with aura, there are fewer contraception options because their risk for ischemic stroke is increased 2- to 4-fold if they use combined hormonal contraceptives in pill, patch, or vaginal ring form.³ Safe options for these patients include the copper IUD, levonorgestrel­-releasing intrauterine system, progestin implant, and DMPA injection.³

DMPA is a progestogen-only contraceptive approved by the US Food and Drug Administration to prevent pregnancy. It is available in an intramuscular formulation (DMPA-IM; 150 mg/mL every 13 weeks) and a subcutaneous formulation (DMPA-SC; 104 mg/0.65 mL every 12-14 weeks). DMPA-IM is administered by a health care provider and thus requires patients to present every 3 months for an injection. About 6% of ­DMPA-IM users have an unintended pregnancy in the first year due to inconsistent or incorrect use or late receipt of injection.⁴ DMPA-SC is produced as a prefilled needle that can be self-injected by patients.

Barriers to access are a growing concern. During the COVID-19 pandemic, one-third of women surveyed by the Guttmacher Institute (n = 2009) reported delaying or canceling a health care visit or having difficulty obtaining their contraception. Barriers to health care and contraception access were more common among Black and Hispanic women (vs White women), queer women (vs straight women), and low-income women (vs higher-income women).⁵

Following the overturning of Roe v Wade in June 2022, abortion access is now limited in parts of the United States. Given this significant policy change, physicians have an increasingly important role in providing contraception care and reducing barriers to contraception access. Since the SC forms of injectable contraception can be administered at home rather than in the health care setting, both the World Health Organization and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention have recommended that self-administered injectable contraception be made widely available to expand access to contraception.^6,7

STUDY SUMMARY

Higher contraceptive continuation rates with comparable safety and efficacy

This 2019 systematic review and meta-­analysis evaluated the outcomes associated with use of self-administered DMPA-SC vs provider-administered DMPA in 5 countries.¹ The authors searched several electronic databases for peer-reviewed studies of women who chose the option to self-administer DMPA-SC vs those who received DMPA injections from a health care provider.

Continue to: Outcomes included pregnancy

Outcomes included pregnancy; adverse effects or events (bleeding, injection site reactions, mental health concerns); initial use of injectable contraception (contraception uptake); and continuation rate of injectable contraception. Two reviewers extracted the data and assessed trials for bias. The authors used random-effects models to calculate pooled relative risk (RR) for studies with the same outcomes.

For patients who prefer an injectable contraceptive, a self-administered formulation of DMPA appears to balance access with convenience without an increase in adverse outcomes.

The analysis included a total of 6 trials (N = 3851): 3 RCTs (n = 1263) and 3 controlled cohort studies (n = 2588), conducted in the United States (2 trials), Malawi, Scotland, Uganda, and Senegal. All studies compared 12-month continuation rates of self-injected DMPA-SC vs provider-administered DMPA­-SC or DMPA-IM every 3 months (12-13 weeks, with a window for early and late injections). Participants were at least 15 years of age (mean range, 26 to 29 years). In some studies, reminders (eg, texts, emails, calendar notifications) were provided to either the self-injection cohort only or to both cohorts of the trial. The RCTs were generally graded as having a low risk for bias, except for nonblinding of participants and personnel, given the nature of the interventions. The authors reported no evidence of significant heterogeneity in the studies.

The meta-analysis found higher continuation rates at 12 months with self-­administrated DMPA compared with provider administration in the RCTs (RR = 1.27; 95% CI, 1.16-1.39) and in the observational cohort studies (RR = 1.18; 95% CI, 1.10-1.26). Pregnancy outcomes were reported in 4 studies, with the meta-analysis finding no significant difference in pregnancy rates in 2 RCTs (RR = 0.58; 95% CI, 0.15-2.22) or 2 observational cohort studies (RR = 1.1; 95% CI, 0.23-5.26).

Adverse effects or events were reported in 4 studies: 2 cohort studies reported increased injection site reactions with self-administration, and 1 RCT reported increased injection site pain or irritation with self-administration at 3 and 9 months. No other reported adverse effects occurred at higher rates with self-administration vs provider administration.

WHAT’S NEW

Demonstrated effectiveness of self-administered formulation

This systematic review and meta-analysis demonstrated that self-administration of DMPA-SC leads to higher contraception continuation rates at 12 months, without notable increased pregnancy rates or adverse effects, when compared with provider-administered DMPA.

Continue to: CAVEATS

Outcome data limited to 12 months

Although self-administered DMPA-SC has the theoretical risk for user error and incorrect administration, this study did not find increased rates of pregnancy despite administration outside a health care center. However, the total number of pregnancies in each of the 4 studies measuring this outcome was low (< 5), and thus the authors noted that the effect size estimates may not be accurate.

Currently, there are no data on long-term outcomes beyond 12 months. Additionally, the health care visits for provider-administered DMPA every 3 months may afford other benefits, such as regular discussion of reproductive health concerns or testing for sexually transmitted infections, which must be weighed against the benefit of increased contraception access with self-administration. However, using the DMPA-SC self-administered formulation at home would not inhibit women from making separate health care visits as needed.

CHALLENGES TO IMPLEMENTATION

Limited resources to teach patients how to self-inject

Barriers to implementation include limited experience with prescribing DMPA-SC and changing practice culture to offer it to patients. Additionally, successful implementation of self-administered DMPA-SC is reliant on providing patients with appropriate information and training on self-injection, which requires knowledge, time, and other resources­ that may be limited in practices. Another potential barrier is product access, as not all insurers cover DMPA-SC and some pharmacies do not carry it.

ILLUSTRATIVE CASE

A 32-year-old woman with a history of migraine with aura presents to your office for contraception management. She works full-time, has 2 children, and has transportation barriers. She previously used injectable DMPA (administered every 3 months at a health care facility) and would like to restart it. However, because she had to reschedule her last appointment due to a lack of transportation, she missed her injection window and subsequently became pregnant with her second child. She would still prefer injectable DMPA over the other contraceptive options ­offered—etonogestrel implant, oral contraceptive, or intrauterine device (IUD)—given her migraine history. However, she’s concerned she may have difficulty coming to the office every 3 months for her injection. What alternative injectable option can you offer?

When not pregnant or seeking to become pregnant, women may spend a significant amount of their lives trying to avoid pregnancy, and almost all women use contraception at some point.² During the childbearing years of 15 to 49, 65% of women report using contraception.² Although DMPA is a safe and effective option, only 2% of women report using it for contraception.²

For patients who have migraine with aura, there are fewer contraception options because their risk for ischemic stroke is increased 2- to 4-fold if they use combined hormonal contraceptives in pill, patch, or vaginal ring form.³ Safe options for these patients include the copper IUD, levonorgestrel­-releasing intrauterine system, progestin implant, and DMPA injection.³

DMPA is a progestogen-only contraceptive approved by the US Food and Drug Administration to prevent pregnancy. It is available in an intramuscular formulation (DMPA-IM; 150 mg/mL every 13 weeks) and a subcutaneous formulation (DMPA-SC; 104 mg/0.65 mL every 12-14 weeks). DMPA-IM is administered by a health care provider and thus requires patients to present every 3 months for an injection. About 6% of ­DMPA-IM users have an unintended pregnancy in the first year due to inconsistent or incorrect use or late receipt of injection.⁴ DMPA-SC is produced as a prefilled needle that can be self-injected by patients.

Barriers to access are a growing concern. During the COVID-19 pandemic, one-third of women surveyed by the Guttmacher Institute (n = 2009) reported delaying or canceling a health care visit or having difficulty obtaining their contraception. Barriers to health care and contraception access were more common among Black and Hispanic women (vs White women), queer women (vs straight women), and low-income women (vs higher-income women).⁵

Following the overturning of Roe v Wade in June 2022, abortion access is now limited in parts of the United States. Given this significant policy change, physicians have an increasingly important role in providing contraception care and reducing barriers to contraception access. Since the SC forms of injectable contraception can be administered at home rather than in the health care setting, both the World Health Organization and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention have recommended that self-administered injectable contraception be made widely available to expand access to contraception.^6,7

STUDY SUMMARY

Higher contraceptive continuation rates with comparable safety and efficacy

This 2019 systematic review and meta-­analysis evaluated the outcomes associated with use of self-administered DMPA-SC vs provider-administered DMPA in 5 countries.¹ The authors searched several electronic databases for peer-reviewed studies of women who chose the option to self-administer DMPA-SC vs those who received DMPA injections from a health care provider.

Continue to: Outcomes included pregnancy

Outcomes included pregnancy; adverse effects or events (bleeding, injection site reactions, mental health concerns); initial use of injectable contraception (contraception uptake); and continuation rate of injectable contraception. Two reviewers extracted the data and assessed trials for bias. The authors used random-effects models to calculate pooled relative risk (RR) for studies with the same outcomes.

For patients who prefer an injectable contraceptive, a self-administered formulation of DMPA appears to balance access with convenience without an increase in adverse outcomes.

The analysis included a total of 6 trials (N = 3851): 3 RCTs (n = 1263) and 3 controlled cohort studies (n = 2588), conducted in the United States (2 trials), Malawi, Scotland, Uganda, and Senegal. All studies compared 12-month continuation rates of self-injected DMPA-SC vs provider-administered DMPA­-SC or DMPA-IM every 3 months (12-13 weeks, with a window for early and late injections). Participants were at least 15 years of age (mean range, 26 to 29 years). In some studies, reminders (eg, texts, emails, calendar notifications) were provided to either the self-injection cohort only or to both cohorts of the trial. The RCTs were generally graded as having a low risk for bias, except for nonblinding of participants and personnel, given the nature of the interventions. The authors reported no evidence of significant heterogeneity in the studies.

The meta-analysis found higher continuation rates at 12 months with self-­administrated DMPA compared with provider administration in the RCTs (RR = 1.27; 95% CI, 1.16-1.39) and in the observational cohort studies (RR = 1.18; 95% CI, 1.10-1.26). Pregnancy outcomes were reported in 4 studies, with the meta-analysis finding no significant difference in pregnancy rates in 2 RCTs (RR = 0.58; 95% CI, 0.15-2.22) or 2 observational cohort studies (RR = 1.1; 95% CI, 0.23-5.26).

Adverse effects or events were reported in 4 studies: 2 cohort studies reported increased injection site reactions with self-administration, and 1 RCT reported increased injection site pain or irritation with self-administration at 3 and 9 months. No other reported adverse effects occurred at higher rates with self-administration vs provider administration.

WHAT’S NEW

Demonstrated effectiveness of self-administered formulation

This systematic review and meta-analysis demonstrated that self-administration of DMPA-SC leads to higher contraception continuation rates at 12 months, without notable increased pregnancy rates or adverse effects, when compared with provider-administered DMPA.

Continue to: CAVEATS

Outcome data limited to 12 months

Although self-administered DMPA-SC has the theoretical risk for user error and incorrect administration, this study did not find increased rates of pregnancy despite administration outside a health care center. However, the total number of pregnancies in each of the 4 studies measuring this outcome was low (< 5), and thus the authors noted that the effect size estimates may not be accurate.

Currently, there are no data on long-term outcomes beyond 12 months. Additionally, the health care visits for provider-administered DMPA every 3 months may afford other benefits, such as regular discussion of reproductive health concerns or testing for sexually transmitted infections, which must be weighed against the benefit of increased contraception access with self-administration. However, using the DMPA-SC self-administered formulation at home would not inhibit women from making separate health care visits as needed.

CHALLENGES TO IMPLEMENTATION

Limited resources to teach patients how to self-inject

Barriers to implementation include limited experience with prescribing DMPA-SC and changing practice culture to offer it to patients. Additionally, successful implementation of self-administered DMPA-SC is reliant on providing patients with appropriate information and training on self-injection, which requires knowledge, time, and other resources­ that may be limited in practices. Another potential barrier is product access, as not all insurers cover DMPA-SC and some pharmacies do not carry it.

ILLUSTRATIVE CASE

A 32-year-old woman with a history of migraine with aura presents to your office for contraception management. She works full-time, has 2 children, and has transportation barriers. She previously used injectable DMPA (administered every 3 months at a health care facility) and would like to restart it. However, because she had to reschedule her last appointment due to a lack of transportation, she missed her injection window and subsequently became pregnant with her second child. She would still prefer injectable DMPA over the other contraceptive options ­offered—etonogestrel implant, oral contraceptive, or intrauterine device (IUD)—given her migraine history. However, she’s concerned she may have difficulty coming to the office every 3 months for her injection. What alternative injectable option can you offer?

When not pregnant or seeking to become pregnant, women may spend a significant amount of their lives trying to avoid pregnancy, and almost all women use contraception at some point.² During the childbearing years of 15 to 49, 65% of women report using contraception.² Although DMPA is a safe and effective option, only 2% of women report using it for contraception.²

For patients who have migraine with aura, there are fewer contraception options because their risk for ischemic stroke is increased 2- to 4-fold if they use combined hormonal contraceptives in pill, patch, or vaginal ring form.³ Safe options for these patients include the copper IUD, levonorgestrel­-releasing intrauterine system, progestin implant, and DMPA injection.³

DMPA is a progestogen-only contraceptive approved by the US Food and Drug Administration to prevent pregnancy. It is available in an intramuscular formulation (DMPA-IM; 150 mg/mL every 13 weeks) and a subcutaneous formulation (DMPA-SC; 104 mg/0.65 mL every 12-14 weeks). DMPA-IM is administered by a health care provider and thus requires patients to present every 3 months for an injection. About 6% of ­DMPA-IM users have an unintended pregnancy in the first year due to inconsistent or incorrect use or late receipt of injection.⁴ DMPA-SC is produced as a prefilled needle that can be self-injected by patients.

Barriers to access are a growing concern. During the COVID-19 pandemic, one-third of women surveyed by the Guttmacher Institute (n = 2009) reported delaying or canceling a health care visit or having difficulty obtaining their contraception. Barriers to health care and contraception access were more common among Black and Hispanic women (vs White women), queer women (vs straight women), and low-income women (vs higher-income women).⁵

Following the overturning of Roe v Wade in June 2022, abortion access is now limited in parts of the United States. Given this significant policy change, physicians have an increasingly important role in providing contraception care and reducing barriers to contraception access. Since the SC forms of injectable contraception can be administered at home rather than in the health care setting, both the World Health Organization and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention have recommended that self-administered injectable contraception be made widely available to expand access to contraception.^6,7

STUDY SUMMARY

Higher contraceptive continuation rates with comparable safety and efficacy

This 2019 systematic review and meta-­analysis evaluated the outcomes associated with use of self-administered DMPA-SC vs provider-administered DMPA in 5 countries.¹ The authors searched several electronic databases for peer-reviewed studies of women who chose the option to self-administer DMPA-SC vs those who received DMPA injections from a health care provider.

Continue to: Outcomes included pregnancy

Outcomes included pregnancy; adverse effects or events (bleeding, injection site reactions, mental health concerns); initial use of injectable contraception (contraception uptake); and continuation rate of injectable contraception. Two reviewers extracted the data and assessed trials for bias. The authors used random-effects models to calculate pooled relative risk (RR) for studies with the same outcomes.

For patients who prefer an injectable contraceptive, a self-administered formulation of DMPA appears to balance access with convenience without an increase in adverse outcomes.

The analysis included a total of 6 trials (N = 3851): 3 RCTs (n = 1263) and 3 controlled cohort studies (n = 2588), conducted in the United States (2 trials), Malawi, Scotland, Uganda, and Senegal. All studies compared 12-month continuation rates of self-injected DMPA-SC vs provider-administered DMPA­-SC or DMPA-IM every 3 months (12-13 weeks, with a window for early and late injections). Participants were at least 15 years of age (mean range, 26 to 29 years). In some studies, reminders (eg, texts, emails, calendar notifications) were provided to either the self-injection cohort only or to both cohorts of the trial. The RCTs were generally graded as having a low risk for bias, except for nonblinding of participants and personnel, given the nature of the interventions. The authors reported no evidence of significant heterogeneity in the studies.

The meta-analysis found higher continuation rates at 12 months with self-­administrated DMPA compared with provider administration in the RCTs (RR = 1.27; 95% CI, 1.16-1.39) and in the observational cohort studies (RR = 1.18; 95% CI, 1.10-1.26). Pregnancy outcomes were reported in 4 studies, with the meta-analysis finding no significant difference in pregnancy rates in 2 RCTs (RR = 0.58; 95% CI, 0.15-2.22) or 2 observational cohort studies (RR = 1.1; 95% CI, 0.23-5.26).

Adverse effects or events were reported in 4 studies: 2 cohort studies reported increased injection site reactions with self-administration, and 1 RCT reported increased injection site pain or irritation with self-administration at 3 and 9 months. No other reported adverse effects occurred at higher rates with self-administration vs provider administration.

WHAT’S NEW

Demonstrated effectiveness of self-administered formulation

This systematic review and meta-analysis demonstrated that self-administration of DMPA-SC leads to higher contraception continuation rates at 12 months, without notable increased pregnancy rates or adverse effects, when compared with provider-administered DMPA.

Continue to: CAVEATS

Outcome data limited to 12 months

Although self-administered DMPA-SC has the theoretical risk for user error and incorrect administration, this study did not find increased rates of pregnancy despite administration outside a health care center. However, the total number of pregnancies in each of the 4 studies measuring this outcome was low (< 5), and thus the authors noted that the effect size estimates may not be accurate.

Currently, there are no data on long-term outcomes beyond 12 months. Additionally, the health care visits for provider-administered DMPA every 3 months may afford other benefits, such as regular discussion of reproductive health concerns or testing for sexually transmitted infections, which must be weighed against the benefit of increased contraception access with self-administration. However, using the DMPA-SC self-administered formulation at home would not inhibit women from making separate health care visits as needed.

CHALLENGES TO IMPLEMENTATION

Limited resources to teach patients how to self-inject

Barriers to implementation include limited experience with prescribing DMPA-SC and changing practice culture to offer it to patients. Additionally, successful implementation of self-administered DMPA-SC is reliant on providing patients with appropriate information and training on self-injection, which requires knowledge, time, and other resources­ that may be limited in practices. Another potential barrier is product access, as not all insurers cover DMPA-SC and some pharmacies do not carry it.